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Ameristar > Systems DA 20 > Flashcards

Systems DA 20 Flashcards

1
Q

Tell me about the batteries

A

2 Lead acid batteries located in the rear compartment. Connected in parallel. Battery range 24 to 26 volts, 34/40 amp/hr. Connected by quick connectors. Connected to the main battery bus.

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2
Q

How many generators are there? Describe them.

A

2 generators. Rated at 300 amps at 28.5 volts. Located on the accessory drive of the engine.

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3
Q

Ground power supply system

A

Located on the lower right side of the aft fuselage. 3 pin connector. GPU power at 28.5 volts at 1,000 amps. Can’t charge the batteries.

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4
Q

What does the red “CABIN” warning light mean?

A

Cabin pressure is above 8.7 psi or above 10,000’

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5
Q

What does the red “DOOR” warning light mean?

A

Main cabin door or the rear compartment door is not locked.

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6
Q

Either red “PITOT 1 or 2” light?

A

Pitot probe heating system is off or failed.

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7
Q

What does the red “DC GEN 1 or 2” annunciator mean?

A

The DC generator is not supplying power to the main bus.

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8
Q

What does the red “BATTERY” light mean?

A

At least 1 battery is not connected to the main bus. Battery relays are open.

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9
Q

What does the red “PARK BR” mean?

A

Parking brake pressure is too low. System pressure is less than 1,200 psi.

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10
Q

What does the red “HYDR 1 or 2” light mean?

A

Respective main hydraulic pump pressure is too low. Pressure switch is reading the pressure less than 2,150 psi.

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11
Q

What does the red “OIL PR 1 or 2” mean?

A

Oil pressure is less than 5 psi.

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12
Q

What does the red “FUEL PR 1 or 2” mean?

A

Engine fuel feeder line pressure is too low. Pressure is less than 8.7 psi.

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13
Q

What does the red “XFER 1 or 2” mean?

A

Associated transfer fuel pressure drops below 4 psi.

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14
Q

What does the orange “YAW OFF” mean?

A

Yaw damper is disengaged. Automatic disengagement takes place when the yaw damper deflection exceeds 4º or there is a loss of AC power

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15
Q

What does the red “YAW FAIL” light mean?

A

Yaw damper has failed with the engagement button in. Automatic failure occurs when yaw damper deflection exceeds 1 1/2º for more than 10 seconds.

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16
Q

What does the red “A/G ROLL or PITCH” mean?

A

Arthur Q unit position does not agree with the high- or low-speed modes of flight. High-speed disagreement interrogation takes place at approximately 265 kts. Low-speed disagreement takes place whenever the right DLE is extended.

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17
Q

What does the red “GUST DAMP” light mean?

A

No 1 hydraulic pressure drops in the rudder system and the gust damper valve is closed (damping position).

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18
Q

What does the red “BAGGAGE FIRE” light mean?

A

Smoke or fire in the baggage compartment.

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19
Q

What does the red horizontal trim indicator light mean?

A

Horizontal stabilizer trim is set at a nose-high position. Accompanied by a warning horn if the throttle is advanced above 85% while on the ground.

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20
Q

What does the anti-icing lights mean?

A

2 red lights (L or R) illuminate if the whiny, nacelle, or engine anti-icing valves position differ from that selected. Momentary illumination while the valves are in transit.

3 green lights - illuminate when the temperature of the surface selected has reached the operating temperature.

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21
Q

What does the inverter failure lights mean?

A

2 red lights (L or R) mean that AC buses are not powered with 115 VAC.

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22
Q

How long is this airplane?

A

56.3’

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23
Q

How wide is this airplane?

A

53.6’

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24
Q

How tall is this airplane?

A

17.6’

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25
Q

What does the RED labeled CB mean?

A

Load shed item

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26
Q

What does the WHITE labeled CB mean?

A

Non-load shed item

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27
Q

How many inverters do we have and what type are they?

A

Solid state - 3 of them.

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28
Q

Where is the hydraulic system tanks located?

A

Rear compartment

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29
Q

Does this aircraft have split flap protection?

A

NO

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30
Q

What does the pneumatic system operate?

A
  1. Air conditioning
  2. Cabin pressurization
  3. Fuel tank pressurization
  4. Hydraulic tank pressurization
  5. Powerplant anti-icing
  6. Airframe Anti-icing
  7. Fuel heaters
  8. Fuel control unit
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31
Q

What is the limitation on the use of AVGAS?

A
  1. No more than 25 hrs of operation before overhaul.
  2. Above a 50% mix, max allowable operating altitude is 20,000’.
  3. Select the lowest octane fuel available and adjust the fuel density controller per the chart in the AOM.
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32
Q

What does the #1 inverter operate?

A
  1. Non load shed
  2. Powers the pilot’s AC BUS
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33
Q

What does the #2 inverter operate?

A
  1. Load shed
  2. Powers the Co-pilot’s AC BUS
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34
Q

What does the standby inverter operate?

A
  1. Non load shed
  2. Can power either AC BUS
  3. Unless you are load shedding, then it can only power the Pilot’s AC BUS
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35
Q

Where does the pneumatic system get its air from?

A

8th stage bleed air from each engine

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36
Q

Aircraft with big feeders have a total fuel capacity of?

A

8900# total
1500# feeder tank
7400# wing tank

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37
Q

Aircraft with small feeders have a total fuel capacity of?

A

8300# total
900# feeder tank
7400# wing tank

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38
Q

How many inverters are there and describe them?

A

3 total - No. 1, No. 2, and standby - All are solid state
Deliver AC power to the AC buses @ 115-V, 400 Hz, 3 phase.

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39
Q

How many fire detection loops are located in each area?

A

Engine - 2
Wheel well - 1
Rear compartment - 1

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40
Q

Describe the fire bottles?

A

2 are on board.
Each one contains Freon 12B @ .3 Gal.
Pressurized to ~207 psi

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41
Q

Describe the hydraulic #1 system?

A

Mounted on the left engine accessory drive.
Provides 3,000 psi
Reservoir is pressurized to 21 psi from 8th stage bleed air.
Holds ~ 4 gallons.

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42
Q

Describe the hydraulic #2 system?

A

Mounted on the right engine accessory drive.
Provides 3,000 psi
Reservoir is pressurized to 21 psi from 8th stage bleed air.
Holds ~ 4 gallons.

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43
Q

Describe the standby hydraulic system?

A

electrohydraulic pump located on the right side of the rear compartment. Electric power from the Main bus.
Uses hydraulic fluid from the reserve section of the No. 1 and No. 2 reservoirs.

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44
Q

What items are powered by the #1 hydraulic system?

A
  1. L and R aileron servos
  2. Elevator servo
  3. Rudder servo
  4. Nosewheel steering *
  5. DLE*
  6. Trailing edge flaps
  7. Normal landing gear doors
  8. Normal landing gear
  9. Normal brakes and anti-skid
  10. Airbrakes*
  11. Transfer jack charge*
    * - Only on system #1
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45
Q

What items are powered by the #2 hydraulic system?

A

1.L and R aileron servos
2. Elevator servo
3. Rudder servo
4. Yaw damper*
5. Aileron Q unit
6. Elevator Q unit
7. Parking brake system
8. Transfer jack motive pressure
* - Only on sytstem #2

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46
Q

What are the 9 items on the landing gear system?

A

Nose gear -
1. Steering
2. Anti-skid
3. Landing gear selector safety pin (engages)

Left main -
1. Landing gear selector safety pin (disengage)
2. Stabilizer trim warning
3. Cockpit side window heat

Right main -
1. Stall warning
2. Cabin pressurization (dump valve)
3. Conditioning valve

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47
Q

What items are hot anytime the main batteries are connected?

A
  1. Fire bottles
  2. Battery relays
  3. refuel panel
  4. door motor
  5. With the AUX BUS switch on - dome light, rear compartment light
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48
Q

What does the BAT RESET button do?

A

Resets the battery reverse-current relay (4P). This relay limits the amount of current that is allowed to charge the batteries.

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49
Q

When are you likely to exceed generator amp limitations on the ground?

A

After starting one engine and attempting to recharge the batteries before starting the second engine

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50
Q

Are our falcons equipped with APUs?

A

No

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51
Q

Do the generator control switches need to be on to start the engine?

A

Must be in the on position

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52
Q

Is the generator control switch capable of turning off on it’s own?

A

Yes - There are trip switches that will automatically turn off if a differential or over-voltage fault occurs, or if the generator fails.

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53
Q

After starting with the GPU, when will the generators be connected to the main DC bus?

A

DC power switch to FLIGHT NORMAL
GPU must be disconnected from the GPU receptacle

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54
Q

What is the purpose of load shedding?

A

To conserve battery power or electrically isolate the auxiliary buses

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55
Q

When does load shedding occur?

A

When you move the AUXILIARY BUS switch to OFF and automatically whenever DC power selector switch is not in the FLIGHT NORMal position.

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56
Q

What is the air source for the air conditioning system?

A

8th stage bleed air from the engines

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57
Q

Describe the operation of the conditioning valve in the AUTO position

A

On the ground - valve is closed
In the air - valve is open
Approximately 2 minutes to open or close the valve when in the AUTO position

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58
Q

Describe the operation of the conditioning valve in the OPEN or CLOSED positions

A

The valve will rapidly move to the selected position regardless of the position of the squat switch

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59
Q

How is bleed air cooled prior to entering the cabin?

A

Hot bleed air is cooled in heat exchangers and by expansion in the air cycle machine

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60
Q

What is the function of the air cycle machine?

A

It induces airflow through the heat exchangers

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61
Q

What is the function of the temperature control valve?

A

Directs hot bleed air to the cold air distribution system or directly into the cabin

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62
Q

How is the temperature of the cabin air controlled?

A

Rotary temperature controller

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63
Q

What is the function of the upper half of the temperature controller?

A

Controls positioning of the temperature control valve based on the one or two temperature probes

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64
Q

What is the function of the lower half of the temperature controller?

A

Manually controls positioning of the temperature control valve hotter or colder depending on which side of the controller

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65
Q

How can you manually change the position of the temperature control valve?

A

There is a mechanical override in the emergency controls

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66
Q

What is the function of the Ram air scoop?

A

Circulates outside air through the cabin and cockpit

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67
Q

Where is the ram air scoop located?

A

on the bottom of the aft fuselage

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68
Q

When will the ram air scoop depoly?

A

RAM AIR CLOSE switch is not in the CLOSE position. Rear compartment fire extinguishing switch is in the discharge position

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69
Q

What is the air source for the foot warmer and windshield defog?

A

Hot bleed air from the air conditioning system

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70
Q

What is the effect of placing the STATIC SELECTOR on the pilot side to the EMERGENCY position

A

The pilot side Mach air speed, altimeter, and vertical speed indicators will be connected to an alternate static source in the rear compartment.

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71
Q

What systems use the utility static port?

A
  1. Mach overspeed warning system
  2. Autopilot altitude control
  3. Cabin overpressure warning
  4. Cabin differential pressure switch
  5. Autopilot airspeed switch
  6. Arthur Q units
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72
Q

Does the STATIC SELECTOR have any effect on the operation of the utility static port?

A

No

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73
Q

On the copilots side, there is a knob labeled “PITOT SHUT-OFF VALVE. What is the difference between the PANEL AND ACCESSORIES and the PANEL ONLY positions of this knob?

A

This directs where pitot pressure from the copilots side pitot tube is directed -
PANEL ONLY - Copilot’s Mach-airspeed indicator
PANEL AND ACCESSORIES - Copilots Mach-airspeed indicator
EPR transducers
Arthur Q units
Autopilot airspeed switch
Mach overspeed warning system

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74
Q

What systems are affected by placing the PITOT SHUT-OFF VALVE in PANEL ONLY?

A

Copilot’s mach airspeed indicator
EPR transducers
Arthur Q units
Autopilot airspeed switch
Mach overspeed warning system

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75
Q

Where are the fire detection loops located in the Falcon?

A

Zone 1 L & R engine
Fuel heater
Rear compartment
Landing gear well - L & R

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76
Q

If the detection loop cools off after being activated, will it reset?

A

Yes

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77
Q

How many fire bottles are installed in the Falcon?

A

2

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78
Q

What areas are protected by fire bottles?

A

Both engines and fuel heaters
Rear Compartment

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79
Q

Is there any fire protection for the wheel wells?

A

No

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80
Q

If one bottle is insufficient to extinguish a fire in an engine, can the second bottle be used in the same engine?

A

Yes

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81
Q

Can more than one fire extinguisher be used in the rear compartment?

A

Both bottles fire simultaneously into the rear compartment

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82
Q

How can you tell if a fire bottle has been discharged?

A
  1. Plastic discharge indicator will be cracked or missing.
  2. Pressure reading on the bottle will be 0 or pin will be extended.
  3. Missing safety wire on a fire panel switch.
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83
Q

The red band on the pin at the top of a fire bottle is showing, what does this mean?

A

The pressure in the fire bottle <100 psi

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84
Q

Are there any fire suppression systems on the falcon other than the fire bottles?

A

Hand held fire extinguishers

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85
Q

What power sources are available to move the primary flight controls?

A

Hydraulic pressure from system No. 1
Hydraulic pressure from system No. 2
Human power from the control inputs

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86
Q

In the event of a total hydraulic failure will you still have control over the primary flight control surfaces?

A

Yes, they will be controlled manually through the control linkages which should allow the aircraft to be flown up to 200 KIAS without hydraulic power.

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87
Q

In the event a flight control linkage breaks, what will happen to that flight control surface?

A

A torsion bar will return the flight control to the neutral position

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88
Q

What is the function of the Artificial Feel System?

A

It simulates the feel of an aerodynamic load on the controls.

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89
Q

What is the function of the Arthur Q units?

A

They vary the power of the artificial feel system in response to changes in airspeed. This simulates the increasing aerodynamic load on the controls as airspeed increases.

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90
Q

What powers the Arthur Q units?

A

Hydraulic system #2

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91
Q

What happens to the Arthur Q units if you loose hydraulic system #2?

A

The units will fail in the low speed mode.

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92
Q

Which controls are affected by the Arthur Q units?

A

The ailerons and the elevator

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93
Q

How do the Arthur Q units sense speed?

A

Static pressure from the utility ports on both sides of the aircraft . Pitot pressure from the copilots pitot tube.

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94
Q

What is the function of the rudder gust damper?

A

It prevents rudder damage from wind gusts when the airplane is on the ground and both hydraulic systems are off.

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95
Q

How do you turn the rudder gust damper on or off?

A

It is activated whenever hydraulic system #1 looses pressure and deactivated whenever hydraulic system #1 becomes pressurized.

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96
Q

If you loose pressure to hydraulic system #1 in flight, will the gust damper come on?

A

Yes, however the hydraulic servoactuator powered by the hydraulic system #2 will overpower the gust damper.

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97
Q

How do the trim systems work on the ailerons and rudder?

A

Trim input causes an actuator to displace the input lever on the servo actuator causing the control surface to reposition.

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98
Q

How does the trim system work for pitch?

A

Trim input causes an electric motor to raise or lower the horizontal stabilizer. A second motor is used for emergency trim.

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99
Q

When using the emergency trim system, why must you pay special attention to the trim limits?

A

Because the emergency trim system is not limited by the normal (electrical) trim limit stops. The emergency trim system could damage the system from continuing to run after the trim reaches the mechanical stops.

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100
Q

How many flap position indicators are there?

A

2 pointers on the flap position indicator, one for the left side and one for the right side. A green flap indicator light also illuminates whenever the flaps are >0°

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101
Q

What protects against split flap?

A

Nothing

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102
Q

What powers the flaps?

A

Hydraulically actuated by hydraulic system #1. Electrically controlled by 28.5 VDC load-shed.

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103
Q

What does the EMERG FLAPS button do?

A

It directs transfer jack pressure to the flap actuators.

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104
Q

What methods can be used to lower the flaps?

A

Normal operation
Operation with the standby pump
Emergency operation with the transfer jack
Emergency manual operation with the crank handle

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105
Q

Using the emergency manual flap extension, how far should the flaps be extended?

A

No more than 25° in case a go around were required.

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106
Q

How do you lower the DLEs?

A

When the FLAPS handle is moved from the 0° position, the DLEs will extend.

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107
Q

How do you retract the DLEs?

A

When the FLAPS handle is moved to the 0° position, the flaps will retract and then the DLEs will retract.

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108
Q

What powers the DLEs?

A

Hydraulically actuated by hydraulic system #1. Electronically controlled by 28.5 VDC load-shed.

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109
Q

What prevents damage to the airbrakes at high speed?

A

A 3,500 psi blowdown relief valve permits the airbrakes to extend until this pressure is reached. At low speeds, they will fully extend to 70°, but at high speeds, they will only extend until reaching the pressure limit of the blowdown relief valve.

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110
Q

What powers the airbrakes?

A

Hydraulically actuated by hydraulic system #1. Electronically controlled by 28.5 VDC load-shed.

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111
Q

What is the purpose of the jet pumps in the wing fuel tanks?

A
  1. one in each wing transfers fuel from outboard to inboard.
  2. one in each wing transfers fuel to the opposite wing tank.
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112
Q

How is fuel transferred from the wing tanks to the feeder tanks?

A

Electric transfer pumps. Pressure differential from 8th stage bleed air.

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113
Q

How many jet pumps are located in the wing tanks?

A

4 - 2 in each wing

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114
Q

What powers the jet pumps?

A

fuel from the transfer pumps provides motive flow.

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115
Q

What powers the transfer pumps?

A

28.5 VDC from the AUX BUS

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116
Q

Are the transfer pumps load shed?

A

Yes

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117
Q

If a transfer pump were to fail, what indication would you have?

A

A red or amber transfer light on the fuel panel would illuminated

118
Q

How is the feeder tank fuel level selected?

A

By a switch on the fuel indication panel next to the feeder tank quanity gauges

119
Q

How is the feeder tank fuel level maintained?

A

Float valves regulate the fuel level in the feeder. Which float valves are used depends on the position of a solenoid controlled by the switch on the fuel panel in the cockpit.

120
Q

At what rate will fuel transfer from the wings to the feeder tanks?

A

Using transfer pumps - 3,500 lbs per hr. max
Using pressure differential approx - 1,000 lbs per hr.

121
Q

How can you stop the flow of fuel from the wings to the feeder tanks?

A

Transfer shutoff valves will physically close the transfer lines. This should only be used in the case of a suspected fuel leak in the transfer line. Fuel transfer can also be stopped by allowing the feeder tank to fill up, turning off and operating the engine off the other feeder by opening the crossfeed valve.

122
Q

How can you stop the flow of fuel from the feeder tanks to the engine?

A

Fuel shutoff T-handles located on either side of the fire warning panel. You can also move the throttles to idle-cutoff in non-emergency situations.

123
Q

At what rate will tuel transfer from the feeder tanks to the engines?

A

The same rate the engine is burning it. Each booster pump is rated at 3,500 lbs per hr.

124
Q

What powers the boost pumps?

A

28.5 VDC

125
Q

Are the boost pumps load-shed?

A

No. However, they are high draw items and may be shut down in the event of a dual generator failure

126
Q

Are the boost pumps necessary for engine operation?

A

No, the engines will run on suction feed.

127
Q

If a fuel boost pump were to fail what indications would you have?

A

Red FUEL P light would illuminate and fuel pressure gauge would indicate 0

128
Q

Does the falcon require the use of an anti-ice addive, such as prist?

A

No

129
Q

Can you transfer fuel from one feeder to the other?

A

No, however you can supply both engines from a single feeder tank

130
Q

Are the wing interconnect valve and the crossfeed valve load-shed?

A

Yes, both valves are load-shed and both will fail in their present position.

131
Q

How are fuel levels sensed?

A

Capacitance-type fuel probes.

132
Q

What powers the fuel quanity indicators?

A

Wing quantiuty indicators are powered by 115 VAC load-shed.
RH feeder quantity indicator is powered by 26 VAC load-shed.
LH feeder quantity indicator is powered by 26 VAC load-shed.

133
Q

How can you ensure maximum fuel capacity when refueling over the wing?

A

Ensure the aircraft is orientated with the wings level and slightly nose down. Ensure the feeder tanks are completely filled. If being filled with a single hose, have the fueler return to the first wing filled and top it off a second time.

134
Q

What systems are powered by hydraulics in the falcon?

A

Primary flight controls - Elevators, rudder, ailerons
Secondary flight controls - DLEs, flaps, speed brakes
Landing Gear
Brakes
Nosewheel steering
Yaw damper

135
Q

What sources of hydraulic power are available for the falcon?

A

1 hydraulic pump

#2 hydraulic pump
Standby hydraulic pump
Transfer jack

136
Q

What is the normal pressure produced by the engine driven hydraulic pumps?

A

2900-3000 psi

137
Q

What is the normal pressure produced by the standby hydraulic pump?

A

1600 to 2150 psi

138
Q

What pressurizes the hydraulic reservoir?

A

8th stage bleed air regulated to 21 psi

139
Q

Why is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?

A

This provides a positive supply of fluid to the hydraulic pumps at all times

140
Q

How can you determine the fluid level in the reservoir?

A

Each reservoir has a sight glass
Reservoir quantity gage on the hydraulic panel - indicates normal fluid supply but not reserve fluid level

141
Q

How do you depressurize the hydraulic tank if you have to add fluid?

A

The K valve is designed to depressurize the tank. However, if you are careful you can depressurize the tank by slowly loosening the filler cap.

142
Q

Where are the hydraulic reservoirs located?

A

The rear compartment

143
Q

Where is the reserve supply of hydraulic fluid stored?

A

Inside each reservoir is a baffle that separates part of the fluid for exclusive use by the standby pump

144
Q

Can the engine driven hydraulic pumps be isolated from the system in the event of an emergency?

A

No.

145
Q

What systems are powered by the #1 hydraulic system?

A

Aileron servos
Elevator servo
Rudder servo
Nose wheel
DLEs
Flaps
Normal landing gear and doors
Normal brakes and anti skid
Air brakes
Transfer jack - charges

146
Q

What systems are powered by the #2 hydraulic system?

A

Aileron servos
Elevator servos
Rudder servo
Yaw damper
Aileron Q unit
Elevator Q unit
Parking brake system
Transfer jack - motive pressure
Emergency landing gear and doors (doors open only and gear down only)
Emergency brakes (no anti skid)

147
Q

What systems can be powered by the transfer jack?

A

1 system - Flight control servos

#2 system - Fligth control servos
Yaw damper

148
Q

How is the standby pump controlled?

A

5 position selector switch below the hydraulic panel

149
Q

What’s is the function of the first position of the standby pump selector lever?

A

Selects the source reservoir and tests the operation of the pump

150
Q

What is the function of the second position of the standby pump selector lever?

A

Selects the source reservoir, activates the pump, and connects the output to the selected hydraulic system

151
Q

Will the standby pump run continuously?

A

The standby pump is controlled by pressure switch that turn it on at 1600 psi and off at 2150.

152
Q

Will the engine driven hydraulic pump run continuously?

A

Anytime the engine is turning, the pump will operate. The pup is a variable volume piston type, so the amount of fluid it pumps is dependent on keeping the output pressure constant

153
Q

How do you determine the hydraulic pressure of the system #1, #2, or standby?

A

The triple gage on the hydraulic panel - DC powered

154
Q

What is the function of the transfer jack?

A

Provide a limited alternate pressure source for the operation of select hydraulic system #1 components.

155
Q

How is the transfer jack powered?

A

It is powered by the #2 hydraulic system. It is reset/recharged by #1 hydraulic pressure >2,500 psi

156
Q

If the left engine is shut down, is it possible to recharge the transfer jack?

A

At airspeeds > 180 kts, the engine should windmill fast enough to recharge the transfer jack. This assumes that the engine is not seized.

157
Q

What systems can you actuate with the transfer jack and how many times?

A

Normal gear extension - 1
or
Normal gear retraction - 1
or
Normal brake application with antiskid - 1

158
Q

What systems should use the transfer jack for?

A

Normal gear retraction in the event of a missed approach
OR
Normal brake application with antiskid and airbrakes in the event you don’t have a missed approach.

159
Q

Which anti-ice systems are powered by bleed air?

A

Engine and wing leading edges

160
Q

Which anti-ice systems are electrically powered?

A

Windshield, pitot probes, and stall warning

161
Q

How many valves open when you turn on the engine anti-ice?

A

2 per engine, the engine anti-icing valve and the nacelle anti-icing valve.

162
Q

What area are protected by the nacelle anti-icing valve?

A

Nacelle leading edge
Air inlet struts and stiffeners
Lower rear part of the fan air duct
Heat exchanger air inlet located on the leading edge of the engine pylon.

163
Q

What powers the engine and nacelle anti-icing valves?

A

28.5 VDC load-shed power

164
Q

What effect on engine anti-icing does load-shedding have?

A

The engine anti-ice valve is spring loaded to the open position so the bullet nose and inlet guide vanes will be heated.
The nacelle anti-icing valve will remain in their last position so you may or may not have heat to the nacelle lips, pylon intake, lower fan duct.

165
Q

How many valves open when you turn on the airframe anti-ice?

A

2, one airframe anti-icing valve for each engine.

166
Q

What areas are protected by the airframe anti-ice?

A

Wing leading edges and top of the fan duct

167
Q

How is the horizontal stabilizer protected from ice formation?

A

It is not.

168
Q

If airframe anti-ice valve fails in the open position, how can you prevent damage when on the ground?

A

The engine corresponding to the failed valve should be shut down as soon as possible after landing.

169
Q

Where is the hot bleed air exhausted after heating the leading edges?

A

Trailing edges in the wing tips.

170
Q

What powers the airframe anti-ice valves?

A

28.5 VDC load-shed

171
Q

What affect on airframe anti-icing does load shedding have?

A

The airframe anti-ice valves will remain in their last position so you may or may not have anti-icing. Remember upon landing you should stop load shedding and turn them off or shut down as soon as possible to avoid damage to the leading edges.

172
Q

If an engine is shut down, can the other engine heat both wings?

A

Yes, at >82% N1, 1 engine should be able to heat both wings

173
Q

What conditions would prompt the usage of anti-ice?

A

Anti-ice should be used anytime the temperature <5° C and visible moisture is present, with the exception of using airframe anti-ice on the ground.

174
Q

If you encounter icing condition and forget to turn on the anti-ice, are there any extra steps you should take prior to activating the anti-ice systems?

A

If turning on after ice has formed it is recommended that the igniters be operated when turning the anti-ice system on.

175
Q

Describe the difference between the NORM and MAX positions of the windshield heat.

A

Pilot side - 28.5 VDC non-load shed.
Copilot side - 28.5 VDC load shed

176
Q

What happens if a windshield heat temperature probe overheats?

A

Temperature will be regulated based on the other sides temperature and the yellow transfer light will illuminate.

177
Q

Which windows are heated by the side windshield heat?

A

Pilot’s sliding window, copilot’s sliding or fowl weather window, and the copilot’s rear side window.

178
Q

What is the power source for the side windshield heat?

A

28.5 VDC load shed

179
Q

Can the side windshield heat be used with a generator online?

A

Only on the ground. Airborne there is automatic load-shedding through the generator control relays in case a generator is off line.

180
Q

Are both sides equipped with windshield wipers?

A

Yes

181
Q

How do you return the wipers to the parked position?

A

An unlabled, spring loaded position of the WIPERS switch past the OFF position returns the windshield wipers to the parked position.

182
Q

How is the windshield defogged?

A

Through a control lever on the pilots side console

183
Q

How do you activate the rain repellent?

A

Push buttons located near the wiper switches.

184
Q

Where is the rain repellent bottle located?

A

Rear of the cockpit on the pilots side.

185
Q

How can you tell if the rain repellent bottle needs to be replaced?

A

There is a sight gage/reservoir under the bottle

186
Q

How are the pitot tubes heated?

A

Pilot - 28.5 VDC non-load shed
Copilot - 28.5 VDC load shed

187
Q

Are the pitot tubes continuously heated?

A

No, they are controlled by 2 PITOT HEAT switches on the anti-ice panel

188
Q

Is the stall warning vane heated?

A

Yes, 28.5 VDC load shed

189
Q

How do you turn on the heat to the stall warning vane?

A

PITOT HEAT RIGHT switch

190
Q

Are the static ports heated?

A

No

191
Q

How are the landing gear held in the up position?

A

Mechanical up-locks

192
Q

How are the landing gear up locks released?

A

By hydraulic pressure on the down side and by mechanical linkage to the manual gear release

193
Q

What controls the sequencing of the landing gear and doors?

A

The landing gear selector receives input from the microswitches and controls the landing gear electro valve and the door electro valve to direct hydraulic fluid to open and close the landing gear doors and raise or lower the landing gear.

194
Q

Is the landing gear system load-shed or non-shed?

A

The L/G CONTROL is non-shed and controls the landing gear indications and lever panel.
The L/G SELECTOR is load-shed and controls the sequencing and electrically operated valves that control the gear and doors.

195
Q

If you find the gear doors open during preflight what do you want to do before closing them?

A

Check for any maintenance discrepancies, call DOM.
Check to make sure that all the door unlocks are in the unlocked position.

196
Q

How many unlocks are on the main gear doors, nose gear door, main gear, nose gear?

A

Main gear doors - 2 per side, fore and aft
Nose gear door - 1
Main gear - 1 per side
Nose gear - 1

197
Q

Where are the landing gear downlocks?

A

Nose gear - inside the telescoping drag brace
Main gear - inside the gear actuators

198
Q

Which landing gear are equipped with squat switches?

A

All

199
Q

What does the left main landing gear squat switch control?

A

Landing gear selector safety pin
Takeoff out of trim warning
Side windshield heat

200
Q

What does the right main landing gear squat switch control?

A

Stall warning - flight/ground mode
Cabin pressurization
Pressurization controller - depressurize at 500 ft/min
Air conditioning valve - closed on the ground

201
Q

What does the nose wheel squat switch control?

A

Nosewheel steering
Antiskid flight/ground mode
Landing gear selector safety pin

202
Q

What is the function of the red plunger above the landing gear selector lever?

A

It overrides the landing gear selector safety pin to allow the gear selector handle to be moved to the up position after takeoff. This is an emergency control.

203
Q

What is the normal indication that the gear is down and locked?

A

3 green and no red

204
Q

What other indications are there of the gear being down and locked?

A

Lack of the gear warning horn to sound below 82% N1 or with flaps > 28°
Normal sequencing of the landing gear doors - all red lights extinguish, this cycle should not occur until after the gear are all down and locked.

205
Q

What indication would you expect to see following an emergency gear extension?

A

3 red and 3 green

206
Q

What sources of power are available for the operation of the landing gear?

A

Hydraulic system #1 - engine driven pump
Hydraulic system # 2 - engine driven pump
Hydraulic system #1 - transfer jack
Gravity

207
Q

Other than the normal landing gear extension, what other means of landing gear extension are available?

A

Emergency landing gear system - red umbrella handle
Emergency landing gear free-fall system - 3 manual uplock release

Also acceptable - Procedure A, B, or C

208
Q

During an emergency landing gear extension (red umbrella handle / Procedure A) What controls the sequencing of the gear door and the landing gear?

A

A restrictor between the door and the gear actuators assures door actuation before the gear extends. This is the only sequencing provide by the emergency landing gear extension, there is no provision to close the doors.

209
Q

How does the position of the landing gear selector handle affect the emergency landing gear extension?

A

The landing gear selector will respond to an emergency selection regardless of the selector circuit breaker be pulled and the normal gear selector lever be placed down before pulling the emergency gear lever.

210
Q

If the emergency landing gear extension lever is not fully seated, what could occur?

A

A microswitch could open removing most power from the normal gear control and sequencing system, preventing normal operation of the landing gear.

211
Q

What are the 3 different wheel brake systems that can be selected by the brake selector T-handle?

A

Normal brakes - sometimes referred to as brakes 1
Emergency brakes - sometimes referred to as brakes 2
Parking brake

212
Q

On which brake system are antiskid available?

A

Only normal brakes

213
Q

Which wheels are equipped with brake units?

A

Each main wheel

214
Q

What hydraulic power sources are available for normal brakes?

A

1 engine driven pump

Standby hydraulic pump to system #1
Transfer jack

215
Q

What hydraulic power sources are available for the emergency brakes?

A

2 engine driven pump

216
Q

What hydraulic power sources are available for the parking brake?

A

2 engine driven pump

Parking brake accumulator

217
Q

Can the standby hydraulic pump be used to power the emergency brakes?

A

No

218
Q

Can the standby hydraulic pump be used to power the parking brake?

A

No

219
Q

When preflighting the airplane, you discover the parking brake accumulator has insufficient pressure. How can you recharge it?

A

Motor engine #2 or start engine #2

220
Q

Can the parking brake be used to stop the aircraft?

A

Yes, however it will apply full brake pressure and most likely lock up all main wheels potentially causing blowouts. It should only be used as a last resort.

221
Q

Is the anti-skid system capable of modulating pressure to individual wheels?

A

No, it can only remove brake pressure to the wheel pairs on the left or right mains

222
Q

What protection does the anti-skid system provide while in-flight?

A

When the gear handle is down, the anti-skid system removes all brake pressure to the wheels to provide touchdown protection until a wheel begins rotating > 20 mph.

223
Q

What effect would a failure of the nose wheel squat switch have on the anti-skid system?

A

Locked wheel sensing will release brake pressure anytime a wheel decreases to below 12 mph. The end result will be that you will have no brakes below 12 mph and will have to use the emergency brakes to stop the aircraft.

224
Q

How is the anti-skid system tested in flight?

A
  1. Both brake peddles are held depressed
  2. The anti-skid test button is pressed and released
  3. Both green brake lights should illuminate and then extinguish
  4. Both brake peddles are released
225
Q

How is the anti-skid system tested on the ground?

A
  1. Both brake peddles are held depressed
  2. Both green brake lights should illuminate
  3. The anti-skid test button is pressed and released
  4. Both green brake lights should extinguish and then illuminate
226
Q

What powers the anti-skid system

A

28 VDC load-shed

227
Q

What are the mechanical nose wheel steering limits?

A

50° left or right of center

228
Q

When should the mechanical ground disconnect be used?

A

For ground handling and anytime the aircraft will be left unattended for a substantial time

229
Q

What causes the nose wheel to center prior to retraction?

A

There is a nose wheel centering cam located in the nose gear oleo strut that will center the nose wheel when it is extended.

230
Q

Is the nose gear equipped with a shimmy damper?

A

Yes, it is an air-oil piston located in the same housing as the steering actuator.

231
Q

What lights are powered by the hot battery bus?

A

Cargo area light, rear compartment light, and dome lights through the AUX BUS.

232
Q

What powers the dome lights?

A

26 VDC from the battery bus through the AUX BUS.
4.5 VDC from Emergency battery

233
Q

How many light bulbs are in each dome light?

A

3, one for normal operation and 2 for emergency operation

234
Q

When will the dome lights use emergency power?

A

When the exit light switch is ARMED with no power from the main bus.
When the exit light switch is ON - the emergency battery will discharge unless the C/Ps inverter is on.

235
Q

What recharges the emergency battery?

A

115 VAC load-shed from the C/Ps inverter

236
Q

Where is the emergency battery located?

A

Under the rear baggage rack

237
Q

Will the taxi light extinguish upon gear retraction?

A

No

238
Q

What does the amber light in front of the landing light switch indicate?

A

It illuminates when the landing lights are not retracted.

239
Q

Which exterior lights are non-shed?

A

Only the anti-collision light on the vertical stabilizer

240
Q

Gear handle light comes on?

A

Both throttles <82% and the gear is not down
Flaps >28° and the gear is not down

241
Q

When does the takeoff out-of-trim warning horn sound?

A

Horizontal stabilizer trim is set at a nose high position
Throttles > 85%
Left main landing gear squat switch closed.

242
Q

What systems use bleed air?

A

Environmental, Anti-icing engine and wings, Fuel tank pressurization, Fuel heating, and hydraulic reservoir pressurization

243
Q

What is the source of bleed air?

A

6 bleed air ports on the 8th stage compressor

244
Q

Can you shut off the bleed air from the engines?

A

No, you can shut off parts of it. The bleed air switches on the pedestal only shut off bleed air to the air conditioning and normal pressurization system. The nacelle and airframe anti-ice bleed air can be shutoff by turning off the switches for the engine and airframe anti-ice valves.

245
Q

Where is the O2 cylinder located?

A

Under the floor, near the cargo door

246
Q

Where is the O2 filler valve located?

A

Under the cargo door on the exterior of the aircraft. It is covered by a small access panel.

247
Q

Is the O2 cylinder equipped with a shutoff valve?

A

Yes

248
Q

Does the cockpit O2 pressure gage indicate pressure in the supply lines or in the O2 cylinder?

A

It indicates supply line pressure, it is possible to have pressure trapped in the supply line indicating on the gage and the O2 cylinder shutoff valve closed preventing flow of O2 from the cylinder to the supply lines.

249
Q

What does the oxygen breakable disk indicate?

A

It breaks away when the O2 cylinder discharges due to excessive pressure

250
Q

Where is the drag chute located?

A

In the cone on the tail

251
Q

How can you tell if your falcon is equipped with a drag chute?

A

The tail cone will be missing the metal restraining strap and pin. The drag chute handle in the cockpit will be missing.

252
Q

Why should you wait till the nose wheel is on the ground prior to deploying the drag chute in high crosswinds (>15 kts)?

A

The drag chute will increase the tendency to weathervane into the cross wind.

253
Q

How do you release the drag chute after deployment?

A

Push the handle forward to the stowed position

254
Q

Why would you want to release the drag chute?

A

To avoid the potential of the drag chute being ingested by an engine.
To avoid damage to the drag chute from dragging it along the ground
To avoid damage to the airport from snagging items with the drag chute

255
Q

When would you want to release the drag chute?

A

When the aircraft has slowed to the point it is not in danger of over run and when the drag chute is loosing aerodynamic effectiveness.

256
Q

What engines are our falcons equipped with?

A

GE CF-700-2D2

257
Q

How much thrust does each engine produce?

A

4,500 lbs

258
Q

How many spools are in the engine?

A

1

259
Q

When should engine oil quantity be checked?

A

Within 20 minutes of engine shutdown

260
Q

How is oil quantity checked?

A

Dipstick on the right side of each engine

261
Q

How is N1 measured?

A

By a tach generator attached to the oil pump

262
Q

How is engine oil cooled?

A

By a fuel-oil cooler

263
Q

How is oil pressure indicated?

A

By triplex gauges - DC load-shed
OIL P1 & P2 lights - DC non-shed

264
Q

What engine oil does the falcon use?

A

Mobil Jet II

265
Q

What is the purpose of the variable inlet guide vanes and the engine compressor bleed valves?

A

They prevent axial compressor stalls and surges at low power settings.

266
Q

How are the variable geometry inlet guide vanes and the engine compressor bleed valves controlled?

A

The FCU directs high pressure fuel to actuators

267
Q

When will the ignitors activate?

A
  1. Start selector switch - AIR START
  2. If both start selector switches are placed in the AIR START position, both igniters will remain activated until both start selector switches are moved to another position.
  3. Start selector switch - GROUND START
  4. throttle out of cutoff, N1 < 41%
  5. Press to start was pressed.
  6. Stall warning system is activated, igniters activate AOA > 28° and deactivate 10 seconds after AOA <26°
268
Q

What is EPR?

A

Engine Pressure Ratio - ratio between engine inlet pressure and exhaust outlet pressure

269
Q

What powers the engine instrumentation?

A

EPR - 115 AC load-shed
EGT - thermal couple, no external power required
N1% - Tach generator, no external power required
FAN RPM - 28.5 VDC load-shed
FUEL FLOW - 115 AC non-shed

270
Q

What is the normal air source for pressurization?

A

8th stage bleed air from the air conditioning system

271
Q

What is the air source for emergency pressurization?

A

8th stage bleed air, this bypasses the air condition system

272
Q

Will the position of the bleed valves or air conditioning valve affect the emergency pressurization?

A

No

273
Q

How would you activate the emergency pressurization?

A

There is a manually operated emergency pressurization valve in the emergency controls.

274
Q

How is cabin altitude maintained?

A

Outflow valves vent cabin air

275
Q

How many outflow valves are on the falcon?

A

2

276
Q

Where are the outflow valves located?

A

The rear pressure bulkhead

277
Q

What powers the outflow valves?

A

They are electro-pneumatic. The automatic controller requires 115 VAC non-shed and pneumatic air generated using bleed air. Manual control is entirely pneumatic.

278
Q

What is the function of the manual pressurization controller (cherry picker)?

A

It overrides control of the outflow valves.

279
Q

Can you use manual pressurization controller (cherry picker) if the pressurization controller is in the AUTO mode?

A

Yes, the cherry picker directly changes the position of the outflow valve. However, as soon as you release the cherry picker, the automatic pressurization controller will resume control of the valve.

280
Q

What is the effect of placing the pressurization controller into the MANUAL mode?

A

Electrical power to the controller is removed. Control of pressurization is dependent on pneumatic input from the manual pressurization controller.

281
Q

What is the air source for the manual pressurization controller (cherry picker)?

A

It is a 3 way valve and receives input pressures from the cabin air pressure (higher pressure) and the outside air pressure (lower pressure).

282
Q

With the pressurization controller in the AUTO mode, and the aircraft on the ground, what position will the outflow valves be in?

A

When in ground mode, the controller will seek to maintain a 500’ per min rate of change to match the outside air pressure, this will result in the outflow valve remaining partially open. A takeoff mode closes the outflow valve when the right throttle is advanced past 80-85% N1.

283
Q

What limits the cabin from overpressurization?

A

Overpressure-releif valves open the outflow valves when the pressure differential reaches 8.5 psi.

284
Q

What limits the cabin pressure from being lower than outside?

A

The outflow valves only limit air flow out of the cabin. The valves will not prevent air from flowing back into the cabin if air pressure is higher outside.

285
Q

Why is the nose cone pressurized?

A

Required by the rotary inverters and some weather radars require it.

286
Q

Is the nose cone pressurized in all falcons?

A

Only the early models and models with rotary inverters and some models of weather radars.

287
Q

What is the function of the emergency depressurization (DUMP) switch?

A

It opens the outflow valves to allow the cabin to depressurize. It should be used if the cabin will not depressurize or last case in the event of an emergency to increase air flow to clear smoke and fumes from the aircraft.

288
Q

Does the emergency depressurization (DUMP) switch require electrical power?

A

Yes, it is powered by non-shed DC. The automatic controller is AC powered so the dump switch is powered independently of the controller. The dump switch directly powers the open solenoid on both outflow valves.

289
Q

When would you use the emergency pressurization (Source of air)?

A

When the normal source of pressurization from the air conditioning system is insufficient.

290
Q

Is the emergency pressurization air conditioned?

A

No, it is hot bleed air.

Ameristar (5 decks)

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