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MTSU AERO4250 > Systems Oral Questions > Flashcards

Systems Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum voltage required from each battery to start the APU?

A

22V

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2
Q

Why do we climb the aircraft in speed mode versus vertical speed mode?

A

Vertical speed mode will sacrifice airspeed to maintain the commanded vertical speed possibly resulting in stall situations.

Speed mode provides a layer of protection against stalling, by always climbing the aircraft at a minimum 50FPM.

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3
Q

What minimum pavement width is required for 180 degree turn?

A

75 Fleet

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4
Q

What is the FMA?

A

The Flight Mode Annunciator

It shows both armed and active flight modes. All inputs into the flight control panel should be confirmed on the FMA.

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5
Q

Explain the autopilot on the CRJ-200.

A

The CRJ-200 is equipped with a digital, two axis, and passive failing autopilot. The elevator and ailerons are controlled by servo motors. The rudder uses a dual channel yaw damper. The autopilot is engaged using the AP ENG button of the FCP.

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6
Q

How many generators are on the CRJ-200?

A

4 total

2 IDGs

1 APU generator

1 ADG

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7
Q

How many AC busses on the CRJ-200?

A

There are six AC buses.

  1. AC BUS 1
  2. AC BUS 2
  3. AC UTIL BUS 1
  4. AC UTIL BUS 2
  5. AC ESS BUS
  6. AC SERV BUS
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8
Q

How many TRUs and batteries are there?

A

five TRUs

two nicad batteries

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9
Q

How many DC busses are there?

A
  1. DC BUS 1
  2. DC BUS 2
  3. DC ESS BUS
  4. DC SERV BUS
  5. DC UTIL BUS 1
  6. DC UTIL BUS 2
  7. DC BATT BUS
  8. DC EMER BUS
  9. MAIN BATT DIR BUS
  10. APU BATT DIR BUS
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10
Q

What is 10th stage bleed air used for?

A

Pressurization

ECS

Equipment cooling

Engine starting

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11
Q

What 14th stage bleed air used for?

A

Anti-ice

Thrust reverse

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12
Q

How is cabin pressurization controlled?

A

Cabin pressurization is controlled by metering the amount of air that allowed too exit the aircraft’s two outflow valves. The two outflow valves are electronically controlled and pneumatically operated.

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13
Q

What is the max cabin pressure differential?

A

8.4 PSI

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14
Q

How many pressurization modes are there and what are they?

A

2

Automatic and

Manual

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15
Q

Explain the EMER DEPR pushbutton.

A

Pressing the EMER DEPR pushbutton causes the outflow valve to open and allows the cabin to climb to a max altitude of 14,250 ft. +/- 750 ft.

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16
Q

What parts of the aircraft are given fire and overheat protection?

A

engines

jet pipe

pylons

APU

main landing gear

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17
Q

Where are smoke detectors located?

A

Cargo bay

Lavatory

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18
Q

How many bottles are available for fire extinguishing and what chemical is used?

A

2 bottles

Halon

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19
Q

How many bottles are available for fire extinguishing for the APU and what chemical is used?

A

1 bottle

Halon

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20
Q

Explain how the APU fire extinguishing system works on the ground versus airborne.

A

The Halon bottle will automatically discharge on the ground if a fire is detected. Airborne, the pilots must discharge bottle as directed by the QRH.

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21
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for the cargo bay and what chemical is used?

A

2 bottles

Halon

22
Q

Explain the difference between the two fire extinguishing bottles for the cargo bay and why there is a difference.

A

When discharged, both fire extinguishers fire at the same time, but release at different rates. The longer bottle provides protection for approximately forty-five minutes. Because of this, all flights that carry cargo in the aft bin must be within forty-five minutes on a usable airport.

23
Q

Explain how the lavatory fire extinguisher functions.

A

Should it detect smoke, a SMOKE TOILET caution message is displayed on ED1 and the waste bin fire extinguisher discharges automatically.

24
Q

Explain the Main Landing Gear overheat protection system.

A

The main landing gear area uses a single loop overheat detection system located in the aircraft’s wheel bins. If an overheat condition is detected, the flight crew will receive a MLG BAY OVHT EICAS message and a “GEAR BAY OVERHEAT” aural message.

25
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

elevator

rudder

ailerons

spoilerons

26
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

flaps

ground and flight spoilers

trim system

flutter dampers

27
Q

How many hydraulic systems power the:

Ailerons

Elevators

Rudder

A

Ailerons- 2

Elevators - 3

Rudder - 3

28
Q

How are the pilots’ flight control columns interconnected?

A

Via a torque tube

29
Q

Describe the flap system.

A

Powered electrically

0, 8, 20, 30, 45

2 “gates” exist at Flaps 8 and Flaps 45

The flaps 8 “gate” prevents retraction of the flaps to 0 during a go-around.

The flaps 45 “gate” prevents the overspending of the flaps when extending them from flaps 30 to Flaps 45.

30
Q

Describe the Stall Protection system

A

The stall protection system gives aural, visual, and tactile indications of an approaching stall. If corrective action is not taken, the stick pusher will prevent a stall by physically pressing the yoke forward. The stick pusher can be stopped by pressing and holding the AP/SP DISC button or by turning the stall protection system off.

31
Q

How many fuel tanks are there and where are they located?

A

3

1 in each wing

1 center tank

32
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Fuel is heated using a fuel-oil heat exchanger.

33
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

3

34
Q

What is the nominal pressure of the hydraulic systems?

A

3000 PSI

35
Q

How are the hydraulic systems cooled?

A

The fluid in system 1 and 2 are cooled using a ram air/fluid heat exchanger.

The fluid is system 3 does not need cooling due to its location.

36
Q

What types of pumps does each hydraulic system use?

A

Systems 1 and 2 each have one engine driven and one electric AC motor pump.

System 3 uses two electric AC motor pumps.

37
Q

Which hydraulic pumps can be controlled and how?

A

The four electric AC motor pumps are controlled using the hydraulic panel on the overhead panel.

38
Q

How does the wing anti-ice system work?

A

Wing anti-ice is provided by routing hot 14th stage bleed air through anti-ice ducting to the leading edges. The air is then leaked through piccolo tubes onto the inner surface of the wings.

39
Q

Describe the difference between the NORM and STBY positions for the wing anti-ice switch.

A

The NORM position causes the wing anti-ice regulating valves to modulate to maintain a desired temperature.

The STBY position causes the valves to fully open and close to maintain a lower wing leading edge temperature.

40
Q

Where is the cowl anti-ice bleed air vented?

A

Exhaust air exits through an exhaust louver located on the underneath of each engine.

41
Q

Explain the function of the cowl pressure relief valve.

A

It’s installed on each engine to alleviate pressure should an over pressure condition occur.

42
Q

Name probes that are electrically heated.

A
  1. Two Pitot Static Probes
  2. One Standby Pitot Tube
  3. Two alternate Static Ports
  4. Two Angle of Attack Vanes
  5. One Total Air Temperature (TAT) Sensor
43
Q

Explain how the ice detection system works.

A

The ice detectors are on either side of the fuselage under the side windows. They vibrate at a predetermined frequency. As ice accumulates, the vibration is dampened. Once the vibration slows enough, it triggers the ICE EICAS message.

The ice detectors are heated for 5 seconds during a continuous 60 second cycle.

44
Q

What is the difference between ICE caution and ICE advisory messages?

A

ICE caution illuminates if the ice detectors detect ice and the wing anti-ice system if off or is on but the wing temperature is below that which will anti-ice the wings.

ICE advisory illuminates when the wing anti-ice system is on or the wing is of sufficient temperature to anti-ice the wing.

45
Q

Which direction does the nose gear retract?

A

Forward into the slipstream.

46
Q

Which is more effective for taxiing the aircraft on the ground, the tiller or rudder inputs?

A

The tiller. It provides up to 70 degrees either side of center for better maneuverability. The rudder pedals provide only 7 degrees of travel.

47
Q

Describe the 19th stage bleed air system.

A

The 10th stage system uses either engine or APU air to perform several purposes. 10th stage air can be used for engine starting, air conditioning, and pressurization. The 10th stage manifold is located in the aft equipment bay and is divided into two halves. The left and right sides are separated by an isolation valve that can be opened or closed. Two 10th stage shutoff valves (SOV) and an APU load control valve are also installed.

48
Q

Describe the 14th stage bleed air system.

A

14th stage bleed air can only be received off the engines. This air is used for anti-icing and thrust reverser activation. The 14th stage system has two bleed air SOV’s and an isolation valve.

49
Q

What type of engines are on the CRJ-200?

A

two General Electric CF34-3A1 or CF34-3B1 high by-pass engines

50
Q

What is the takeoff rated thrust of the engines.

A

8729lbs

51
Q

Describe the engines.

A

consists of a dual assembly which includes a single stage N1 fan connected to a four stage low pressure turbine and a fourteen stage N2 section connected to a two stage high pressure turbine.

MTSU AERO4250 (3 decks)

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