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Systems Flashcards

(99 cards)

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1
Q

The pitch trim system will automatically deactivate after ___ seconds

A

3

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2
Q

Which compartment is NOT pressurized

A

The Forward Avionics Compartment

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3
Q

If the main cabin door is open, an EICAS warning will appear if ___

A

Engine #1 is running

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4
Q

When does the high stage valve (HSV) open to provide 14th stage bleed air?

A

During anti-ice operations

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5
Q

Under what condition does the crossbleed valve open when the selector switch is set to AUTO

A

Engine Start

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6
Q

How many portable halon fire extinguishers are installed on the EMB145

A

3

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7
Q

The engine-driven electrical generators produce what kind of current

A

28volt, 400amp, DC

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8
Q

Under which of the following conditions will the shed buses be energized

A

Anytime the GPU is selected

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9
Q

What does it indicate when GPU AVAIL inscription on the GPU is illuminated?

A

A GPU is plugged into the aircraft and some power is available

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10
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding an APU battery start

A

The number 2 battery provides the energy for the APU starter generator

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11
Q

Where will an indication of a battery overtempt condition display?

A

EICAS and MFD electrical page

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12
Q

What is the minimum level of accuracy in order to use an FMS for RNAV navigation

A

ANP less than or equal to RNP

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13
Q

What kind of system does the EMB145 use to detect excessive heat in an engine or APU

A

Pneumatic fire loops that detect an increase in pressure

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14
Q

Which fire bottle(s) can be used to extinguish a #1 engine fire?

A

Bottle A or B

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: when a fire extinguishing handle is pulled, the following associated valves close: HYD, engine bleed, engine anti-ice, &

A

Fuel Valve

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16
Q

What is the system logic if a fuel pump fails in flight?

A

The remaining two pumps begin to cycle on and off until another pump is selected

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17
Q

What amount of fuel imbalance will trigger the EICAS message FUEL IMBALANCE

A

800 pounds

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18
Q

Which of the following systems would be affected by a total loss of hydraulic fluid?

A

Rudder and Ailerons

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19
Q

What does the #2 hydraulic accumulator provide?

A

Stored hydraulic pressure for the parking brake

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20
Q

What will cause an electric hydraulic pump to turn on if the switch is selected to AUTO

A

Hydraulic pressure below 1600psi

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21
Q

Which of the following does the accessory gearbox contain?

A

The only power source of the ignitors ( PMA)

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22
Q

What is required if the oil level of an engine reaches 7 quarts in flight?

A

The engine can continue to run

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23
Q

When will the ENG REF Anti-Ice selected on “in MFD T/O Page”

A

Contaminated runways less than 8 degree outside temperature

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24
Q

Which of the following is true regarding engine bleed air? Comes From ?

A

High Pressure Compressor N2 stage 9th and 14th

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25
24. What can be done if the oil temp is not 40 C before increasing N2?
Run engine on idle or taxi trhust power for 8 mins then check if the oil temp. is at least 21C
26
What must be satisfied in order to achieve max reverse thrust?
After main and nose gear are on the ground
27
When will the PACKS must be off?
When conducting external air start
28
What does EICAS PACK 1 overload mean?
The air pressure entering the PACK is too high
29
When does the PACKs Not provide conditioned air?
In essential power
30
Will the flaps operate in essential power?
NO
31
What happens when Ice detection override set to ENG position when the engine is running?
The engine lip anti ice will open
32
What ice protections are available in essential power
Pitot 3
33
What activates the ice protection system?
Two vibrating ice detection probes
34
What provides the emergency passenger oxygen?
Chemical oxygen in the passenger’s service unit
35
What triggers the passengers oxygen masks drop?
When the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 ft
36
How long does the PBE provide oxygen for?
15 mins
37
How many Outflow Valves operate in the auto mode?
2 valves in auto mode and 1 valve in manual mode
38
What sources power the PFD?
DC bus 1 (CA) and DC bus 2 (FO)
39
What source power the EICAS?
Essential bus
40
What function does the IC-600 computer perform?
Manages display information for the avionics
41
What is the ADC function?
Computes altitude and airspeed info
42
What is the top of red band on the airspeed represent?
Stall speed (VS)
43
What is the source of info for standby instruments?
Pitot static 3
44
What holds the landing gear in UP position?
Hydraulically actuated mechanical locks
45
What force actuates the normal braking system?
Hydraulic pressure from the brake flow valves
46
What is the touch down protection within the normal braking system?
Protection from touchdown with normal brakes applied
47
What braking protection available when parking brakes applied?
NONE
48
f the CA is using the tiller, will the steering disengagement button on the yoke disengage the system?
No, tiller has priority over the disconnect switch in the yoke
49
Where does the (flight mode annunciator ) FMA is located?
Above the ADI (Attitude Deviation Indicator)
50
When will the FD couple to the glide slope ( GS )?
When press the APP button
51
What auto pilot modes can be entered when the GA button pressed?
Roll-GA
52
FLC commands what?
270 kts for a climb at 14,000 ft
53
What does the takeoff GA TOGA button provide when pressed on the ground?
12 or 14 degrees pitch up for flaps 22 or 9 respectively
54
What is the Rudder over boost?
Occurs when rudder system 1 does not shut down after 135 kts
55
When will the Elec. Hydraulic pump turn on while in AUTO position?
Below 1600 psi
56
what is the Turn radius of the E145?
70 feet
57
When will the landing gear warning override be used?
in situations when Radio Altimeter is inop. and when landing gear warning system cannot tell if the aircraft is below 1200 ft RA
58
What should the pilot expect when the airspeed enters the amber range?
Stick shaker activates
59
Pitch trim range for takeoff?
4 to 8 degrees nose Up
60
What Physical force moves the pitch trim?
Electrical motors
61
What is Rudder hard over protection?
A function that deactivates the rudders hydraulic system If there is 130 pounds of pressure on the rudder pedal and the rudder is deflected more than 5 degrees to the opposite direction
62
What does Takeoff config button checks for?
Flaps 9 or 22 position
63
What will happen when speed brakes open in flight?
Only the outboard spoilers will open
64
What will automatically close the spoiler panels?
Selecting flaps 22 in flight
65
Emergency Lights powered by?
4 dedicated batteries for 15 min.s
66
How many chimes for an advisory message generates?
NONE
67
what does an Amber heading message indicate on the PFD or MFD?
the FO and CA heading indications different by more than 6 degrees
68
What inhibits the stick pusher from actuating?
Airspeed at 220 kts
69
What is an indication of ice over pitot static 3 probe ?
Standby airspeed indicator will not move
70
When will ground service buss be powered?
When the aircraft is cold and dark, and the GPU plugged in and running
71
How long will the emergency lights last?
15 mins
72
When will the APU shut down while in-flight?
For an overspeed
73
E-145 engines model number?
AE3007A1
74
where is Bleed air tapped from on the engine?
9th and 14th stage N2
75
A White stripe illuminates on the PACK button indicates closed?
false
76
Min. and max. temp for a manual anti ice operations?
-40C and 10C
77
Auto pilot engagement min. altitude?
500 ft
78
79
Min. pavement for a 180 turn?
70 ft
80
When pressing the emergency button on the DAP (digital Audio Panel ?
The captain is connected to COM1 & NAV 1 AND The First Officer is Connected to COM 2 & NAV 2
81
Engine Driven Generator come online when Engine speed reaches what N2 ?
56.4 %
82
If the engine START/STOP knob is moved to the STOP position while the associated thrust lever is NOT in IDLE, the following will happen
The engine will not shut down
83
During an engine start on the ground, and the ignition in the AUTO position, how many igniters will operate?
1
84
Using the XFEED knob, fuel can be transferred from either tank to the opposite tank via the crossfeed valve
False
85
How is the nosewheel steering turned on
Push down on the steering handle
86
The yaw damper is automatically engaged when the autopilot is engaged
true
87
Following takeoff, the aircraft must be retrimmed prior to 140kts
false, it it is 160kts
88
The oxygen masks on the flightdeck must always be selected to 100% oxygen instead of normal (diluted demand)
True
89
The FADEC computers in the #1 engine can control the #2 engine if necessary
false
90
The electric hydraulic pumps provide roughly the same gallons per minute as the engine driven hydraulic pumps
False
91
The button associated with the APU fire memory item is located on the fire panel
False
92
Which of the following incorporates automatic halon fire protection
The lavatory waste basket
93
What does the EICAS message AHRS 1-2 ALN mean
The AHRS built in test is complete and is in the alignment mode
94
Below what altitude is the radio altimeter visible
2500 AGL
95
What is the maximum duration of the ISIS when operating on batteries
40 minutes
96
What type of force normally extends the landing gear
Hydraulic pressure
97
What does the landing gera override freefall lever do
Isolates the hydraulic system and mechanically unlocks the uplock hooks
98
What braking function does the nosewheel have after retraction
The nosewheel is stopped y a “snubber” located inside the wheel well
99
Which of the following happens in icing conditions regarding the PACKS
PACK #1 shuts down below 24,600 MSL

Electrical System (4 decks)

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