Systems Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
AC Power Priority Logic
A
Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-side
2
Q
APU Starter Duty Cycle
A
Start attempts 1&2: 60 Sec off
Start Attempt 3: 5 min off
3
Q
APU ECS Logic
A
ECS On: APU Off
ECS Off: APU On
4
Q
APU Cool down and Spool down
A
Cool Down provides AC power 60 sec
Spool Down Does not provide AC power 60 sec
5
Q
Hydraulic System 1 components
A
1 Engine-driven pump(EDP 1), 1 electric driven pump(ACMP 1b), one accumulator, one reservoir
6
Q
Wing Anti Ice IBIT Test
A
Runs after 10 min after TO or 10,000’ AFE (Whichever happens first)
Increase slat temp by 10 degrees F OR No more than 60 seconds (Whichever happens first)
7
Q
What is the PTU and how does it work?
A
Power Transfer Unit
It is a hydraulic pump in hydraulic system 2 driven by a hydraulic motor installed in hydraulic system 1
Assists the landing gear retraction or extension should ENG2 or EDP2 fails.
8
Q
When will the PTU turn on automatically
A
During Takeoff and landing when in AUTO PTU will turn on IF:
- ENG2 or EDP2 fails AND:
- Flaps not set to 0 or landing gear not up and locked
- EDP1 not fail;
- Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%
NOTE: will not turn on on the ground
9
Q
Hydraulic System 2 components
A
1 Engine-driven pump(EDP 2), 1 electric driven pump(ACMP 2), one accumulator, one reservoir, one PTU
10
Q
Hydraulic System 3 components and Items powered
A
One Reservoir, two electric hydraulic pumps, and one accumulator
Elevator (Right-hand outboard)
Rudder (lower)
Ailerons (left and right outboard)
11
Q
DC HOT BAT BUS 1
A
Bat 1 Courtesy/service lights FWD DC ceiling lights Eng 1 oil level indication Eng 1A fire extinguish Eng 2a fire extinguish Eng fuel SOV1 Hyd Sys SOV 1
12
Q
DC HOT BAT BUS 2
A
Bat 2 CMC Eng 2 oil level indication Eng 1b fire extinguish Eng 2b fire extinguish Eng fuel SOV2 Hyd Sys SOV 1 Panel Refuel 3 Water and waste system controller pwr 3
13
Q
What happens when the fire handle is pulled
A
Associated ENG SOV
Associated Hydraulic SOV
Associated ENG Bleed Air SOV
Cross Bleed SOV
14
Q
When will the APU Shut off Automatically?
A
In-Flight: UFO Under speed FADEC fault Overspeed
On Ground UFO SHELF Under speed FADEC Fault Overspeed
Sensor Fail High oil temp Egt overtemp Low oil pressure Fire (AFTER 10 Seconds without pilot action)
15
Q
How many smoke detectors do the AFT and FWD cargo compartments have
A
AFT: 2
FWD: 3
16
Q
Cargo Compartment Fire with message
A
On Ground
High Rate: Push once
Low Rate: Puch Twice
In air:
High Rate: Push Once
Low Rate: Automatically after 1 min
17
Q
Cargo Compartment Fire WITHOUT message
A
On Ground RULE OF 3
High Rate: Push Twice
Low Rate: Push once more
In air:
High Rate: Push Twice
Low Rate: Automatically after 1 min
18
Q
What happens when a fire is detected in the Cargo Compartment? FWD (AFT)
A
FWD:
Recirc fan shuts off
Outflow valve closed
High rate bottle is armed
AFT:
High rate is armed
BOTH: Aural, lights(WARNING and associated extinguishing button, ICAS
19
Q
How long does the low-rate cargo fire extinguisher last once deployed?
A
75min
60min to land and 15 to evac
20
Q
LAV Trash Fire Exting. will deploy when?
A
When the bin reaches a certain temp
21
Q
How many smoke detectors are in the LAV?
A
one in each lav (resist the urge to vape, Boris)
22
Q
Fly by wire Higher level function logic (Normal mode)
A
Control –> P-ACE (electrical equivalent of a control cable) –>FCM(BRAINS or the Flight control module) –> PCU (Power control units or hydraulic actuator)
23
Q
Trim inputs are limited to how many seconds?
A
3
24
Q
When does the Electric PBIT begin? How long does it take? What can interrupt it?
A
Begins once AC power is established (Good for 50 hours rolling time) SKW runs it on FFOD
It takes 3 mins
Interrupted by:
Any Hydraulic pump is turned on
Flight control mode buttons are cycled
AC power is interrupted
25
When does the Hydraulic PBIT begin? How long does it take? What can interrupt it?
Begins when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized
Takes 1 min
Is interrupted if any flight control surface is moved
26
Two different flight control modes
Normal: Higher level functions
Direct: Flys like a POS Cessna
Guarded Flight Control Mode buttons toggle between these modes
27
In the air with speed breaks deployed, Speed Breaks will Automatically retract if
Airspeed is slower than 180KTS, Thrust levers advanced near TOGA, Flap 2 or greater
28
What side is the aileron disconnect on?
First officers side
29
When will we see a STEER OFF EICAS message?
Hydraulic system 2 becomes depressurized
The steering disconnect switch is pressed
External steering disengage switch is set to disengage
30
What system(s) provide accumulated pressure for the emergency parking brake? how many emergency applications do we get?
System 1 and 2 and we get 6 applications
31
Low demand vs High demand bleed air stages
Low: stage 10 (Hotter and more pressureized)
High: stage 6
12 stages total
32
Low demand vs High demand bleed air stages
Low: stage 10 (Hotter and more pressurized)
High: stage 6
12 stages total
33
When will RTO Auto brakes recognize a rejected TO?
| When will the breaks release?
Will Apply MAX breaking: When wheel speed is above 60kts AND thrust levers are set to idle or rev
Will Release:
Break pedal pressure is applied
System faults below 60kts
thrust levers greater than idle
34
When would we use the DN LOCK REL button next to the landing gear?
This overrides the Weight on wheels sensors and allows gear to retract. Use when directed to by the QRH or if gear retraction is needed to improve climb performance
35
Alternate gear extension lever VS Electrical override switch
LEVER: Releases hydraulic pressure in the landing gear lines and landing gear uplocks allowing gravity to pull gear down.
Switch: bypasses the sensors and computers and commands for gear down
36
What two autopilot modes will Speed on Elevator be used on?
FLCH or OVSP
Speed on thrust for everything else
37
Can the DC fuel pump supply fuel to an engine?
Yes the DC fuel pump can supply fuel to eng2 during a DC eng start
38
What are scavenge ejector pumps?
3 on each side located in the main tank, used to transfer fuel to the collector tank
39
How can we close the ENG fuel SOV?
Pull the fire handle
40
When do we need to balance the fuel tanks? How is this accomplished?
FUEL IMBALANCE ICAS will pop up at 800lbs. Follow QRH. when fuel imbalance is less than 794lbs we can manually balance by selecting XFEED to the lowest tank.
Cation, this may be due to a fuel leak.
41
When does the DC fuel pump turn on when selected to auto?
Provides pressurized fuel for the APU when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available
42
When is the AC fuel pump 1 powered on?
AUTO: Eng1 is starting OR XFEED selected to LOW2 OR the left main ejector pump fails
ON: Requires normal AC power and will not power on if in an electrical emergency
43
When in auto, when is the AC fuel pump 2 powered on?
AUTO: Starting ENG2, or XFEED LOW1, or right main injector fails OR APU is starting or running without eng2 running
ON: Requires normal ac power also is powered during an electrical emergency IF the RAT is deployed
44
Can we take off or land with a FUEL IMBALANCE ICAS Message?
Yes, as long as it is below 794lbs imbalance
ICAS message will go away at 100lbs imbalance
45
When will we get a FUEL IMBALANCE ICAS Message?
800lbs difference
46
Fuel tank red and amber indications
One side RED: 660lb or less on one tank.
One side Amber: (660 x2) = 1320lb
Combined Red: 1320lb
Combined Amber: (1320 x2) = 2640lb
47
What is powered by the AC ESS BUSS
3221
Hydraulic pump 3a
ac Fuel pump 2a
Slat Channel 2
Flap Channel 1
48
What is powered by the AC STBY BUSS?
Eng1a and eng2a exciter
49
In an electrical emergency, what powers the AC STBY BUSS when the RAT has not been deployed?
BATT 1 and 2 --->Inverter----> AC STBY Buss
50
Crew Oxygen System color indications and modes
Green: 3 people
Cyan: 2 people
Amber: needs Mx
Normal: diluted
100: 100%
EMG: 100% with positive pressure
51
How long will the crew oxygen system last for at 100%
120 min total
22min at 100% then 98min at normal
52
How long will passenger 02 last for?
Approx 12min
53
Pressurization dump in auto vs manual
In Auto one press:
Commands packs off, commands recirc fan off, opens outflow valve to release pressure to 12,400' at 2000 FPM
In Manual one press:
Commands packs off, commands recirc fan off, and DOES NOT OPEN OUTFLOW VALVE until you do so manually
54
When XFEED is switched to Low 1 or low 2 what pump is providing fuel to the engines?
If selected to low 1 ACMP 2 will supply fuel to both engines and an indirect fuel transfer will occur due to the excess fuel being provided by the pump. If low 2 is selected then ACMP 1 will supply fuel
55
Pitch trim priority logic
list in order of highest to lowest priority:
1. Pedistool
2. Captian
3. FO
4. Autopilot
56
The primary purpose of the TRU
Converts AC to DC
57
The primary purpose of an inverter
Converts DC to AC
58
What is the primary purpose of the RAT
Converts kinetic energy into AC power, supplying power to the AC ESS BUS (3221!! ACMP Hydraulic pump 3a, AC fuel pump 2, Slat channel 2, and Flap channel 1)
59
In the event of an electrical emergency, how long will the batteries provide power, and to what BUSSES?
10 minutes, 2 APU start attempts
Provides power to: DC busses and AC Standby bus
60
Purpose of Hydraulic system 3 Pump unloader valve/Flow Limiter Valve
In the event of an electrical emergency:
The pump unloader valve will reduce the electrical power required to start ACMP 3A
The flow limiter valve will reduce the flow of ACMP 3A in order to reduce electrical load on the RAT
Both reduce electrical load on rat to prevent overloaded or stalling
61
Purpose of Hydraulic system 3 Pump unloader valve/Flow Limiter Valve
In the event of an electrical emergency:
The pump unloader valve will reduce the electrical power required to start ACMP 3A
The flow limiter valve will reduce the flow of ACMP 3A in order to reduce electrical load on the RAT
Both reduce electrical load on RAT to prevent overloaded or stalling
62
When will Hydraulic ACMP 1 or 2 turn on automatically?
In-flight:
-EDP or engine failure
-Flaps selected to any position greater than 0
Remain activated for 60 seconds after landing
On-ground:
-Flaps greater than 0 AND:
Thrust levers set to take off thrust OR:
ground speed greater than 50kts
ALSO on the ground ACMP 2:
- ACMP2 will be turned on if ENG1 is running and the parking brake is off
- During eng1 start (once n2 reaches 40%) if the parking brake has been applied within the last 6 min
NOTE: ACMP 2 will turn off after 6min with the parking brake set
63
When will hydraulic pump 3b automatically turn on
When ACMP 3A fails as it is the main pump for hydraulic system 3
64
Fly by wire Normal vs Direct Mode
HIgher level functions Normal: control input--> ACE--> FCM-->PCU
Direct: Control input-->ACE-->PCU
65
When will the thrust mode automatically change from TO1/2 to CLB1/2?
Landing gear retracted, airplane above 400ft AGL, and any change in vertical mode
66
When will the thrust mode automatically change from CLB1/2 to CRZ?
The airplane is level at preselected altitude for 90 seconds and the airspeed is within 5kts (or .01 Mach) from preselected airspeed.
67
When will the thrust mode automatically change to CON?
Engine failure above 3,000AGL, or manually selected in the MCDU TRS menu
68
When will the thrust mode automatically change to GA?
Flaps are greater than zero and gear down or by pressing TOGA
GA: Gear And flaps
69
ATTCS automatically commands RSV thrust when it is engaged, the thrust levers are at TOGA, and:
```
Difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%
Engine failure during takeoff
Engine failure during go-around
Windshear detection on takeoff
Windshear detection on go-around
```
70
Why is it important to set the thrust lever to MAX during a winshear escape maneuver?
On takeoff, TOGA will provide TO-X Reserve, MAX will provide GA RSV (possibly more thrust)
71
Do RTO and HI autobrake settings provide the same deceleration?
No RTO is MAX breaking
72
Prior to a single-engine taxi using engine number 2, how must we configure the aircraft?
Leave ACMP1 ON after starting engine two
73
When will ADSP 1 and 2 become heated automatically?
After one engine is started
74
the aircraft detects ice using one of its two ice detectors, what happens next?
Wing and engine anti-ice valves are commanded open and stay open 2 minutes after ice is no longer detected
75
Ref Anti ice modes of operation OFF ENG ALL and associated functions
OFF: REF A/I will command anti-ice valves closed until takeoff phase is complete (1700AFE or 2 min after liftoff) After that wing and eng anti-ice will open if ice is detected
ENG: Only eng anti-ice valves will be kept open after the engine start and will remain on until 1700AFE or 2 min after liftoff. Thereafter if ice is detected
ALL: ENG anti-ice valves will be kept open after eng start. Wing anti-ice will turn on at 40kts wheel speed. Both wing and eng will be kept on until 1700AFE or 2 min after liftoff. Thereafter if ice is detected
76
When will the windshield heat BIT test be conducted?
When one source of AC power is established, each windshield heating controller performs this test and it takes 120 seconds
77
Windshield heat priority logic
to provided windshield heat to both windshields, the system needs two sources of AC power. in the case of one source, heat is only provided to the Captians side. if the captain's side is deferred it will provide heat to the FO
78
Hydraulic PBIT test
Test is performed automatically when on the ground and all three hydraulic systems are pressurized
takes one min
Will be interrupted if any flight control surface is moved
Lasts for 50hrs
If the hydraulic fluid temp is below 10C it will not run PBIT unless the PBIT is expired (50hr) and this temp limitation will be removed
79
Electronic PBIT test
The test is performed once AC power is established
EICAS message: FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG
Tests: FCM, P-ACE, SF-ACE
Takes 3 min
Will be interrupted if any hydraulic pump is turned on, If if FCP switched are cycled, or if AC power is lost while the test is running
Lasts 50hrs
80
When will in-flight speed breaks automatically retract?
Slat/flap 2 or above
less than 180kts
Thrust levers commanded greater than 70 degrees
81
When will MF spoilers and ground spoilers be deployed on landing?
weight on wheels
wheel speed is above 45kts or airspeed is above 60kts (Whatever happens first)
Thrust lever angle below 26
Note: MF Spoilers will be at 40 degrees and ground spoilers will be at 60 degrees
82
What supplies fuel to the APU when both engines are running?
The main injector pump 2
83
What are the normal functions of the APU and their respective limitations?
Electrical AC power up 33000'
Bleed air for eng start up to 21000'
Bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization up to 15000'
Max alt for APU start is 30000'
84
When will MF spoilers and ground spoilers be retracted on landing?
Wheel speed is below 45kts for 5 seconds
or
TLA is moved past 35 degrees after landing
85
Why are bounced landings dangerous when considering automatic spoiler deployment?
If a landing is bounced, the weight on wheels signal for the bounce is valid for 5 seconds... That means the spoilers may deploy if the thrust levers are not advanced
86
Locked wheel protection logic
- active anytime on the ground and wheel speed is above 30kts
- compares wheel speed signals between left and right brakes. IF a wheel speed is 33%below its associated paired wheel speed, the break will be commanded to zero brake pressure to the slower wheel
87
Anti-skid logic
- activates above a wheel speed of 10kts
| - Prevents skidding and maximizes brake efficiency by controlling hydraulic pressure
88
Automatic Wheel breaking logic
Prevents main gear from being retracted with wheels spinning by applying brake pressure
A dedicated device in the nose wheel bay to stop the spins
89
Touchdown protection logic
- Prevents the airplane from touching down with breaks applied
- is deactivated after three seconds after weight on wheels has sensed the ground or
- wheel speed is above 50kts
90
Emergency Parking Brake system logic
- No protections are provided when using the emergency parking brake
- hydraulic accumulators allow for 6 full emergency break applications
91
When performing a single-engine turn, the crew and only the crew must be____.
Onboard
92
when are do break ware pins indicate that the break needs replacement?
When the pin is flush or indented with the brake assembly
93
Auto brakes will be armed for landing if...
- low medium or high is selected
- weight on wheel indication is in flight
- wheel speed is above 60kts
- no faults
- brake pedals are not pressed
- Thrust levers are in any position
94
Auto brakes will be applied for landing if...
- Auto breaks are armed
- LO MED or HI selected
- weight on wheels indication is on the ground
- wheel speed is above 60kts
- no faults
- Bre-brake pedals are not pressed
- Thrust levers are in idle or reverse
95
Auto brakes will be disarmed for landing if...
-RTO or OFF is selected
-fault detected
-Brake pedals pressed more than 20%
Thrust levers above idle while auto brakes are engaged
96
If using auto brakes on a contaminated runway, what setting must we use?
MED
97
When will the auto brakes disarm if in RTO
- if OFF, LO, MED or HI is selected
- wow sensors are in flight
- faults detected below 60kts wheel speed
- Pressing the break
- TLA above idle
98
How many air data systems does the E-175 have?
5 independent ADSs
```
1 is captains
2 is FO
3 is backup
4 IESS
5 FCS
```
99
ADS reversionary logic
- If one side fails it will revert to system three
| - if system three fails it will revert to cross-side
100
What is an IRS and how many do we have?
Internal Reference System
- Computes airplane position, ground speed, heading, and attitude
- CA1 and FO2
101
How long does it take to align an IRS? can we do this in flight?
Up to 17min and yes
102
How long will the oxygen in the PBE last?
15min
103
How do we start the flow of 02 in the PBE?
Pulling the seal apart
104
How long will passenger O2 last for?
12min
105
When will the PAX masks be deployed?
when cabin alt reaches 14000-14750
106
How to manually deploy passenger O2?
position pax oxygen to override
107
Color coding of ICAS messages
Red: Warning
Amber: Cation
Cyan: advisory
White: status
108
What does this symbol (>) mean next to an ICAS message? and what is the priority of these messages?
- Root message.
| - Warning, electrical buses, MAU
109
What is the takeoff config testing for?
- Flaps (not in a take-off position or disagrees with FMS)
- Parking brake
- Pitch trim outside of green range
- Spoilers
110
What does pushing in the GND PROX INHIB BUTTON do? and when would you use it?
Inhibits EGPWS. You would use it if an airport was not in the FMS database and you did not want terrain alerts when operating close to the ground
111
When is windsheer detection activated?
10'-1500' radio altitude during take-off, go around, and final approach phases.
112
Wind sheer escape maneuver
- Thrust levers to MAX
- TOGA button pressed
- Follow FD
- do not change the configuration of aircraft
113
TA vs RA
TA: 35-45 seconds from collision area
RA: 20-30 Seconds
114
When would you use GND PROX FLAP OVRD BUTTON?
to cancel the aural warning when landing with a nonstandard flap configuration
115
How many weight-on-wheel sensors do we have?
6
| 2 on each
116
What is a PSEM?
proximity sensor electronic modules
Combine with other aircraft systems to determine if the aircraft is on the ground or not and the position of the landing gear.
