Systems Flashcards
(178 cards)
1
Q
What is the body of the aircraft?
A
Primarily aluminum
2
Q
What is the height of the tail?
A
14’
3
Q
What is the distance between mains?
A
14’ 10”
4
Q
What is the wingtip clearance?
A
5’4”
5
Q
What is the propeller diameter?
A
8’9”
6
Q
What is the wing span?
A
53’ 4”
7
Q
What is the direct view window?
A
Small window on pilots side
Normal-ventilation on the ground, must be closed in takeoff
Emergency-smoke evacuation, pilot vis if needed
8
Q
What is important about the cargo area?
A
400 lbs max
Coat rack, cargo net, doctors bag, vacuum, blanket, light
9
Q
What is the turbine design called?
A
Free turbine
10
Q
What type of flow does the engine have?
A
I reverse flow
11
Q
What is the thermodynamic HP?
A
1605
12
Q
What is the HP flat rating?
A
1200
13
Q
Engine inlet
A
Air air comes in
Mesh screen to reduce FOD
Most air is used for cooling
14
Q
What is the air taken into to engine used for?
A
25% combustion
65% cool combustion chamber
10% secondary air system
15
Q
What parts make up the cool section of the engine?
A
4-stage axial compressor
1 centrifugal compressor
16
Q
What helps drive the accessory gear box?
A
The rotational energy from the compressor
17
Q
What is the secondary air system?
A
Air taken from compressor section and used for other things
18
Q
Where is P2.5 air taken from?
A
Between the axial compressor and the centrifugal compressor
19
Q
Where is P3 air taken from?
A
After the centrifugal compressor
20
Q
What is secondary air used for?
A
Environment control system
Pneumatic de-icing boots
FCU
Fuel purge valve
21
Q
What is the power section?
A
Hot section
Produce and extract the energy from the hot expanding gases driving the compressor turbine, compressor, and AGB accessories
Drives turbines and propeller to propel aircraft
22
Q
What is the reduction gear box?
A
Reduces the power turbine speed to a subtle speed for turbine operation
Converts high speed/low torque to low speed/high torque
Planetary gear arrangement
23
Q
What is the rpm stepped down from in the rejection gear box?
A
30,000 to 1700 rpm
24
Q
How is speed and torque transmitted to the RGB?
A
Through the turbine shaft
25
What is the compressor turbine?
Extracts energy from the hot gases to the compressor rotor unit
Max rpm of aprox 39,000 rpm at aprox 104%Ng
26
How many fuel nozzles are there?
14
27
Where does the fuel get out into the engine?
Into the combustion chamber
28
What do the igniters do?
Provide spark to initiate and maintain combustion
29
What is included with the igniters?
Exciter box
Ignition cables
Spark igniters (4 and 9 o clock)
30
How does the ignition usually come on?
Automatically
31
When should the ignition be turned on?
Heavy precipitation
| Strong turbulence
32
What happens in the combustion chamber?
Compressed air and fuel are ignited and burned
Air not used creates a cushion of air around flame
Too much and the flame will go out
Too little air and the flame will expand and create fire
FCU makes the ratio
33
What is the bleed air valve?
Prevent compressor stall at low Ng
| Bleeds excess air to prevent reverse flow at low power settings
34
What is the accessory gear box?
Mounted to rear of the engine
| Contains low and high fuel pump, FCU, Fuel/air heat exchanger, oil pumps, generators, starter
35
What kind of oil system do we have?
Pressure oil system
36
What type of oil do we use?
BP 2380 oil
37
How many scavenge pumps are in the oil system?
4
2 in AGB
2 at rear of AGB
38
Where is the oil cooler?
```
Under engine air inlet
2 cooler doors
One controlled by a thermocouple
Second controlled by nose landing gear
Gear down, door open
```
39
How does the oil/fuel heater work?
Warm ok passes through exchanger to gear up fuel
Amount of oil depends on temp of fuel
No pilot interaction
Provides consistent temp of fuel to FCU for fuel metering
40
Will you get a low oil quantity CAS with anyone running?
No
41
When should oil be checked?
Within 10 min of the engine shutdown
42
How many engine oil pumps are there?
1 being forward to engine
43
What is the chip detector?
2 chip detectors for ferrous material
44
Where are the two chip detectors?
Reduction gear box
| Accessory gear box
45
When will the the CAS message occur from the chip detectors?
When the gap between poles fills and the circuit closes
46
How does the torque system work?
Engine oil pressure, goes into a metering office, and then there's a spring measuring this, through an electric torque signal
47
What two gases are in the fire detection system?
Helium and hydrogen internal core
48
How does the fire detection system work?
If tube is heated over a temp threshold, pressure increases and activates the fire pressure switch
49
What has will get heated up if it's the general area?
Helium
50
What gas will be heated up if a local area is heated up?
Hydrogen
51
What is the minimum operating temperature of the fire detection system?
-55C
52
What should be done with the ACS when fire is detected?
Shut off
53
What are the three primary engine controls?
```
Power control lever (PCL)
Condition lever (Idle Ng)
Manual override (MOR)
```
54
What does the manual override lever do?
Used in emergencies
Uncommanded Ng rollback of the engine
PCL stuck at idle power
Mannual controls fuel flow
55
Can MOR be used in reverse mode?
No
56
What does the power control lever?
Controls Ng in both forward and reverse
57
What is Ng?
Compressor speed
58
What is reverse called?
Beta mode
59
What is the condition lever used for?
Cut off engine, and choose flight and ground idle
60
How many fuel tanks do we have?
4
| 2 main, 2 collector tanks
61
What is the total fuel capacity?
406, 402 useable
62
What do we always get put in our fuel?
Prist
63
What is the purpose of the collector tank?
In order to always keep constant fuel supply
Important in turns
64
How many fuel drains are there?
2 per wing, on each tank
Air separator
Fuel filter
65
What kind of fuel can we use?
```
Jet A
Jet A-1
Jet B
Jp-4
100LL
```
66
What are the rpm limits on the propeller?
350-950rpm
67
What three things govern the prop?
Constant speed unit
Overspeed governor
Nf Governor
68
What does the transfer jet pump do?
Venturi
| Main to collector
69
What does the delivery jet pump do?
Moves fuel from collector tank to fuel delivery system
70
What are the three times you'd use the electric boost pumps?
Engine start
Low fuel conditions
Fuel tank imbalance
71
What if the order on parts going down the fuel system?
```
Tanks
Boost pump
Mx shutoff
Filter
Air separator
Low pressure switch
Firewall shutoff
Low pressure pump
Fuel/ oil heat exchanger
High pressure fuel pump
Filter
FCU
Fuel flow transducer
Fuel flow divider and dump valve
Fuel nozzle
```
72
What does the MX shutoff look like?
Stick that come out of access panel
73
What is important about the fuel filter?
Bypass valve if blockage occurs
| Red turkey stick shoots out
74
What does the air delegator do?
Separates vapors from he fuel system and returns back to main fuel tank
Low pressure switch located at the end
75
What is the low pressure switch connected to?
Accessory gear box
76
What does the low pressure pump do?
Provides fuel to the engine system and motive flow lines
| Can be substituted with electric boost pumps
77
Where is the firewall shutoff?
I'm between pilots on the left side
78
What does the fuel/oil heat exchange do?
Warms engine oil to increase temperature of the fuel before it enters the FCU
79
What controls the the amount of oil that flows trough the heat exchanger?
A thermal couple valve
80
What controls the FCU?
PCL, Condition lever, MOR
| Mechanical driven by gear box
81
What does the fuel flow transducer do?
Monitors fuel flow down stream from FCU and display on EIS panel
82
What does the fuel flow divider do?
Automatically divides fuel flow into a primary and secondary supply
83
What does the purge air accumulator do?
Forces pressurized air through fuel nozzles on shutdown forcing unburned fuel into combustion chamber
84
How many fuel nozzles are there?
14
85
When using the boost pumps what shuts off the other fuel tank?
Flap valves
86
What does the overspeed governor do?
Control prop pitch and RPM when a CSU failures occurs by controlling oil flow
87
What is the max RPM of the overspeed governor?
1802
88
What happens when the condition lever is moved to cutoff/feather?
Electric switch in the condition lever will open feathering solenoid
Engine oil will flow out of the hub and pitch goes the feather
89
When is the Nf governor used?
I'm the event of a CSU and overspeed governor failure
| Control prop in beta and reverse
90
What RPM does the Nf governor limit the engine to?
1870
| 1650 in reverse
91
How does Nf governor control RPM?
By bleeding by Py air so that FCU assumes less pressure and delivers less fuel
92
What is the constant speed unit?
Controls pitch by supplying pressurized oil to the propeller hub
93
What is the max RPM for the constant speed unit?
1700
94
What is connected to the beta ring and valve?
The PCL
95
How does the beta ring and valve work?
PCL moved aft
Linkage will begin to open beta valve
Engine oil flows into hub
And prop changes the beta ring will close the beta valve
96
Which aileron is the trim tab on?
Left
97
What does the cleaner tab do?
Decreases roll control forces needed
| Servo
98
How main trim motors are there I. The stabilizer?
2
| Main and secondary
99
Which stabilizer trim does the autopilot use?
Use autopilot
100
When should the pitch trim be set to the diamond?
When the CG is 236 inches or aft of the datum
101
What does the yaw damaged use?
Rudder trim
102
How many motors are stopped using the trim interrupt switch?
All
103
What kind of falls do we have?
Slotted Fowler
104
What does the flap control warning unit do?
Monitors for abnormalities
105
What happens if he flaps are manually interrupted?
Flaps will be disabled for remainder of flight and require mx on the ground
106
How does the flap control and warming unit sense asymmetry?
Rotation sensors at the end of flexible shafts
Sense binding and twisting through sensors at each jack screw
107
When will you get the pusher caws?
Flaps two degrees, go into
| Pusher safe mode
108
In pusher safe mode when will the shaker and pusher activate?
5 kts faster
109
How does the flap power drive unit work?
Single motor drives two flexible shafts to jack screws
110
What is the dynamic speed bug based off of?
1.3 Vso
111
When will shaker activate?
5-10 kts above pusher speed
112
How many computers are needed for shaker and pusher mode?
Shaker-1
| Pusher-2
113
How many pounds of force is the pusher?
65 one
114
When is the pusher inhibited?
With the switch
| 5s after takeoff
115
How will you enter pusher ice mode?
Separator open
| Prop heat on
116
In pusher ice mode when will the pusher occur?
8 degrees sooner
117
When will pusher safe mode occur?
Asymmetry with flaps
118
When will the pusher activate with pusher safe mode?
5 kts faster
119
How many volts is the electrical system?
28V DC
120
How many generators and batteries are there?
Two of each
121
How many volts and amps are the batteries?
24 V 40 amp
122
How many volts and amps are the generators?
28 volts 300 amp
123
How high can the generators spike?
450 amp for 2 min/hour
124
How many power lines does the system have?
2
| Primary and secondary
125
What is the emergency power supply?
24V 5ah
126
What connects gen 1 and 2?
Bus tie
127
Is the bus tie open or closed when the system is working properly?
Open
128
Where are the power junction boxes for each generator?
On either side of the pilots
129
What does the battery and external power junction box contain?
Batteries, external power, hot battery bus, hot battery bus, associated circuit breakers
130
Where is the BEPJB?
Rear fuselage
131
When would the emergency power system provide power?
Dual generator and battery failure
132
What charges the EPS? P
Essential bus from either battery
133
What will the EPS power?
ESIS- electronic standby ADI
Cabin altitude sensor
CPCS channel 1 motor for outflow valve
Mag compass light
134
If you lose generator 2, what will you lose?
Gen 2 bus
Non essential bus
Cabin bus
135
What order do we turn on the switches?
Standby bus
EPS
Batt 2
Batt 1
136
What does the shuttle valve do?
Allows either pilot or co pilot to apply brake pressure to the system
137
What will the parking brake do?
Traps fluid in the brake assembly
138
What is the brake assembly made of?
Puck assembly
| Steel friction surfaces
139
How can you know if the brake is good to go?
Three fusible plugs if there's too much heat
| Brake lining wear indicators, when flush overhaul is needed
140
How is the gear held up in the hydraulic system?
Hydraulic pressure
141
How is the gear held up in the electrical system?
Mechanical brake
142
How is the gear held down in the electric system?
Over center
143
How is the war held down in the hydraulic system?
Pin locking mechanism
144
When will you get a warning that your gear is still up?
Airspeed less than 130 and PCL idle
Flaps at more than 15 degrees
Radar altitude less than 200, power less than 10 psi
145
How does MAU determine the air/ground state?
WOW sensors
Radar altimeter
Calibrated airspeed
146
What is controlled by Air/Ground signals?
```
Hydraulics
Flaps
Stick pusher computers
Logo lights
Prop deice
Flight time counter
Weather radar
```
147
What will happen when the air/ground system fails?
Default to air mode
148
How does the ECS control temperature?
```
ACS temperature control valve
Vent fans
Flood fan
Cabin heater
VCCS
```
149
How do pilots manipulate the different components of the ECS?
They don't, it's automatic
| Some functions can be inhibited
150
What is used for ECS in normal mode?
ACS
| Some supplemental portions
151
What is used in ground mode for ECS?
Supplemental hearing and VCCS
| No ACS
152
What is the highest temperature that can be split between cabin and cockpit?
5
153
In general, what are the three steps of the pressurization system?
ACS provides bleed air
Cabin fills with compressed air
Cabin pressure control unit controls exhaust of air through outflow valve
154
What is the max pressure differential?
5.75
155
When will the safety pressure relief valve engage?
6-6.35
156
What are here ways that the CPCS can regulate cabin pressure?
Aircraft altitude
Landing field elevation
System mode
157
What are the three system modes for the pressurization?
Normal
Low cabin
High field
158
What is normal mode for pressurization?
Climbs and descends based on schedule
Max cabin differential at 30,000
Climb and descend together after 1300 feet
159
What is low cabin mode for pressurization?
Used to maintain lowest cabin altitude and maximum differential
Cabin altitude will be set to the higher of landing field elevation or cabin altitude with maximum differential
160
What is high field for pressurization?
Automatically happens when landing field elevation is higher than 10,000
161
When does the pressure relief valve open?
When do fertile exceed 6.35 or negative pressure relief
| Pneumatic pressure
162
How many negative pressure relief valves are there?
2
163
What do the negative pressure relief valves do?
Prevent a negative cabin differential
| Top of bulkhead
164
What does he dump toggle do?
Fully opens the outflow valve
165
How much can you be pressurized for landing?
.7
166
When does cabin oxygen activate?
13,500
167
When will you get a red warning for cabin altitude?
10,500
168
When will you get an amber caution for cabin differential?
6
169
When will you get a red warning for cabin differential?
6.35
170
What is the max cabin differential?
5.75
171
What should the oxygen be charged to?
1841 psi
172
How much oxygen will be provided to passengers and crew?
10 min
173
How does the oxygen tank prevent being over pressurized?
Pressure relief disk will rupture at 2775 psi
174
What order the boots go in?
```
Stabilizer
Lower inner
Upper inner
Lower outer
Upper outer
```
175
How is the intake heated?
Use exhaust gases
176
What is the inertial separator?
Prevents FOD from entering engine compressor section
177
What is the range of the Honeywell RDR 2000?
10 degree beam width
| 40 nm
178
What is the range on the lightening detection?
200 nm
