Systemic infections Flashcards

1
Q

37 year old with fever, and leukocytosis. Had non-itching pink rash on arms/ torso, particularly when had fever.

Given co-amoxiclav with no improvement, then given tazocin.

CXR - bilateral pulmonary infiltrates

CRP 268
Ferritin >40 000
Raised ALT

CT CAP - nil obvious found

What criteria does patient meet to be diagnosed with PUO?

A
  • Temp >38.3 on 3x occasions, over 3 weeks
  • Includes a week of routine hospital based investigation, without diagnosis being reached

Can also be classified by patient group -

  • HIV patient
  • transplant patient
  • returning traveller
  • nosocomial onset
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2
Q

37 year old with fever, and leukocytosis. Had non-itching pink rash on arms/ torso, particularly when had fever. Arthralgia

Given co-amoxiclav with no improvement, then given tazocin.

CXR - bilateral pulmonary infiltrates

CRP 268
Ferritin >40 000
Raised ALT

CT CAP - nil obvious found

What is possible diagnosis?

What is significance or extremely high ferritin?

A

Adult onset Stills disease (AOSD)

fever, arthralgia, leukocytosis, hepatitis may indicate this

high ferritin suggestive of haemophagocytosis, which can occur in Still disease, and HLH (haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis)

treatment is NSAIDs/ steroids

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3
Q

What are causes of PUO?

A

Infection - 1/3 of cases. This is more likely if from poorer country. Developed country patients are less likely to have chronic bacterial infections

auto-immune

malignancy

vasculitis

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4
Q

42 year old with tunneled dual lumen vascular haemodialysis catheter has fever while on dialysis.

4x blood culture bottles grow staph epidermidis, susceptible to vancomycin

Should line be removed?

A

No

coagulase negative staph are unlikely to form biofilms, so catheter salvage can be attempted

if pseudomonas/ candida - line needs removed

If no evidence of infection of skin, then infection is likely intraluminal. And therefore more likely to point to biofilm producing organism

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5
Q

42 year old with tunneled dual lumen vascular haemodialysis catheter has fever while on dialysis.

4x blood culture bottles grow staph epidermidis, susceptible to vancomycin

How should they be managed?

A

Give vancomycin, as can be given on dialysis

2 weeks antibiotics for CoNS

consider using line lock e.g vancomycin, ethanol for 2 weeks.

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6
Q

42 year old with tunneled dual lumen vascular haemodialysis catheter has fever while on dialysis.

4x blood culture bottles grow staph epidermidis, susceptible to vancomycin.
Treated with vancomycin.

1 month later has fever, erythema and tenderness around line site.

Blood culture grow MRSA

What is further management?

A

Start treatment for MRSA - vancomycin for 14 days

blood cultures 48 hours on treatment - to ensure no persisting bacteraemia. As this may suggest complicated/ metastatic infection

examine for back/ joint pain, IE

may need ECHO if not a simple infection - e.g not responding to antibiotics

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7
Q

Patient has hemicolectomy, and goes on ventilator after this.

Jugular vein used for TPN.

Develops fever

Paired peripheral and central blood cultures flag positive at 12 hours.

Identified as candida albicans in central/ peripheral cultures. staph epidermidis only peripheral cultures

What is significance of these isolates?

A

candida is unlikely to be contaminant - forms biofilms

S epidermidis likely contaminant as just peripheral cultures

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8
Q

What us management of catheter related candidaemia?

What is duration of treatment?

A
  • C. albicans is normally susceptible to azoles, echinocandins, and amphotericin B
  • fluconazole favoured due to good tolerability
    800mg loading dose, followed by 400mg daily
  • C glabrata, C krusei are increasing in prevalence, and show reduced susceptibility to azoles.
  • Follow up blood cultures required to assess if clearing candidaemia
  • Normally 14 days treatment
  • refer for ECHO/ ophthalmology to ensure not seeded infection
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9
Q

What is criteria of culture negative endocarditis?

A

3 blood cultures negative after 5 days

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10
Q

when suspecting IE, what questions in history help point towards possible aetiological agent?

A

unpasteurised cheese/ milk, undercooked meat, or travel to Middle East/ Mediterranean - Brucella

Occupational exposure e.g farms/ abattoir - coxiella

Contact with human louse/ homeless/ alcoholism - Bartonella quintana

Cat scratch - Bartonella henselae

Also useful -
cardiac device
intravascular lines
HIV
history of previous antimicrobials
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11
Q

Can endocarditis be non-infective in origin?

A

Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) is form of endocarditis where small sterile vegetations deposited on valve leaflets

associated with connective tissue disease e.g rheumatic fever, SLE

NBTE associated with SLE is also known as Libman-Sacks endocarditis

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12
Q

How to optimize blood cultures growth?

A

Incubate within 4 hours of taking

Take 3 sets - yield increases from 61% from 1 set, to 93% yield in 3 sets

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13
Q

Patient with ruptured appendix, then deteriorates.

Fever, hypotension.

Not responding to cefotaxime/ metro

Gram neg bacilli seen on culture

Why might patient not be responding to antibiotics?

A

Gram negative bacilli likely E. coli/ klebsiella

cefotaxime can be inactivated by ESBL

source of infection not controlled - collection

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14
Q

What are the most common ESBL enzymes?

A

TEM - 50% of ESBL

SHV

CTX-M

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15
Q

Patient with ruptured appendix, then deteriorates.
Fever, hypotension.

Not responding to cefotaxime/ metro

Gram neg bacilli seen on culture

Thought to be CPE

How to reduce spread of CPE in hospital?

A

Early recognition

patient isolation - for duration of hospital admission

contact precautions/ hygiene

weekly rectal swabs

no methods of decolonisation available

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16
Q

What drugs are available to treat CPE infections?

A

Colistin

aminoglycosides

tigecycline

fosfomycin - can be used IV

newer agents showing promise - ceftazidime-avibactam, aztreonam-avibactam, eravacycline

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17
Q

What are CPEs?

A

Bacteria which produce enzymes which hydrolyse all beta-lactam molecules, including carbapenems

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18
Q

How to identify CPE in laboratory?

A

Disk diffusion may show resistance to ertapenem

MALDI-TOF may show genotypic likely to be resistance

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19
Q

How long can incubation period of Plasmodium falciparum be?

A

Can be up to 12 months since exposure

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20
Q

What are features of severe malaria?

Biochemical

A
Biochemical -
AKI
pH <7.3
Glucose <2.2
Hb <8
Parasitaemia >10%

Thrombocytopenia is always seen in malaria, but does not necessarily indicate severe disease

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21
Q

What are features of severe malaria?

Clinical

A
Clinical -
neurological - reduced GCS, seizures, confusion
hypotension/ shock
pulmonary oedema
spontaneous bleeding/ DIC
22
Q

What is treatment for severe malaria?

A

IV artesunate

Once improved, switch to oral option -
artemether-lumefantrine
atovaquone-proguanil
quinine + doxycycline

usually 7 days total treatment, but can be extended

23
Q

Severe malaria, artesunate not available.

What is treatment option?

A

IV quinine

then switch to -
oral quinine plus doxycycline
oral quinine plus clindamicin

7 days treatment total

24
Q

What is evidence for exchange transfuion in severe malaria?

A

No evidence of any benefit, so not recommended

25
Q

Plasmodium vivax and falciparum dual-infection

how does treatment differ?

A

initial treatment the same - artesunate then oral option for 7 days

but will then require primaquine to remove hypnozoite from liver

26
Q

Patients with recurrent shingles.

What further investigations should be considered?

A

HIV causing immunosuppression, can lead to reactivation

27
Q

What benefits does co-trimoxazole have in HIV patient prophylaxis?

A

reduces risk of -
PCP
toxoplasma reactivation
GI protozoa - cyclospora/ cycloisospora/ microsporidia

28
Q

23 year old solider presents with non-tender ulcerate lesion on distal right forearm. Nodules extend proximally up arm and a palpable lymph node in right axilla.

Had period of jungle training 8 weeks ago in Belize

What are differential diagnoses?

A

Leishmaniasis

non-tuberculous mycobacteria

Sporotrichosis

Blastomycosis

Non-infective -
pyoderma gangrenosum
cutaneous sarcoidosis

29
Q

23 year old solider presents with non-tender ulcerate lesion on distal right forearm. Nodules extend proximally up arm and a palpable lymph node in right axilla.

Had period of jungle training 8 weeks ago in Belize

Thought to be cutaneous leishmaniasis

How to diagnose?

A

Punch biopsy

Giemsa stain - look for intracellular amastigotes within macrophages

30
Q

Patients with cutaneous leishmaniasis e.g skin ulcer

What other areas should be examined?

A

Some species e.g L braziliensis can cause mucosal leishmaniasis

More common in New World species. Old World species more often resolve spontaenously

examine oropharynx/ vocal cords, and biopsy any abnormal material

31
Q

What are treatment options for leishmaniasis?

A

antimony compounds e.g sodium stibogluconate

IV treatment initially to help stop progressional to mucosal leishmaniasis

miltefosine is oral opton

32
Q

What are risks associated with sodium stibogluconate use in treating leishmaniasis?

A

anaemia
hepatitis
pancreatitis
non-specific ST changes

requires weekly routine bloods, and weekly ECG

33
Q

Renal transplant patient presents with hepatitis, fever, sore throat.

What are possible diagnoses?

A

CMV
EBV
HIV
Toxoplasma

Toxoplasma primary infection can cause mononucleosis type illness with sore throat. But reactivation tends to be focal e.g brain

34
Q

Renal transplant patient presents with hepatitis, fever, sore throat.

Thought to be EBV post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

What other investigations are required?

A

EBV viral load

Blood film - atypical lymphocytes

CT CAP - enlarged lymph nodes for biopsy. Although EBV reactivation may not always give enlarged lymph nodes

Bone marrow biopsy - if diagnosis unclear

35
Q

What is treatment for PTLD due to EBV?

A

Reduce immunosuppression

increase levels of cytotoxic T cells, than can help control EBV-driven prolfieration of B lymphocytes

rituximab - antiCD20 has show some promising effects

aciclovir/ ganciclovir is often used, but with little evidence backing this

monitor EBV viral load - although will always have low level viraemia

36
Q

What is an exposure prone procedure?

A

Invasive procedure where there is risk that injury to healthcare worker, may result in exposure of patient’s open tissues to healthcare worker’s blood - risk of HCW to patient transmission

e.g orthopaedic surgery

37
Q

Orthopaedic trainee transfers from abroad. Awaiting EPP clearance

Under what circumstances can they undertake EPPs if -

HBsAg pos

A

HBsAg pos

  • banned if HBeAg pos
  • viral load <200 copies/ ml - require frequent monitoring e.g 12 weeks if on treatment, and 12 monthly if cleared infection
38
Q

Orthopaedic trainee transfers from abroad. Awaiting EPP clearance

Under what circumstances can they undertake EPPs if -

Anti-HCV pos

A

HCV RNA must be negative

if RNA positive, needs to start treatment prior to EPP

39
Q

Orthopaedic trainee transfers from abroad. Awaiting EPP clearance

Under what circumstances can they undertake EPPs if -
Anti-HIV pos

A

Must be on ART

VL <200 copies/ml

viral load checks every 3 months

40
Q

32 year old volunteer nurse returns from Nigeria with 3 days of fever, diarrhoea, headache, myalgia.

Did not complete malaria prophylaxis.

What diagnoses need to be considered?

A
Malaria
dengue - less likely Africa
YF
Rickettsial disease
Typhoid fever
VHF - Lassa, Ebola
41
Q

32 year old volunteer nurse returns from Nigeria with 3 days of fever, diarrhoea, headache, myalgia.

Need to exclude VHF

What are important part of history taking?

A

if any outbreaks in geographical area

contact with rats/ urine

contact with dead bodies/ funerals

healthcare exposure/ needlestick

42
Q

32 year old volunteer nurse returns from Nigeria with 3 days of fever, diarrhoea, headache, myalgia.

Need to exclude VHF

What steps to A&E need to take?

A

Isolate patient

contact precautions

inform lab of category 4 pathogen. Perform routine tests locally, but sent to specialist lab for VHF testing

43
Q

What are treatment options for VHF?

A

Lassa - ribavirin shows definite benefit

Ebola - monoclonal antibodies - ZMapp, remdesevir

most have no specific treatment, so management is supportive

44
Q

Combined kidney-pancreas transplant for diabetes.

What prophylaxis is required for CMV?

D+/ R-

D+/ R+

D-/ R+

D-/ R-

A

D+/ R-
transplant almost like given recipient primary CMV infection. Ganciclovir for 6 months

D+/ R+
low risk, but risk of reactivation. Ganciclovir for 3 months

D-/ R+
very low risk, but risk of reactivation. No clear guidance on this

D-/ R-
no risk of reactivation, so no prophylaxis required. Use of CMV-negative, and leucocyte deplete blood products is preventative strategy

45
Q

Combined kidney-pancreas transplant for diabetes. On tacrolimus/ mycophenolate

Develops fever, diarrhoea.

CMV suspected. CMV VL 800 copies

Is this cause of disease?

A

Cannot exclude

Viral load is surrogate marker for active viral replication. Virus is intracellular, so can have high tissue damage, and low level viraemia

Need biopsy of bowel

46
Q

Combined kidney-pancreas transplant for diabetes. On tacrolimus/ mycophenolate

Develops fever, diarrhoea.

endoscopy and biopsy shows CMV colitis.

What is duration of treatment?

A

Guided by patient response/ viral load monitoring

typically start IV ganciclovir, and continue until improving.

Once improved, switch to valganciclovir

complete 14-21 days total

monitor viral load more frequently after that

may need long term prophylaxis

47
Q

Patient with diabetes, presents unwell with DKA.

Friend says recently had facial pain/ nasal discharge, suggestive of sinusitis

Notice periorbital cellulitis

What might be cause?

A

mucormycosis - angiotropic fungi

haemophilus/ staph/ strep should be considered

48
Q

What are clinical manifestations of mucormycosis?

close to 50% mortality

A

rhinocerebral most common - black eschar of hard palate

pulmonary mucormycosis if neutropenic

GI infection can occur

49
Q

What are main points to managing mucormycosis?

A

microscopy/ culture of tissue

Antibiotics
Antifungals

MRI - assess invasion

ENT - surgical debridement for source control

50
Q

Which antifungals are used in treatment of mucormycosis?

A

Amphotericin B
posaconazole

treat for at least 6 months

hyperbaric oxygen is sometimes used as adjunct