Systems Flashcards
(282 cards)
1
Q
Length
A
72.33 feet
2
Q
Height
A
18.97 feet
3
Q
Wing span
A
63.45 feet
4
Q
Horizontal Stab Span
A
26.09
5
Q
Wheel Base (main to nose gear)
A
28.67
6
Q
Oil capacities
A
13 quarts (system)
8 quarts (tank)
7
Q
Oil capacity (APU)
A
2 quarts
8
Q
Oil Capacity (ACM)
A
3.4 ounces
9
Q
Fuel Capacity (pounds)
A
13000 pounds
10
Q
Oxygen Capacity
(50 cubic foot bottle and 76 cubic foot bottle)
A
50…..1285 liters
76…..1977 liters
11
Q
Hyd fluid reservoir
A
1.75 gallons
12
Q
Engines
A
Allison AE 3007C-1
13
Q
Engine thrust
A
6764 pounds
14
Q
Bypass ratio
A
5:1
15
Q
Maximum altitude limit (takeoff and landing)
A
14000 feet
16
Q
Max tailwind component
A
10 knots
17
Q
Max xwind component
- Manual flight controls
- Slats asymmetry
A
- 10 knots
- 10 knots
18
Q
Max altitude for inflight use of speedbrakes
A
500 feet
19
Q
- Max asymmetric fuel
- Emergency asymmetric fuel
A
- 400 pounds
- 800 pounds
20
Q
Minimum wing fuel per tank for takeoff
A
500 pounds
21
Q
Takeoff in high idle mode is prohibited:
A
Except for touch and goes
22
Q
Max design ramp weight
A
36,400
23
Q
Max takeoff weight
A
36,100
24
Q
Max landing weight
A
31,800
25
Zero fuel weight
24,000
26
Takeoff weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following requirements:
36,100
Climb requirements (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)
Takeoff field length (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)
27
Landing weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following requirements:
31,800
Max landing by climb requirements or:
Brake energy (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)
Landing distance (takeoff and landing performance charts section 4 AFM)
28
FADEC
All four must be operative for takeoff
29
Air Data Computers
Both must be operational for takeoff
30
Min start duct pressure prior to ground start
25 psi
31
Engine starting limits
Takeoff Max continuous
Cruise
800 degrees
907 degrees (5 minutes)
857 degrees (10 minutes)
32
Max oil temperature
127 degrees
33
FADEC automatic over speed shutdowns
105% N1
105.6% N2
Dual FADEC failure
Loss of CVG control
34
Min fan speed for takeoff
73.6% N1
35
The FADEC will automatically shut down the engine at
54% N2 or below
36
Windmilling air start ITT limit
888 degrees Celsius
37
Approved Fuels
Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B, JP4, JP5, JP8
38
Min fuel temp for start (tank)
Max fuel temp for start (tank)
-37
+52
39
Min fuel temperature (engine) engine operating
Max fuel temperature (engine) engine operating
+4 C
98.9 C
40
Max altitude
51,000 feet
41
Center tank to wing transfer must be initiated...
Prior to 3100 pounds per side wing fuel.
42
Max fuel imbalance
Emergency
400 pounds
800 pounds
43
Approved hydraulic fluids
Skydrol
Hyjet IVA plus
44
Ground pneumatic cart limitation
30 psi
45
Max weight baggage compartment
700 pounds
46
Max weight ski tube
75 pounds
47
Generator limitations
400 amps < FL 410
300 amps > FL410
48
Cockpit and cabin pac selector switches
Operation in high mode not approved for
Takeoff and landing
Above FL450
When any bleed air anti icing switch is on
Above FL250 if single source and the isolation valve is open
Single pac operation above FL410 is prohibited
49
Battery cycle limitation
6 apu starts per hour
50
O2 system
Aviator’s breathing oxygen only
*The use of medical oxygen is not approved*
51
PFD data must be displayed
In the number 1 and 5 units only for dispatch
52
Autopilot min use height
1000’ AGL cruise flight
400’ AGL nonprecision approach
170’ AGL precision approach
53
ILS approaches using autopilot is prohibited...
With flaps up
54
Autopilot use with single IRS...
Is prohibited
55
Oxygen mask certification
Crew oxygen masks
Passenger oxygen masks
Crew: not approved for use above a cabin altitude of 40,000 feet.
Passenger: not approved for use above a cabin altitude of 25,000 feet.
56
At what cold temps should the batteries be removed?
Below -20c
57
Can you takeoff with an inoperable battery temperature warning system?
No. What else would the answer be?
58
What may occur if a battery limitation is exceeded?
A deep cycle, including a capacity check may be required to detect possible cell damage.
59
When is a battery cycle not counted during start?
If using a GPU to start the APU
60
Cockpit and cabin temp selector switches
Operation in high mode is not approved
During takeoff
Landing
Above 450
When any bleed air anti ice system is being used
Above 250 while single source and isolation valve is open.
61
During which operations is high mode approved?
During emergency operations, high mode is approved when the bleed air anti ice systems are on. But anti ice systems will be degraded.
62
When is single pac operation prohibited?
Above FL 410.
63
Autopilot minimum use height.
Cruise
Precision approach
Non precision approach
1000’ agl
170’ agl
400’ agl
64
What are the two times that autopilot usage is prohibited?
When flying with a single IRS or AHRS
While shooting an ILS with flaps up
65
Max operating Mach (MMO)
(above 30,650)
Mach trim off
Mach .92
Mach .82
66
Max operating knots (VMO)
8000 Up to 30,650
Below 8000
350 knots
270 knots
67
Max altitude for extension of flaps and landing gear.
FL 180
68
Max slat extended speed
250
69
Max flap extended speed
5
15
Full
250 knots
210 knots
180 knots
70
Max landing gear operating speed
210 knots
71
Max turbulent air penetration speed
300/.90
72
Max speed brake extension speed
No limit
73
Min speed brake extension speed
Vref+15
74
Min SE enroute climb speed
190 knots
75
Max tire ground speed
210 knots
76
Nose tire limitation
Only Goodyear tires are approved.
Must be inflated to 135 +/- 5 PSI unloaded.
77
Maximum operating altitude
51,000 feet
78
Engine air turbine starter limitation
3 consecutive starts followed by a 25 minute cool down.
One thirty second motoring equals one normal start.
79
No intentional stalls permitted above
FL 180
80
Load factor
Flaps up (retracted)
Flaps up (extended)
Flaps 5 degrees to full position (slats extended)
-1 to 2.7 G at 36,100 pounds
0.0 to +2 g at 36,100 pounds
0.0 to +2 g at 36,100 pounds
81
Max duration zero to negative G
10 seconds
82
Landing
+3.5 G at 31,800 pounds
83
Normal cabin pressure limitation
9.7 psi max diff
84
Cracked windshield
If only the outer ply (non structural) of the windshield is cracked, flight to a Mx base is permitted.
If either structural ply is cracked, restricted flight only on a ferry permit is permitted.
85
Min speed/configuration for sustained flight in icing conditions
200 knots/slats up. Except for approach/landing.
86
Do not apply external deicing fluid
When the APU is operating
87
Engine sync limitation
Prohibited during takeoff, landing, SE ops, FADEC/ADC/N1 reversionary.
88
When must the pulselight system be off and remain off?
During night ground and flight operations. Taxi, takeoff, and landing approach at 300’ and below.
89
The A/B Hydraulic systems may not be intentionally unloaded
Above 15,000 feet MSL.
90
Thrust reverser limitations
Restricted to ground ops on paved surfaces only.
Prohibited during touch and go landings.
Maximum reverse thrust limited to 75% N1 (TLA 46 degrees).
Reduced to idle at 60 knots (by 70 knots when single engine reversing, or when on slippery runway or NWS inoperative).
91
How many static wicks on the airplane?
How many can be missing?
18 total.
No more than two can be missing. There cannot be two adjacent static wicks missing at any one time.
92
Engine type
Thrust
Allison AE 3007 C-1
6764 pounds of thrust
High bypass ratio, two spool, axial flow turbofan engine
3 stage low pressure turbine
2 stage high pressure turbine
93
Engine bypass ratio
5:1
94
What do the PMA’s power?
Igniters (PMA is the only source of power for the ignition exciters).
FADECS until the PMA’s get up to adequate speed to generate sufficient electrical power. (Until 50% N2).
95
How will the FADECS schedule N1 thrust if both ADC’s become invalid?
The FADECS will use engine internal temperature and pressure to schedule thrust N1.
96
When will Engine Synch automatically shutoff?
During engine failure or when the throttle lever split exceeds 4 degrees.
97
In case of loss of 28V DC power or FADEC failure, what happens to the igniters?
The ignition is designed to fail safe (ignition automatically turns on). (Normally closed or energized open).
98
Ballast Fuel
Ballast fuel remains within the wing fuel tanks and cannot be used without causing the aft center of gravity limit to be exceeded.
Ballast fuel is unusable fuel.
99
Minimum control speed in the air (VMCA)
Flaps 5
Flaps 15
118 kts
110 kts
100
Minimum control speed during landing approach (VMCL)
Flaps 15
Full flaps
113 kts
106 kts
101
Minimum control speed on the ground (VMCG)
109 kts
102
Max voltage of DC system
28.5 vdc
103
Generator limitation
To 410
Above 410
400 amps
300 amps
104
Yaw dampener channels operational for dispatch?
BOTH upper and EITHER lower yaw dampener channels must be operational for dispatch.
105
Max refueling pressure
Max defueling pressure
55 psi
-10 psi
106
Fuel transfer/cross feed limitations
Simultaneous use of cross feed and center to wing transfer is prohibited when the wing fuel quantity is 2900 pounds or less per side. Fuel imbalance will result.
107
Can engine oils be mixed?
No. Only when an engine is new or overhauled.
Or using the “topoff” method.
108
Approved hydraulic fluids
Skydrol
Hyjet
109
APU
Max operating altitude
31,000 feet
110
APU maximum starting altitude/speeds
300 knots or less...31,000 feet
Up to 350 knots...20,000 feet
111
APU Max gen load
300 amps ground
200 amps flight
112
APU Starter duty cycle
Six consecutive APU starts per hour
Unsuccessful start attempts:
BATTERY:
Two cycles. 30 seconds on, 30 minutes off. Two cycles. 30 seconds on, 1 hour off.
GENERATOR/GPU:
Two cycles. 15 seconds on, 20 minutes off. Two cycles. 15 seconds on, 1 hour off.
113
When do icing conditions exist?
+10c or below in visible moisture.
Also, +10c or below operating on ramps or taxiways where snow, ice, standing water or slush can be ingested by or freeze on the engines.
114
Maximum SAT for operation of bleed air
+20c. (Except for preflight checks)
115
Minimum speed for sustained flight in icing conditions
200 kts slats up. Except for approach and landing.
Holding or extended flight in icing conditions with the slats extended is prohibited.
116
Nosewheel steering circumference limits/capabilities
Rudder pedals...+/- 12 degrees
Tiller...+/- 80 degrees
Rudder and tiller together...+/- 92 degrees
117
Max altitude with baggage compartment unpressurized
FL 410
Use of baggage compartment not authorized with cabin unpressurized
118
When does the YSAS become active?
The upper rudder is electric. The YSAS reacts when the flap handle is moved out of up.
119
What prevents free fall of the main cabin door when opening?
A counterbalance mechanism.
120
Where does the APU receive its fuel from?
Left wing tank hopper pressurized by the left fuel boost pump.
121
How to balance the fuel if necessary while operating the APU?
Crossfeed from the right, left boost pump off.
122
Name some things the ECB will shut the APU down for.
Overcurrent
Overtemperature
123
Indications when pressing the APU test button
APU FIRE
APU FAIL
APU RELAY ENGAGED
BLEED VLV OPEN
READY TO LOAD
124
List the items located in the IAC
Fault warning computer
FMS
Flight guidance computer
Symbol generator
Bus controller
125
How do you revert the PFD to the MFD should the unit fail?
The PFD dim knob.
126
The IRS reversion switch
Allows the sharing of IRS data between PFD’s.
127
Which displays can the EICAS be reverted to?
DU 2 or DU 4
128
The DAU’s
Are the collection centers for all sensors and it sends the appropriate data to the IAC’s.
129
What powers the SRU (Standby Radio Unit)?
During emergency operation, the SRU and NAV/COM 1 operate on DC power from the Left EMER Bus.
130
While powering down the aircraft, why do we leave the stby power on until the IRS ALIGN annunciator extinguishes?
This allows the IRU to place the position in memory.
131
What powers the standby HSI?
28 VDC from the Emergency Bus
132
What powers the standby engine instruments?
The emergency bus.
133
Some differences that non-split aircraft have?
Load shed switch and capability
Crossfeed bus
Current limiters (The L&R main generator buses are connected to the crossfeed bus by 275 amp current limiters.)
Load sharing
The APU Generator connects to the crossfeed bus
134
Battery endurance with load shed override selected and generators offline?
Less than 30 minutes
135
With load shed switch in NORM when will the isolation relay open?
Approximately 70 seconds after the last generator goes offline
136
What does the O’RIDE position do?
Disables the automatic load shed feature. This essentially gives the pilots a short time to prepare, before switching to EMER. During this time the batteries will be powering all buses and not gettting charged.
137
What does the EMER position do (load shed switch)?
Separates the emergency bus from the main/crossfeed buses, and only the batteries will be powering the emergency bus. Batteries will not be getting charged.
138
Name some important items that the LOAD SHED switch in EMER will power for 30 minutes
Both rudder limiters
Both audio panels
Comm 1/nav 1
RMU
A AUX Pump
All trims
Engine fire detect/extinguishers
Landing gear control and indicators
139
All sources of DC power are connected to the entire electrical system through the crossfeed bus (non split). What are other important buses connected to the crossfeed bus?
Cabin bus, EICAS bus and the standby instrument bus.
140
Generator amp additional amperage time
Each generator has the capacity to output additional amperage for a limited time. (150% for 5 minutes and 200% for 20 seconds).
141
GCU functions
Regulates non split system to 28.5 volts
Feeder fault protection
Over voltage, reverse current and overload protection
142
Battery type
24 volt, 44 amp/hour Nicad or lead acid.
Connected directly to the L and R battery buses.
143
Min voltage to start the APU
22 volts
144
Minimum voltage to close the battery contactor
18 volts
145
What powers the standby instruments during emergency operations?
How is it normally charged?
A 2.5 stby battery pack supplies power.
Charged during normal operation by the R Main Bus.
146
Where are the volts and amps of the generators read?
What does the LED side panel read?
EICAS
Indicated battery condition. It indicates total electrical system voltage and the rate of charge or discharge of the batteries.
147
GPU should be limited to
28 volts/1000 amps
148
Are batteries being charged while on GPU?
Yes. Whenever the batteries switched on.
* must be charged together
* batt voltage must be 23 volts or less
* air temp less than 100F
* max four hours of charging
149
What will happen after landing if the crosstie remains open and not checked closed?
If the crosstie is open, the left battery will discharge after shutting the left engine down.
150
The AC Electrical system consists of
Two AC alternators and PCU for windshield heat
Four static inverters for EL and fluorescent lighting
151
What does it mean when the amber light next to the EMER LT switch is illuminated?
When the aircraft power is on and the emergency lighting system is in the off position.
152
Which part of the engine does the primary source of pressurization/environmental system air come from?
8th stage (low pressure)
14th stage (high pressure)
153
HP air is used for
Pressurization, air conditioning, anti icing, engine starting and service air.
154
LP bleed air is used for
Pressurization, air conditioning, and anti ice during takeoff.
155
Low pressure bleed air regulator valve
This valve is located in the tailcone and provides pressure regulation at 45 +/- 5 psi.
156
HP/LP Crossover valve
Solenoid operated and located in the tailcone, are normally closed, sending LP bleed air to the PACs. When open, HP bleed air is sent to the PACs.
157
Service Air
Door seals, baggage heat, and vacuum ejector pump.
158
Bleed air from the APU is used for
Pressurization, AC, starting engines, and service air. It does not connect to the anti icing ducts.
159
The ISOL valve is normally in the closed position...
...allowing air only from the left engine to go to the Cockpit PAC and air from the right engine to supply the Cabin Pac.
160
PAC Bleed Select Switch (during normal operation)
In NORM position, the valves are closed, sending LP bleed air to the PACs.
In NORM position, the airplane decides whether to open the valve(s) to ensure adequate bleed air for PACs for pressurization and anti ice.
Based on WOW logic, TLA, and anti ice switch position.
161
PAC Bleed Select Switch (switch in LP)
Only LP air going to PACs.
162
What is the guarded Isolation valve for?
When closed (via the guarded switch), the,solenoid valve will also close, terminating any oxygen supply to the baggage compartment.
163
What shuts down the PAC in case of an overheat?
How would you resume air back to the PAC?
The bilevel control valve.
The appropriate CKPT/CAB PAC switch must be turned off and then back on.
164
Why must the CKPT and CABIN temp selectors be in the AUTO mode when electrical power is initially applied?
The controller will not properly complete its automatic power up checks.
165
What will close the isolation valve?
1 PSI difference between the baggage area and the cabin.
Baggage altitude approximately 14,000 feet.
Loss of electrical power.
Closing the isol valve guarded switch.
166
What will the cabin pressure climb to when actuating the Cabin Dump switch?
13,500 +/- 500 ft.
*No cabin dump available when main DC power is lost (only EMER BUS power available), or the MANUAL/NORM switch is MANUAL.
167
Depressing the ENG FIRE Light
Closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves
Trips the generator and TR isolation valve
Arms both fire bottles
Sends signal to FADEC to shutdown the engine
*the bottles are charged with bromotriofluormethane
168
Which flight control surfaces utilize PCU’s?
Ailerons, elevators, and lower rudder use two PCU’s for each surface.
169
How are the inboard and outboard speed brakes powered?
The outboard panel of the speed brakes is powered by the A system, while the TWO INBOARD are powered by the B system.
170
Who has control of what when the pitch/roll disconnect handle is pulled?
Pilot; left elevator and ailerons.
Co-pilot; right elevator and roll spoilers.
171
How do the pitch feel units work?
The pitch feel units are fed information by the ADC’s. They generate a feel force pattern in relation to the airplane speed and the elevator position.
172
What happens to the roll spoilers in the event of a total hydraulic loss?
The ailerons?
The spoilers are blown down and hydraulically latched from floating up.
The ailerons will go into manual reversion mode, allowing the crew to use the control wheels.
173
How does the rudder limiter work?
As a function of airspeed. At low air speeds it allows full rudder travel. At higher air speeds, the lower rudder will be limited in travel to a variable percentage of maximum deflection.
174
When will the amber SPEED BRAKES CAS message appear?
Anytime the RA is below 500’ AGL and the speed brakes are extended.
When speed brakes are asymmetrical.
175
How many fuel pumps in the X?
12.
Two engine-driven
Two motive flow pumps
Two electric boost pumps
Two primary ejector pumps
Two center-to-wing ejector pumps
Two wing-to-hopper scavenger ejector pumps
176
When do the fuel boost pumps come on automatically in the NORM position?
Low fuel pressure (less than 9 psi)
Engine starting
Selecting crossfeed
APU in operation (left engine not running)
177
When does FUEL LEVEL LOW L/R message come on?
Wing tank levels below 500 pounds.
178
WING TANK O’FULL L/R
Alerts the crew of a fuel transfer system malfunction.
179
How many fuel magnetic indicators (dipsticks) are there?
Four.
They provide a mechanical means of calculating fuel levels while on the ground.
180
Hydraulic unload switches.
NORM Mode:
UNLOAD Position of switch:
NORM: The relief valve will automatically depressurize the system if a pressure of 3750 psi is reached.
UNLOAD: The unload valve is opened and system pressure is released.
181
Max containable pressure of the hydraulic system?
3750 psi. A backup pressure regulating valve will try to maintain 3400ish psi.
If pressures continue to rise then the resulting heat buildup will trigger the HYD O’TEMP A or B message.
182
When does the PTU normally activate?
Deactivate?
When A system pressure drops approximately 1600 psi.
Deactivates at approximately 2700 psi.
183
What is the only way to remove power from the PTU Controller?
By pulling the HYDR B/PTU CONT circuit breaker.
184
Which surfaces utilize bleed air for anti-ice?
Leading edges, including landing lights
Slats
Nacelle inlets
Horizontal stab
185
DC electrical powers the following:
RAT Probes
P/S Probes
AOA Probes
Wing Cuff Heater (wing root)
Coffee and Lavatory Drains
Switches,valves, and controls associated with the anti-ice system
186
What happens to the wing and horizontal stab anti-ice valves with the loss of electrical power?
All four valves will open with the loss of electrical power.
187
Bleed air anti ice systems:
High pressure (14th stage bleed air) is used for?
Low pressure (8th stage bleed air)?
Inflight anti ice
On ground anti ice during takeoff and TLA greater than 32 degrees
188
Will the anti ice system shut down in the event of a STAB BLD LEAK L or R?
No. Pilot action is required.
189
Will the stab anti ice system shut down with STAB A/I HOT L or R?
Yes. System logic will close the anti ice valves. It will cause a cycling effect when the system cools and subsequently heats up again.
190
Which power setting will automatically turn off the stab and slat anti ice?
Below 48% N1.
191
The engine anti ice valves....
Are powered to the closed position. With the engine 88 switches in the on position, power is removed from the valves and they move to the open position. With the engine anti-ice switch is in the off position the engine nacelle regulating and shut off valves will be electrically powered closed regardless of throttle position and engine anti ice will be turned off.
192
How to check operation of the engine anti ice system?
By observing ITT rise and fan decrease.
193
How is the wing root powered?
Anytime the engine anti-ice is on the respective wing root area (or cuff) will also be anti-iced electrically
194
Which switch controls the heaters for the STBY pitot tube?
RH PITOT/STATIC ANTI-ICE SWITCH
195
To heat the RAT probe on the ground, the following must be on:
BATT Switches
Avionics switch
L-R PITOT/STATIC Switches
Rotary test switch must be selected to windshield heat
196
How to check the heating elements of the pipe and drain mast for the galley and aft lavatory sink fluid drain?
Place battery switches on and check tubes on underside of aircraft for heat
197
During gear retraction, what stops the wheels from spinning in the wheel wells?
A brake metering valve.
198
What causes the O2 masks to free-fall in the cabin?
Oxygen pressure in the lines, actuating a plunger, which opens the doors, allowing them to free-fall.
199
Will the pilot still have throttle control in the event of a TLA failure?
Yes. FADEC will continue metering fuel at the last directed thrust rate until the pilot places the throttle in CUTOFF.
200
The FADECS limit fuel during reverser operations to...
Approximately 70% N1.
201
When does the Amber ARM annunciator illuminate when deploying TR?
When 300 psi or more is sensed in the isolation valve.
202
The affect a TLA failure has on an engine?
The engine thrust will fixed at the last known TLA position.
203
MMV FAIL CAS MSG options?
The throttle can be placed into cutoff.
204
Why is it not permitted to takeoff with a fan setting below 73.56% N1?
The fan damage logic won’t function below that rpm setting.
205
What functions does the PMA provide on the engine?
It is the sole source of power for the ignition at N2 speeds > 13% and powers the FADECS above 50% N2.
206
Which systems alternate their respective control functions on succeeding engine starts?
The FADECS and ignition channels.
207
What conditions would cause both engines to energize?
Auto relights and air starts.
208
What are the two reversionary modes associated with the FADECS?
ADC and N1 reversionary modes.
209
What will result if the FADECS lose control of the ignition relay?
The ignition will fail ON and can’t be de-energized.
210
How would you know if the controlling FADEC is also determining the target setting for the N1 bug?
The blue target bug for the N1 tape will turn amber.
211
FADEC metering back without shutting down conditions?
ITT Exceeding 888
Greater than 100% N1 or 101% N2.
212
When are the blue N1 target bugs referenced to max power no matter what the TLA position?
When the gear are down.
213
OIL LEVEL LOW CAS?
8 quarts low.
214
What does an amber FADEC BUS FAIL L-R CAS message signify?
A FADEC has lost the ability to communicate through the CCDL with the other FADEC.
215
If a FADEC is operating in ADC reversionary mode, how does the FADEC obtain temperature and pressure data?
It used data from the T2.5 and P2.5 sensors.
216
What would result if a throttle were placed out of cutoff and the start button depressed?
The start sequence would occur normally.
217
FUEL XFEED OPEN CAS?
While cross feeding a tank imbalance of 50 lbs or greater in opposite tank.
218
FUEL MOTV FAIL L-R?
The opposite side motive flow valve has failed to close during cross feed operations and cross feed capability is in question. You can use the gravity cross flow to balance the tanks.
219
What effect, if any, would occur on the fuel system if crew were forced to revert to emergency bus only operation?
The gravity cross flow and fuel cross feed functions would not be available.
220
Why should the gravity cross flow valve be closed during refueling?
It will prevent the possibility of pressurizing an already full wing tank, should the opposite wing still be receiving fuel, which could force fuel overboard.
221
What compensations are applied to obtain accurate fuel quantity displays?
The fuel quantity is compensated for temperature and aircraft attitude using the IRS’s.
222
FUEL LEVEL LOW L-R?
When fuel level drops to 500 pounds or less in the associated tank.
223
What function do the low level switches in the wing tanks provide?
Besides indicating 500 pounds fuel remaining in the wing tank, the switch will signal the fuel system to close the center tank transfer valves if the center tank transfer switches are set to NORMAL. 
224
When is fuel transferred from the center take to the main wing tanks?
Fuel will move from the center tank once the wing tank level drops between 3250 and 3500 pounds.
225
During single point refueling in what sequence are the wing and center tanks filled and why?
The wing tanks are filled first then the center tank is filled. This prevents excessive stress on the wing spars.
226
What is heated when the slat anti-ice switch is turned on?
The wing fixed leading edge, and the slats. 
227
What must be done to override the WOW logic and allow the RAT heat to be checked during the walk around?
You place the rotary switch in the windshield, temp position and turn on the windshield heat switches. The left and right WSHLD HEAT INOP lights and the WSHLD O’TEMP CAS messages should appear with the o’temp message extinguishing after a few seconds.
228
Which electrical anti-systems are on WOW logic?
The rat probes and both wing cuffs.
229
What function does the O’RIDE position provide on the windshield heat switch?
The panels are brought up to correct temperature over a shorter period of time.
230
While operating with emergency bus power, only, what electrical anti-systems will still function?
The standby pitot
static heat, and the left windshield heat controller.
231
Name the five anti-systems on the CX.
Engine inlets, inboard wing area (cuff) slats, horizontal stabilizer, pitot static, windshields.
232
What risks are present when flying at low air speeds or with flaps or slats extended?
This can result in ice building on the underside of the wings and horizontal tail aft of the areas protected by the leading edge anti ice systems.
233
How does the anti-ice system function when an overheat condition exists?
The affected system will shut down, and after cooling the system would turn back on.
234
If a wing bleed leak occurs, an amber WING BLD LEAK L-R CAS message will appear. What effect does this have on the effective anti-system?
The affected systems, anti-ice valve will close and remain closed and contain the bleed leak.
235
What would cause an amber WING A/I COLD L-R message to downgrade to a cyan one?
If there is an active bleed leak condition.
236
Why is a STAB BLD LEAK L-R CAS message red, while a WING BLD LEAK L-R message amber?
The wing bleed leak will automatically shut the effective system down while the stab system will not shut down on its own, but require immediate crew action. 
237
What effect would the loss of the left engine have on the windshield heat system?
The pilots windshield heat controller would be lost thus causing the Pilots outboard windshield panels and the copilots, inner panel and side forward glass to lose anti-ice protection. 
238
During the APU start sequence, the power to the APU starter is coming from which bus?
The Emergency Bus
239
How many minutes of EMERGENCY power if on EMER only power?
60 mins/split bus
30 mins/non-split bus
240
Which bus is powered when an EPU is connected to the split-bus system?
The R Main Bus
241
Items powered by the STBY Battery Pack?
STBY GYRO, Altimeter Vibrator, STBY Engine Instruments, Lighting for STBY Instruments
242
Which bus powers the STBY instruments in the non-split?
Cross feed bus
243
Following a dual generator failure, what’s does the isolation relay do on a non-split?
It automatically opens after 70 seconds.
244
What does an amber CROSSTIE CLOSED message indicate?
The crosstie relay is closed in flight with both generators online. On the ground, it will activate a MASTER WARNING light and single chime when throttles are advanced for takeoff.
245
While flying, the active “A” FGC channel fails. What should the crew expect to happen in this situation?
The system automatically switches to the “B” channel.
246
How is the pitch/roll disconnect handle reset to the normal position after being extended?
The handle is turned to the 9 o’clock position and pushed down. It is then rotated back to the 3 o’clock position. 
247
Why is it important to pull the HYD B/PTU CB following a complete loss of hydraulic fluid from the A system?
Without any resistance to work against the PTU will overheat the hydraulics in the B hydraulic system and result in a dual hydraulic failure.
248
What systems are on the “B” hydraulic system?
Inboard roll spoilers, inboard, speedbrakes, slats, ailerons, lower rudder, elevators, and right thrust reverser.
249
What conditions will trigger the gear warning horn?
If any gear is not down and locked, while the flaps are beyond 24° or both throttles are less than 30° and radar altitude less than 500 feet or radio altimeter is not valid. 
250
Is it necessary to apply the brakes when retracting the landing gear?
No. The break metering valve applies pressure to slow the wheels.
251
How is the landing gear held down after the extension process is complete?
Mechanical downlock mechanisms, using a locking ring within the actuators and hydraulic fluid, trapped in extend line.
252
If one or more of the landing gear will not retract in the wheel wells, what is the recommended number of cycle attempts to get the gear to fully retract? 
Zero. If the gear doesn’t lock up on the first attempt put them down and land. 
253
At what point will the red unlock light extinguish with gear operation?
After all three up-lock switches have made contact or all three down-lock plunger switches make contact indicating the mechanical locking rings are in place. 
254
If the aircraft is being operated in an emergency bus condition, what will be necessary to lower or raise the landing gear?
The landing gear is on the emergency bus system and will operate normally.
255
What is capital LP bleed air used for?
To run the PAC’s and during takeoff when anti ice is selected on.
256
What is the one pneumatic system that the APU and huffer cart bleed air cannot supply?
Anti ice
257
Name the two conditions that would automatically close the HP FWSOV to close even if in the LP/HP position.
On the takeoff roll (TLA >32) when any bleed anti ice system is selected on, and the second is when a HP duct over pressure condition exists.
258
What is service air used for?
Pressurization control,baggage heat, acoustic seal, primary door, seal, baggage door seal, RAT, aspiration, baggage, isolation valve control.
259
Name the two bleed air sources on the engine and their use.
8th stage air for LP bleed air to be used for the PACs. 14th stage HP air for use in anti ice systems and to supplement LP air in the PACs.
260
Name the three conditions that will automatically isolate the baggage area.
Loss of main DC power. 1.0 PSI difference. Baggage altitude reaching 14,500 feet.
261
What occurs if the ISO VLV switch is actuated?
The HP service air for heat closes. Loss of cabin air into the baggage area, and the electric fan shuts off.
262
I hat are the two purposes of the electric circulating fan?
Provide cooling air for the aft radio rack, and is part of the smoke detection system.
263
EDM Mode?
Cabin >14,500, Ambient >FL300, AP on. The plane will descend to 15,000 feet with a 90 degree turn to the left.
264
Cabin altitude limiter?
14,500’
265
Amber “CABIN ALTITUDE”
Red “CABIN ALTITUDE”
8500’
10000’
266
How can the cabin be dumped while operating in manual mode?
By placing the manual rate knob to MAX, and holding the cherry picker in UP.
267
Automatic pax oxygen masks drop at what cabin altitude?
14,500
268
What action must be taken if the oxygen system pressure is discharged?
The bottle must be purged, due to contaminants being drawn into the regulator and/or tank.
269
What must be done by the pax before oxygen is allowed to flow through a pax mask?
The lanyard must be pulled to remove the pintle pin for that mask.
270
Above what altitude does the EROS mask ensure the wearer has 100% oxygen flow?
Cabin altitudes above FL300
271
Above what cabin altitude will the EROS mask automatically switch to pressure breathing?
Above FL370
272
While testing the mask the blinker goes from yellow to black. What does this indicate?
What if it stays yellow?
The mask has a leak- free regulator.
A leak is present and must be corrected before flight.
273
What his meant by the terms A, B, and C fires?
A: Ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, etc.
B: flammable liquids.
C: electrical.
274
What class fires are the portable extinguishers suitable for use?
A,B, and C fires.
275
Red X in the CAS window?
FWC 1 has failed.
276
How can FWC 2 messages be displayed if FWC 1 has failed?
By switching the SG Reversion switch from NORM to SG2.
277
TOPI
Out at 400’ or 25 seconds.
278
LOPI
200 knots/50 knots
279
Failed ADC displayed on the PFD?
Red X’s on the airspeed and altimeter tapes, red “VS” text in a red box on VSI display.
280
What would be an indication of the loss of both bus controllers?
All 5 DUs would be black.
281
How can a PFD be regained if DU1 or DU5 go blank?
By turning the PFD dimmer knob all the way to its detent position. It now displays on the same side MFD.
282
How can the FSBY mode on the radar be overridden during ground operations?
By pressing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds. The promise 870 uses the two range keys by pressing both down simultaneously for three seconds.
