Systemic Immunomodulators Flashcards
1
Q
What is the mechanism of apremilast?
A
PDE-4 inhibitor
2
Q
What are the indications for apremilast?
A
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
3
Q
What are the most common side effects of apremilast?
A
Diarrhea and nausea (usually go away spontaneously in 4 weeks)
4
Q
What is a serious medical history item that should be screen for apremilast?
A
Depression/suicidality. There have been reports of depression on the medication
5
Q
Renal adjustment of apremilast?
A
Yes, in severe renal impairment, halve the dose
6
Q
Laboratory monitoring needed for apremilast?
A
None!
7
Q
What JAK’s are affected by tofacitinib?
A
JAK 1 and 3
8
Q
What are the most common side effects for JAK inhibitors?
A
URI, mild headaches, and nausea. May have decreased hgb and neutrophil count but normalizes on treatment.
Also may have increased LDL, HDL, CK, TGs, and LFTs
9
Q
What JAK inhibitors are affected by Ruxolitinib?
A
JAK 1 and 2
10
Q
What is azathioprine’s active metabolite?
A
6-TG (thioguanine)
11
Q
What is azathioprine’s mechanism of action?
A
Active metabolite is produced by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) pathway and shares similarities w/ endogenous purines. So, it gets incorporated in the DNA and RNA and inhibits purine metabolism and cell division. This is particularly true if the cells are fast-growing and don’t have a purine salvage pathway (like lymphocytes).
12
Q
What enzymes break azathioprine into its inactive metabolites?
A
Xanthine oxidase and thiopurine methyltransferase
13
Q
What is the clinical effect of azathioprine?
A
It diminishes T-cell unction and antibody production by B-cells
14
Q
What medications can lead to life-threatening myelosuppression in people taking azathioprine?
A
Xanthine oxidase is involved in the conversion to inactive metabolites, so allopurinol or febuxostat can inhibit this and lead to elevated levels of azathioprine
15
Q
What other medications besides allopurinol and febuxostat can increase the risk of myelosuppression with azathioprine?
A
ACEi, sulfasalzine, and concomitant use of folate antagonists
16
Q
What test must be checked before starting azathioprine?
A
TPMT activty
17
Q
Important side effects of azathioprine?
A
Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and immunosuppression (correlates with low TPMT activity)
18
Q
What cancer risks are increased in azathioprine?
A
Squamous cell carcinoma and lymphoma (non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma)
No clear evidence that this actually occurs with doses used in dermatologic dz
19
Q
What are the most common side effects of azathioprine?
A
Gastrointestinal side effects: nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea (often between first and tenth day of therapy), gastritis and pancreatitis
20
Q
When does hypersensitivity syndrome usually occur?
A
Usually between first and fourth week of therapy and more common in those getting MTX or cyclosporin
21
Q
What effect on the killed hepatitis B vaccine do azathioprine and prednisone have?
A
These have been shown to decrease the response of the vaccine
22
Q
If azathioprine is given with a TNF-a inhibitor, what cancer is the person at risk for?
A
Increased risk of hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma
23
Q
What baseline tests should be done before starting azathioprine?
A
Pregnancy test, tuberculin skin test
24
Q
What is the mechanism of action for mycophenolate mofetil?
A
Binds and inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
This is an important enzyme for de novo synthesis of purines - which is essential in activated lymphocytes
25
What medications or things can decrease the absorption of mycophenolate mofetil?
Requires gastric acidity --\> needed for cleavage into its active version
## Footnote
*things like antacids, H2 blockers, PPI's things that decrease acidity will decrease serum levels*
26
What are absolute contraindications for mycophenolate mofetil?
Pregnancy and drug allergy
27
What is the risk of skin cancer or other cancers in those taking mycophenolate mofetil for dermatologic conditions?
Unknown, risk is increased in transplant patients but these patients often have more than one medication on board.
28
What are the most common side effects of mycophenolate mofetil?
Diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
29
What is the neutrophil dysplasia that can be seen with the administration of mycophenolate mofetil, and what can it signify?
Pseudo-Pelger-Juet anomaly = nuclear hypolobulation w/ a left shift. This may predict the development of neutropenia
30
What baseline tests should be performed for mycophenolate mofetil?
Baseline hepatitis B/C panel, tuberculosis screen, and pregnancy test
31
What lab monitoring should be done for patients on mycophenolate mofetil?
CBC/ w diff, CMP at baseline and then every 2-4 weeks after starting treatment or dose escalation and then every 2-3 months once the dose is stable
32
What is the mechanism of action for cyclosporine?
Forms a complex w/ cyclophilin, which inhibits calcineurin (intracellular enzyme), --\> decrease in NFAT activity (this transcribes various cytokines, such as IL-2)
33
How does cyclosporine affect CD4 and CD8 cells?
Decreases IL-2 production leads to decreased numbers of CD4 and CD8 cells
34
What is the maximum dose for dermatologic disease for cyclosporine?
5 mg/kg and can be used continuously for up to 1 year (FDA, 2 years for worldwide consenses)
35
In what patients is cyclosporine contraindicated in?
Lymphoma, risk of progression
36
What are the two most noted side effects of cyclosporine?
Hypertension and nephrotoxicity
## Footnote
*these are dose and duration dependant*
37
How can kidney damage be avoided in using cyclosporin?
Not exceeding doses of 2.5-5mg/kg, not using for more than 1 year, and **dose adjusting when creatine increases by 30%**
38
Is HTN a reason to discontinue cyclosporine?
No, the HTN that develops is thought to be 2/2 renal vasoconstriction. When it occurs it can be controlled with blood pressure medications.
39
What are the preferred blood pressure medications for cyclosporine-induced HTN and why?
CCB's like nifedipine and isradipine because these do not affect serum levels of cyclosporin
40
Important side effects of cyclosporine?
Increased risk of NMSC (other malignancies is unclear), hyperlipidemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, myalgia, paresthesia, tremors, malaise, hyperuricemia (can precipitate gout), hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia
Bilirubin, uric acid, lipids, potassium (all of these go up)
## Footnote
*For the main labs think BULK-UP*
41
What should be done if Cr increases by more than 30% while on cyclosporine?
Re-check Cr levels. If it is still \>30% then decrease dose by at least 1mg/kg for 4 weeks. Then re-check the Cr. If it \<30% increase over baseline then therapy can be resumed. If Creatine does not drop then discontinue therapy. If the creatine returns to within 10% of baseline, cyclosporine can be resumed at a lower dose
42
What should be done if creatine levels increase by \>50% while on cyclosporine?
Cyclosporine must be decreased until the Cr has returned to baseline
43
What baseline measurements/labs should be done prior to starting cyclosporine?
2 baseline blood pressure at least 1 day apart
2 baseline creatine values at least 1 day apart
Baseline: BUN, CBC, LFTs, fasting lipid profile, magnesium, potassium, and uric acid
44
Monitoring for cyclosporin?
Labs (CBC, CMP, lipids, uric acid, magnesium) and blood pressures should be checked every 2 weeks for the first 1-2 months then every 4-6 weeks with blood pressure checked at each visit (encourage pt to take a home log of blood pressures)
45
What is the mechanism of action for methotrexate?
**Binds dihydrofolate reductase** with more affinity than folic acid. This prevents dihydrofolate from being converted to tetrahydrofolate which is a required cofactor for purine synthesis. Ultimately this inhibits cell division
46
What medications can be given to reduce side effects or rescue the patient from adverse effects of methotrexate?
Leucovorin (folinic acid) or thymidine. Folinic acid is the naturally occurring version of folic acid (synthetic). Both of these decrease side effects
47
Does giving folate or folinic acid decrease the efficacy of methotrexate?
No!
48
At what cumulative doses of methotrexate is there concern for hepatic fibrosis and how is this assessed?
\> 1.5-5g of methotrexate, especially with preexisting live dz like HCV, psoriasis, EtOH abuse, or those not getting folate (reduces the risk of LFT abnormalities by 76%).
## Footnote
*Presence of cirrhosis is tested w/ liver biopsy for now*
49
Absolute contraindications of methotrexate?
Pregnancy and lactation
50
What are the idiosyncratic adverse reactions of methotrexate?
Acute pneumonitis (rare), methotrexate must be stopped early or can be life-threatening
Pancytopenia: usually occurs early (4-6 months), and may be idiosyncratic
51
What are the risk factors for pancytopenia in methotrexate tx and when does pancytopenia occur?
Usually occurs early (4-6 weeks), old age, poor renal function and lack of oflic acid supplementation are risk factors
52
Why should Bactrim be avoided in patients on methotrexate?
3 main issues with the Bactrim MTX combination: 1. Both inhibit dihydrofolate reductase, so folate metabolism goes way down and increases the risk of myelosuppression. 2. Both drugs can cause nephrotoxicity and this impairment can lead to elevated levels of either or both drugs. 3. Competitive protein binding, usually MTX is highly bound to albumin, Bactrim displaces this and increases the serum levels of free MTX (increases levels by 30% and decreases excretion.
- For dermatology, the myelosuppression is likely more likely (kidney toxicity is with higher doses, and less common)
53
Most common side effects of methotrexate?
**GI side effects** common, include nausea, anorexia (both of these more common than diarrhea), vomiting, and ulcerative stomatitis
## Footnote
*Other side effects include alopecia, HA, fatigue, dizziness, accelerate d nodule development in patients with RA (usually on the fingers, smaller than normal RA nodules), and **phototoxicity** (including UV and **radiation recall reactions**
54
What agents can increase the risk of myelosuppression when given with methotrexate?
Agents that also inhibit folic acid metabolism: trimethoprim, sulfonamides, and dapsone
Agents that displace methotrexate plasma proteins leading to increased levels: tetracyclines, phenytoin, phenothiazines, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, salicylates
55
What agents can increase the risk of myelosuppression when given with methotrexate?
Agents that also inhibit folic acid metabolism: trimethoprim, sulfonamides, and dapsone
Agents that displace methotrexate plasma proteins leading to increased levels: tetracyclines, phenytoin, phenothiazines, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, salicylates
56
What baseline and monitoring labs are needed for methotrexate?
CBC w/ diff, CMP, viral hep panel, then repeat these weekly for the first month (except the viral panel), and then gradually decrease the frequency to every 3-4 months (q 2weeks for 2 months, q month for 2 months, q 3 months after
57
What should be given if significant myelosuppression is seen?
Leucovorin rescue
58
In what population can injectable methotrexate be considered?
Pediatric population, they may have reduced oral absorption of methotrexate or the underlying diseases may alter this as well
59
What is UV and radiation recall?
Methotrexate causes toxic cutaneous reactions to reappear on previously affected skin
60
What is the mechanism of hydroxyurea?
Impairs DNA synthesis through inhibititor of ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase; hypomethylates DNA and results in altered gene expression
61
What is hydroxyurea used for within dermatology?
severe recalcitrant psoriasis, Sweet's syndrome, erythromelalgia, and hypereosinophilic syndrome
62
Mechanism of action for IVIG?
Decreased antibody production, complement activation, neturalization of pathogenic antibodies and bacterial superantigens, binds immune receptors and leads to immunomodulation, decreases TNF-alpha and other proinflammatory cytokines, antioxidant, blocks Fc receptors, decreases T-cell activation through various pathways, increases regulatory T-cells and contains anti-Fas receptor antibodies which decreases keratinocyte apoptosis, and decreases migration fo immune cells to target tissues.
63
Dermatologic uses for IVIG?
autoimmune blistering disorders, dermatomyositis, SJS/TEN, Kawasaki disease, SLE, chronic autoimmune urticaria, scleroderma, and livedoid vasculopathy
64
What are the side effects of IVIG?
Must screen for IgA levels, deficiency can lead to anaphylaxis w/ IVIG
- Infusion-related adverse effects include headache, myalgia, flushing, fever, wheezing, and pretreatment w/ antihistamines/NSAIDS/corticosteroid can help, fluid overload can occur in cardiac and renal failure patients, aseptic meningitis, thromboembolic events, and dyshidrotic hand eczema
65
What conditions can increase the risk of renal failure w/ tx of IVIG?
Elevated rheumatoid factor and cryoglobulins
66
What is the mechanism of action for antimalarial medications (hydroxychloroquine, chloroquine, quinacrine)?
Several mechanisms:
- Inhibits UV-induced cutaneous reactions by binding to DNA and inhibiting superoxide production
- Raise intracytoplasmic pH and stabilize microsomal membrane which leads to decreased ability of macrophages to express MHC complex antigens on cell surface
- Reduce lysosomal size and impair chemotaxis
- Impair platelet aggregation and adhesion
67
How long does it take for the antimalarial to reach a steady-state in the blood?
3-4 months, important to remember when looking at the clinical effect
68
Absolute contraindications for antimalarials?
Hypersensitivity to the drug (can have cross-reactivity between chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), continued use is contraindicated for patients who get retinopathy
69
Relative contraindications for antimalarials?
Severe blood dyscrasias, significant hepatic dysfunction, significant neurologic disorders, retinal or visual field defects/changes, pregnancy, and lactation (in SLE benefits might outweigh risks to the fetus of stopping) and psoriasis
70
What neurologic disease is a contraindication for chloroquine?
Myasthenia gravis
71
What mucocutaneous side effects can the anti-malarials cause?
Yellow pigmentation of the skin (quinacrine), drug-induced LP, morbilliform hypersensitivity eruption (risk higher in certain types of Dermatomyositis), psoriasis exacerbation (chloroquine in particular)
Bluish-gray to black hyperpigmentation in 10-30% of pts treated more than 4 months. Usually affects the shins and is indistinguishable clinically from minocycline induced hyperpigmentation. Can also occur on the face and palate
- Nail hyperpigmentation
72
What occular toxicities can be seen in the antimalarials?
Corneal deposits (keratopathy), neuromuscular eye toxicity (ciliary body dysfunction), retinopathy (maculopathy)
- All except maculopathy are reversible w/ stopping med
73
What are the eye monitoring requirements for the antimalarials?
Baseline exam w/ visual field testing
- Dilated exam and visual acuity testing within the first year of starting therapy
- Dilated exam and visual acuity testing yearly after 5 yrs of treatment
74
What side effects are seen in the antimalarials?
GI side effects are the most common and the most common reason for stopping (chloroquine \> hydroxychloroquine). restlessness, excitement, confusion, and seizures (usually high dose). Rare but can be severe bone marrow toxicity w/ quinacrine and agranulocytosis w/ chloroquine
75
Screening tests for antimalarials?
G6PD not necessary for hydroxychloroquine and chloroquine or quinacrine.
- baseline ocular exam, CBC w/ diff, CMP, LFT's periodically
76
Can the use of antimalarials delay the onset of SLE if a patient has cutaneous/limited lupus erythematosus?
Yes
77
If you need more clinical effect and the patient is maxed out on hydroxychloroquine or chloroquine what can be added?
Quinacrine
78
What is the mechanism of action for dapsone?
Inhibits myeloperoxidase
- This leads to decreased oxidative damage to normal tissue in various neutrophilic dermatoses (affects eos and monos to a lesser extent).
- Decreases hydrogen peroxide and hydroxyl radical levels
- Can potentially also decreases chemotaxis of neutrophils (not shown in therapeutic dosing regimens
79
What part of the dapsone is responsible for the hemolytic effect that can be seen?
The methylated metabolite (hydroxylamine metabolite DDS-NOH
80
How long does a single dose of dapsone stay in the system?
30 days
There is significant enterohepatic recirculation leading to long half-life
81
Dermatologic uses for dapsone?
FDA approved: dermatitis herpetiformis and leprosy
Off-label: LABD, bullous SLE, erythema elevatum diutinum, PG, sweets, neutrophilic urticaria, subcorneal pustular dermatosis/IgA pemphigus, and Behcets syndrome, vasculitides
82
Is cross-reactivity between dapsone and other sulfa-drugs like sulfapyridine or sulfonamide-type drugs occur frequently?
No, it is very rare
83
What patients should dapsone be used in with great caution/not used?
G6PD deficiency, cardiopulmonary dz, liver dz, or renal dz
- Pts w/ preexisting neuropathy should also be carefully considered as well
84
What is the dosing patter for hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia in dapsone use?
It happens to **all patients** to some degree. It is related to oxidate stress from N-hydroxy metabolites
- **It is dose-dependent however**
- Problem because increased methemoglobinemia decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity and may worsen cardiopulmonary dz or hemotologic dz
85
What is the most severe idiosyncratic reaction to dapsone?
Agranulocytosis
86
When is the agranulocytosis most likely to happen w/ dapsone?
Usually, 7 weeks in (3-12 weeks range) and can manifest as fever, pharyngitis, and sepsis
87
Side effects w/ dapsone?
Peripheral neuropathy (mostly distal motor and some sensory) can occur, look for wasting of the muscles on the hands as it can be reversed if stopped early)
- Nausea, gastritis, reversible cholestasis and hepatitis, and hypersensitivity syndrome
88
What monitoring should be performed for dapsone?
Baseline: G6PD (lower doses if levels are low), CBC w/ diff, LFTs, renal function and UA
Monitoring: Weekly CBC's for the first 4 weeks and every two weeks thereafter for 3 months to look for agranulocytosis
After 3 months, renal fxn, LFT's, and UA every 3-4 months
## Footnote
*check methemoglobin if there is clinical suspicion of decreased O2 circulation or anemia*
89
What can be given to decrease the risk of methemoglobinemia w/ dapsone?
Cimetidine and maybe Vitamin E
90
What should be used in a methemoglobinemia emergency?
Methylene blue
91
What can be used in the worsening of methemoglobinemia seen after surgery or during surgery after both local amide and general anesthetic is given?
Vitamin C
92
How quickly do patients with DH respond to dapsone?
Very quickly usually within 24-36 hours. Bullous lupus patients also respond quickly whereas EBA patients do not
93
What is the mechanism of etanercept?
It is a soluble fully human dimeric fusion protein (TNF receptor linked to Fc portion of IgG)
- Binds to TNF-alpha and TNF-beta
94
How is etanercept given?
Subcutaneously
95
What type of antibody is infliximab?
Chimeric monoclonal IgG antibody binding TNF-alpha only targets soluble and transmembrane TNF-receptor
96
How is infliximab given?
IV
97
What type of antibody is Adalimumab?
Fully human monoclonal IgG antibody against transmembrane TNF receptor
98
How is adalimumab given?
Subcutaneous injection
99
What TNF-alpha inhibitors have the most injection site reactions?
Etanercept (14%)\>adalimumab (3.2%)
100
When are injection site reactions often the worst in those receiving etancerpt?
Usually the most pronounced during the 2nd injection (delayed-type hypersensitivity?)
101
What do the infusion reactions of infliximab look like?
Nausea, headache, flushing, dyspnea, injection site infiltration and taste perversion
## Footnote
*slowing the infusion rate, and premedication can help wiht this.*
102
If you see the efficacy of infliximab waning or stop what could be one source of the issue?
Can have infliximab-associated-antidrug antibodies. This increases infusion reactions and decreases efficacy.
103
A family history of what disease would make you more cautious in giving TNF-alpha inhibitors?
A family history of demyelinating disease should make you give caution. Cases of patients on these medications getting these.
104
Increased risks of what conditions may be seen with TNF-alpha inhibitors?
Malignancy: lymphoma and maybe skin cancer, also hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma if given azathioprine at the same time
Increased risk for reactivation of tuberculosis or primary infection, invasive fungal disease, opportunistic infections like legionella and listeria
105
What about TNF-alpha inhibitors in congestive heart failure?
There is mixed evidence, may increase the risk of developing or exacerbating CHF. Should be used w/ caution (especially infliximab)
106
Baseline and monitoring labs for TNF-alpha inhibitors?
Screen for tuberculosis, viral hepatitis panel at baseline
CBC w/ diff and LFT's q 3 months w/ infliximab and q 12 months for others given risk of rare hematologic toxicity and liver failure/autoimmune hepatitis
107
Can TNF-alpha inhibitors be used in hepatitis C + individuals?
Yes, it can be used w/ active hepatitis C infection, caution is advised w/ HBV however because there have been reports of reactivation.
108
What is the target of ustekinumab (Stelara)?
IgG1 antibody against P40 subunit of both IL-12 and IL-23
109
What are the most common SE for ustekinumab?
URI most common, increased risk of some infections including TB, fungal dz, and viral illnesses
110
What is the mechanims of rituximab?
Chimeric IgG targeting CD20--\> Depletes B-cells within 2-3 weeks of initial treatment, with sustained depletion for 6 months.
111
How long after Rituximab does it take for B-cells to return to normal?
1 year
112
What are the main relative contraindications for rituximab?
History of bronchospasm, hypotension, or angioedema
113
What are the common side effects of Rituximab?
Hypertension, nausea, upper respiratory tract infections, arthralgia, pyrexia, pruritus.
Most common are infusion reactions = generally, mind and more often occurs with the first infusion. Patients with cardiac or pulmonary conditions are more likely to have severe reactions.
- Serious SE's include: HBV reactivation, progressive multifocal leukoenceaphloapty, SJS/TEN, serious infection, hepatic failure and myelosuppression
114
What are the IL-1 inhibitors?
Canakinumab, Anakinra, Rilonacept, and Gevokizumab
115
What are some off-labe uses of IL-1 inhibitors in dermatology?
PG, PAPA syndrome, HS, lamellar ichthyosis, Sweet's syndrome, panniculitis, Muckle-Wells syndrome, and other autoinflammatory syndromes and SAPHO syndrome
116
What are the most common S/E of the IL-1 inhibitors?
Injection site reactions; important to monitor absolute neutrophil count as neutropenia can occur
117
What are the 3 main IL-17 inhibitors and what are their targets?
Ixekizumab (Talz) and Secukinumab (Cosentyx): Neutralize IL-17A
Brodalumab (Siliq): neutralizes IL-17 receptor
118
What are the most commonly reported SE in the IL-17 inhibitors?
Most common: **Nasopharyngitis**
Other common S/e: URI, injection site reactions, HA, **Candidiasis** and HSV infections
119
What is the efficacy of the IL-17 inhibitors as compared to the IL-12/23 inhibitor ustekinumab and TNF inhibitor etanercept?
IL-17 inhibitors are more effective than both of these mediations.
120
What is one important effect of IL-17 inhibitors in regards to speed of clearance?
They are faster than the other psoriasis medications
121
Which class of psoriasis biologics should be used in caution with inflammatory bowel disease?
IL-17 inhibitors, there are reports of worsening IBD with these and IL-17 is important in maintaining the gut lining
122
What is the mechanism of action for omalizumab?
Monoclonal antibody against IgE antibody
123
Side effects of omalizumab?
Anaphylaxis, malignancy, and injection site reaction
124
125
What are some symptoms of methemoglobinemia from dapsone?
Tachypnea, low oxygen saturation (usually in the high 80's), and a **bluish hue to the skin**
126
What are the treatments for dapsone-induced methemoglobinemia?
Mild cases can consider cimetidine
Moderate to severe cases will need methylene blue
127
What immunomodulator is known to cause gastrointestinal bleeding?
Mycophenolate mofetil
## Footnote
*Most occurs w/ solid organ transplant dosing (3+ grams), however, can occur in blistering disorders*
