System Review Question Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

What is the maximum continuous engine starter operation time

A

5 minutes

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2
Q

What is the maximum EGT during engine start

A

700c

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3
Q

What is the keep out zone logic with regard to the engines fitted to the A330

A

In order to prevent fan stability, this logic avoids stabilised engine operation between the 1.16 to 1.28 EPR range, when on the ground

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4
Q

Which flight computers are part of the thrust reverser deployment actuation logic

A

PRIM 1 or PRIM 3

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5
Q

During a dry crank, what is the min time required to clear fuel vapours

A

30 seconds

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6
Q

What is the maximum speed in flight following an ENG REV UNLOCKED ECAM with associated buffeting

A

250kt

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7
Q

FADEC has two channel redundancy

A

One is active and on standbye

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8
Q

During the engine start sequence, the starting sequence indications appears

A

On the ENG SD page

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9
Q

The FADEC provides protection against ___ turbine over speed due to ____ shaft breakage between compressor and turbine. If it occurs, the engine is shut down by closing the ____ shut off valve. Indelent of the FADEC, the engine is fitted with the N1/N2 over speed protection unit

A

Low pressure
Low pressure
High pressure

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10
Q

The aircraft reverses engine thrust by using four pivoting blocker doors on each engine to deflect the fan airstream. The FADEC will automatically command the engine to idle and the reverser to stow if at least ____ door(s) is / are ____ by more than ____% and reverse thrust is not selected while the engine is running. The affected reverser will remain pressurised after the affected door is locked back.

A

One
Unstowed
5%

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11
Q

If PACK REG is displayed on the COND SD page

A

Both zone controller channels have failed, optimised temperature regulation is lost and packs will deliver a fixed outlet temperate of 20c

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12
Q

You have selected the zone template rotary selector on the overhead panel to the 12 o’clock position. Within which temp range can the cabin crew now control the cabin temp from the forward attendant panel?

A

21-27c

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13
Q

During your pre flight cockpit prep, when might you select pack flow to LO?

A

If less than 60% of economy class seats are occupied but not more than 200 total passengers

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14
Q

CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT appears on the ECAM. You should?

A

Rely on the ECAM warning even if it is not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page

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15
Q

A CAB VERT SPD ECAM advisory has triggered, due to the cabin v/s exceeding 1800fpm in the climb or -1800 ft/min in the descent. The recommendation is to perform a CPC changeover. This is completed by

A

Selecting the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pb to MAN. After 3 seconds set back to AUTO.

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16
Q

Once a you adjust cabin temp ln the overhead panel. How long should you wait for allow this to take affect?

A

20 mins

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17
Q

Due to failure of both CPCs, manual cabin vertical speed control is required. What are the target rates for climb and descent.

A

Climb 500fpm
Descent 300fpm

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18
Q

The fuel system cross feed value

A

Enables any pump to supply any engine and Leon’s automatically during electrical emergency configuration.

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19
Q

The trim tank transfer system controls the CG, automatic CG control would normally …

A

Begin during climb to FL255 or above
End at descent to FL245
End when there is less than 35 mins to dest or less than 75 mins in the event of a trim tank forward transfer pump failure

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20
Q

If req in an emergency situation, fuel jettison can be achieved at an output rate of

A

1000kg per minute

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21
Q

The upper ECAM display shows the fuel on board. If an amber half box appears around the FOB figure

A

The indicated fuel quantity is not fully usable

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22
Q

In the event of wing tank gravity refuelling. With both side couplings used and normal pressure, the time to refuel all tanks is

A

33 mins

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23
Q

Transfer from the centre to inner tanks can be manually selected with the ____ pb. When selected MAN, the inner tank inlet valves are opened and the ___ pumps run.

A

CTR TK XFR
CTR TK

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24
Q

Each FCMC calculates the fuel quantity by using the:

A

Volume, density, horizontal stab angle, aircraft attitude and electrical characteristics from the compensators

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25
What is the max runway slope limit
+/- 2%
26
What is the max speed for gravity landing gear extension
200kts
27
What is the max speed for speed break extension
300 kts
28
What are the correct wind limits for use of the autoland function
Head wind 35 kts Cross wind 20 kts Tail wind 10 kts
29
What is the nose wheel steering limit
65c
30
What is the max taxi speed when turning with one deflated tyre
7kt
31
What is the max continuous engine starter operation time
5 mins
32
What is the max zero fuel weight
170,000 kg
33
What is the max demonstrated crosswind for take off
32kt gust included
34
What is the max positive cabin differential pressure
9.25 psi
35
Break temps are high, TO should be delayed until break temps fall below
300 c
36
If the landing gear is not downlocked in landing configuration, the red arrow and associated ECAM warnings come on red in approach at
750 ft RA
37
Nosewheel steering control authority depends on aircraft speed. Rudder pedals provide nosewheel steering control when …
The speed is below 100kt at landing or up to 150kt for take off
38
With regards to the autobrake system, when MED is selected, progressive pressure goes to the brakes
Starting at ground spoiler deployment order, in order to decelerate the aircraft at 3m/s2 (9.8ft/s2)
39
Gear and door sequencing is electrically controlled by the LGCIUs. Each LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle and switches over
At each landing gear retraction cycle or in case of failure
40
The antoskie system is deactivated below ____ kt ground speed
10
41
If the captain holds down the disc button ok his tiller
Nosewheel steering is not available from either set of rudder pedals
42
During landing with manual breaking, the aircraft does not decelerate. What are the first 5 initial actions in the correct order
Reverse MAX Break pedals - release A/SKID and N/W STRG - Off Brake pedals - press Max break pressure = 1000 psi
43
After recovering both generators following an ELEC EMER CONFIG, the AC and DC ESS BUSES are supplied by
The emergency generator
44
Following an ELEC EMEG CONFIG, the RAT only is supplying green system, LAND RECOVERY, pb has not been pressed and your speed is 275kt. Which statement describes the fuel system correctly
L PUMP 2 is running and the crossfeed valve is open
45
What is the normal minimum battery voltage (ac not powered in the last 6 hours)
25.5v
46
The AC and DC SERVICES BUSES can only supply limited items for the servicing of the aircraft (cabin cleaning, cargo loading). This ground service supply is done via a direct connection from
External power A only
47
When the green hydraulic system is powered by the RAT, the emergency generator is inhibited when
Slats are extended
48
No break power transfers are controlled by
The ECMUs
49
What is the output of the static inverter
115v 400hz single phase 2.5KVA
50
After recovering both generators following an ELEC EMER CONFIG, the AC and DC ESS BUSES are supplied by
The emergency generator
51
Following and ELEC EMER CONFIG, the RAT only is supplying green system, LAND RECOVERY pb has not been pressed and your speed is 275kt. Which statement describes the fuel system correctly?
L PUMP 2 is running and the crossfeed valve is open.
52
The flap load relief system (FLRS) retracts the flaps when in
Config 2/3/Full and the speed is >VFE + 2.5 kts
53
The aircraft is flying with maximum side stock roll input when it enters the high speed protection. What happens to the bank angle
It will go to 45 degrees and will reduce to 0 degrees if the sidestick is released
54
When the angle of attack protection is active, the THS is limited between
Setting at entry in protection and 2 degree nose down
55
On landing, when the aircraft passes 100ft RA
The THS is frozen and the normal flight mode changes to flare mode. Flare mode is essentially a direct stick to evalator relationship.
56
When the load factor is higher than
1.3 or when the bank angle is beyond 33 degrees, the THS is limited between the actual setting and 2 degree nose down.
57
Delete
58
What happens if one channel a SFCC fails
Slays or flaps will be slow
59
In the case of a failure that causes loss of the rudder travel limit function, the rudder deflection limit stops at the last value reached. Full authority is recovered at
Slays extension
60
The slats Alpha / Speed lock function inhibits slats retraction
If alpha exceeds 8.5 degrees or the speed goes below 148kt
61
A GPWS Mode 3 alert is triggered. What warnings will you receive?
The GPWS amber lights come on and aural “don’t sink don’t sink”
62
A GPwS Mode 5 alert is triggered. What aural warnings will you receive?
The GPWS amber lights come on and aural warnings ”glide slope”
63
The 5 basic modes of GPWS are active up to a radio height of
2500ft
64
On approach, if the predictive windsheer system detects windsheer, the warning given aurally and on the PFD is
Go Around windsheer ahead and the W/S AHEAD on PFD (RED)
65
With regards to the predictive windsheer area indication, when the radar detects a windsheer event and the ND range is set above 10nm
A W/S SET RNG 10NM message appears
66
At Take off, windsheer alerts are inhibited
Above 100kt and up to 50ft
67
The weather radar has a predictive windsheer system (PWS) that operates when
The aircraft is below 2300ft AGL
68
At 800ft on approach, you recieve the warning GO AROUND WINDSHEER AHEAD. What are your actions
Go AROUND … PERFORM AP (if engaged) .. KEEP ON If necessary the flight crew may pull the side stick fully back
69
If the “CHECK OIL LEVEL” warning appears on the APU SD Page, how long can you run the APU for?
15 hours if there are no leaks
70
Up to what altitude can the APU supply 2 packs?
17,500ft
71
After 3 consecutive APU start attempts, how long must you wait before attempting another start?
60 mins
72
APU start is permittted throughout the normal flight envelope, except when APU battery only is supplying. What is this battery start height limit.
25,000ft
73
What is the output of the APU Generator
The same as the engine generator
74
The avionics smoke warning triggers if
Both smoke detectors detect smoke for more than 5 seconds
75
If smoke is detected in the lavatory the SDCU will transmit the information to
CIDS for warning display on cockpit and cabin
76
Engine fire detection alert is available
Throughout flight with inhibition between V1 and lift off + 15 seconds
77
In case of APU fire on ground, the APU fire extinguisher is discharged
Automatically three seconds after the fire warning appearance.
78
For the engines, where are the fire sensing elements located
In the pylon nacelle, engine core, compressor and fan sections
79
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for cargo fire protection
2 bottles
80
Smoke detection is available in which of the following aircraft areas
Cargo compartments Lavatories Avionics bay
81
Assuming all detection loops are servicabke the avionics smoke warning triggers if
Both smoke detectors detect smoke for more than 5 seconds
82
The lavatory smoke detectors are located in
The air extraction duct of each lavatory
83
If smoke is detected in the cockpit what should be your first consideration if required
Don crew oxygen mash’s and establish cockpit communication
84
At any time of the SMOKE / FUMES / AVNCS SMOKE Procedure, if smoke/fumes becomes the GREATEST THREAT, you should?
Consider REMOVAL OF SMOKE FUMES Procedure and ELEC EMER CONFIG
85
The hydraulic priority valve
Cuts off hydraulic power to heavy load users (emergency generator, nose wheel steering and landing gear) in order to keep the pressure for normal braking and flight controls
86
The hydraulic system is monitored by
The HSMU
87
The BLUE ELEC PUMP runs automatically in flight only
In the event of an engine 1 failure in addition to a PRIM 1 or PRIM 3 loss to ensure sufficient authority on the electrical rudder.
88
The BLUE engine driven hydraulic pump is connected to
Eng 1
89
The yellow engine driven hydraulic pumps are connected to
Eng 2
90
In order to Operate the cargo doors when no electrical power is available, crew members can also use a hand pump to pressurise
The Yellow system
91
The yellow electric pump runs automatically
In flight, in the event of an engine 2 failure, if the FLAPS lever is not at 0 (to ensure flap retraction)
92
The hydraulic leak measurement valves p/b when selected off:
Shut off hydraulic power to the flight controls
93
The RAT is coupled to the hydraulic pump which powers the
The green system
94
If the flight crew inadvertently presses the hydraulic leak measurement valves P/B in flight
The off light will come on to advise the crew that the electro hydraulic valves will close at landing when the aircraft speed is less than 100kts L
95
On each system, the electric pump flow is about
18% of the engine driven pumps
96
The RAT may be re stowed after deployment
Ok ground only by maintenance personnel
97
The white bar on the GREEN hydraulic system and ECAM SD indicates
When fluid level is 17 litres
98
The RAT will automatically extends in flight if
If both engines fail
99
The green electric pump runs
For 25 seconds in the event of an engine failure when the selector lever is moved to the up position
100
Normal hydraulic system pressure is
3000
101
When either engine anti ice valve is open
Max EPR is reduced and idle EPR is increased
102
In flight the ____ on each wing are anti iced with pneumatic bleed.
Four outboard slats only
103
The ECAM MEMO PAGE will display WING A.ICE when the wing anti-I’ve switch is on
True
104
Probe heat comes on automatically when
At least one engine is running