Systems Review Flashcards
1
Q
What is the minimum battery voltage required for normal operations?
A
22.5V
2
Q
After turning BATT 1 & 2 to ON and AUTO in the Safety and Power Up Checklist, you notice that display unit 1, 2 and 3 are powered. What should you do?
A
Call Maintenance
3
Q
You arrive to the airplane for an early morning departure. After establishing AC power, you see that the ATIS is reporting an OAT of -20 degrees Celsius. You notice that your PFDs are displaying airspeed information and you have an AFCS FAULT message on EICAS. Should you immediately call maintenance?
A
No, follow the ADSP procedure in the SOPM for frozen contamination removal.
4
Q
What visual indications signify an acceptable fire system test?
A
6 red overhead lights (2 engine fire handles, Fwd and Aft Cargo Smoke
Buttons, APU Fire Button, APU Emergency Stop)
5 red EICAS messages (“ENG 1/2 FIRE”,” APU FIRE”, “CRG FWD/AFT
SMOKE”).
2 glareshield warning lights, and 2 “FIRE” icons on the ITT gauges
2 audible warnings (Master Warning Triple Chime, Fire Bell)
5
Q
While performing the external inspection, the APU suddenly shuts down and you notice smoke coming out of the tail cone. It takes you 60 seconds to get from the rear of the aircraft, up the jet bridge, and back to the flight deck. Once in the flight deck, what do you expect to see?
A
The APU Fire Extinguishing button illuminated red.
6
Q
You are sitting at the gate with a GPU powering the aircraft. The GPU suddenly comes unplugged, what should you do?
A
Power down the aircraft using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist then power back up using the Safety and Power Up Checklist.
7
Q
On the Safety and Power Up Checklist, what does the SOPM say to check prior to initiating the fire system test?
A
No fire protection fail messages are displayed on the EICAS
8
Q
What will you do if the electrical portion of the flight control PBIT is interrupted?
A
You may continue as long as “FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED” message is not displayed
9
Q
What will interrupt the hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT
A
Flight Control Movement
10
Q
On a winter morning in Calgary, you arrive in a cold soaked airplane. The hydraulic resrvior temp is -19C. What are your options to get home?
A
Accomplish a Hydraulic System Warm-Up
11
Q
On the Status Page, if the crew oxygen indicator is _____, sufficient oxygen is available for up to 3 flight deck members. If the crew oxygen indicator is ______, sufficient oxygen is available for ONLY 2 flight deck members.
A
Green, Cyan
12
Q
Where does a passenger with an infant in arms need to be seated?
A
Either Side
13
Q
The CLR indicates there is a live animal in the cargo. Where does it have to go?
A
The animal must be placed in the forward cargo compartment.
14
Q
What are the Cargo Limitations?
A
FWD 3,306 lbs and AFT 2535 lbs
15
Q
Can a DC GPU be used as a substitute for both batteries to start the APU?
A
NO
16
Q
The Engine Abnormal Engine Start woudl be found in what section of the QRH?
A
Non-Annunciated
17
Q
What would cause a red light for the tug driver prior to pushback?
A
The external steering disengage switch in the engaged position
18
Q
While the First Officer is performing a cross-bleed start, what is the minimum duct pressure required?
A
40PSI
19
Q
During cold weather operations if no oil pressure indication is displayed by the time idle RPM is achieved, what is the appropriate response?
A
Perform and immediate shutdown
20
Q
According to the QRH, what consideration must be made in regards to a singe engine taxi with Engine #2?
A
Trun HYD ELEC PUMP 1 ON
21
Q
During an engine start with a tailwind there is no positive N1 increase before starter cutout. What is the appropriate action?
A
Perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item
22
Q
If you decide to dry motor an engine after abnormal start, how long must you wait between the dry motor and the second start attempt?
A
5 min
23
Q
After starting Engine #1 with the APU still running what source is powering the electrical system?
A
Both IDG 1 and the APU generator
24
Q
What is the AC electrical priority?
A
Onside > Inside > Outside > Cross Side
25
After engine start you turn the APU knob to OFF only to realize that you need it for takeoff performance. Do you need to wait for the 1 min cool down period to restart the APU.
NO
26
If there is no ITT indication within _____ after engine start, the start should be manually aborted.
30 sec
27
After starting engine #1, the Captain calls "Flaps 2, APU off, Flight Control Check". What EICAS message should you be aware of before completing the After Start Checklist flow?
FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG
28
If performing the flight controls check with one engine operating, checking one surface at a time will avoid what message?
FLT CONTROL NO DISPATCH
29
A "FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG" message will appear after starting engine #1 and after the parking brake is released. What does it indicate?
The hydraulic portion of the flight control PBIT is in progress
30
If deicing is anticipated, what do you do after start?
The after start checklist will be deferred until after deicing is complete.
31
The APU shutdown can only be performed after the confirmation of power transfer. What are two ways to confirm this transfer.
1) View the Electrical Synoptic Page
| 2) Wait 30 sec after N2 stabilizes
32
Which engine is recommended to be started for a single engine taxi and why?
Engine #1. Hydraulic ACMP 2 will automatically come on with the left engine running, parking brake off, and the knob in AUTO
33
When should you not single engine taxi?
1) Ramp/Taxiway Surface Contamination
2) Taxi time to/from a runway is <5 min
3) Airport-specific regulations prohibit single engine taxi
34
During a cross-bleed engine start where do you verify duct pressrue?
Status Page
35
How long do you have to start the engine after moving the START/STOP selector from STOP to RUN?
30sec or you have to reset the system (STOP>RUN>START)
36
What is an operational difference with carbon brakes?
Carbon brakes wear less than steel brakes when operated at high temperatures and fewer applications
37
Which hydraulic system powers the nosewheel steering?
2
38
What system configurations does the "TAKEOFF OK" aural not verify?
Parking Brake, Flaps, Spoilers, Pitch Trim
39
If the Ice Protection switch is in AUTO and the system is selected OFF in the MCDU, when is the earliest the ice protection system will come on?
1,700ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff, whichever occurs first
40
After runway heading verification while in position, the Captain arms the auto throttles and both pilots should silently verify the correct modes are displayed in the FMA. What should be displayed?
White TO (bottom left A/T field), Green ROLL (upper lateral filed) and Green TO (upper vertical field)
41
During the Before Takeoff Checklist below the line, the FO notices the brake temps are amber. Can you depart?
No, we cannot depart with amber brake temp indications.
42
With the thrust levers at TOGA when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?
1) Difference between both engine N1 values are greater than 15%
2) One engine failure during takeoff or go-around
3) Windshear Detection
43
What is the job of the PTU?
The PTU assists landing gear retraction and extension, should the right engine or right EDP fail.
44
On takeoff, when do the auto-throttles engage?
When thrust levers are beyond 50 degrees TLA
45
On takeoff you encounter windshear and the thrust raging has changed to TOx-RSV. Is the PF required to move the thrust levers to the MAX position?
YES to get GA RSV
46
During takeoff, you exprience an engine failure at V1. You accomplish the actions and callouts per the SOPM. At acceleration altitude (1000ft AFE) and reaching VFS you call "Continuous, Bank Off". How do you set singe engine thrust to continuous?
Press the TRS button on the MCDU, select CON.
47
LNAV may be armed on the ground prior to takeoff?
TRUE
48
After takeoff you are unable to move the gear handle? When should you use the "DN LOCK REL" button?
When needed to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance
49
In response to the PF saying "Check Thrust" what should the PM verify prior to saying "Thrust Checked"?
1) N1 has reached N1 target
2) ATTCS is Green
3) Engine parameter are normal
50
While hand flying a departure, you feel an unusual amount of nose up pressure and suspect runaway trim. What should you do?
AP/Disc Button - PRESS AND HOLD
| Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout Button - PUSH IN
51
After takeoff you observe "AI WING VLV OPEN" status message. What does this likely mean?
This is a normal test after every takeoff 10 min or 10,000ft
52
Someone is attempting to gain access to the cockpit using the EMERG ENTRY pushbutton on the door control panel in the cabin. How much time do you have to press the INHIB button before the door unlocks? How long would it lock out if pushed?
30sec
| 500 sec
53
In the event of an engine fire or other sever malfunction, the only way to shut off the engine shutoff valve is using the
Engine fire extinguishing handels
54
During the "Climb Sequence" what is the flap retraction schedule for a flaps 2 takeoff?
Retract flaps using the F-Bug
55
What is the most likely meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?
Addressing this item first will likely clear other related messages
56
What is the Reversion Logic for the Captain? FO?
CP - 1 / 3 / 2
| FO - 2 / 3 / 1
57
Is it possible to have a "Fuel 1(2) Low Level" EICAS warning message with more than 660 lbs in the tank?
YES collector tank be partially empty
58
If you change your cruise altitude what do you need to do?
Enter new cruise altitude in the MCDU for the pressurization to work properly
59
If you have a dual ice detector failure, you will lose anti-ice protection
False - Manual Activation Still Works
60
What is the active autothrottle mode in cruise?
SPDe
61
While cruising at FL410 you get a master caution light and "PACK 1 FAIL" EICAS message. The associated QRH procedure was unsuccessful in restoring the pack. What is the maximum altitude you may cruise at?
FL310
62
Under what conditions will the FADEC shut down the APU in flight?
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
Overspeed
63
In the manual pressurization mode which statement is true when you push the DUMP button?
Recirculation Fans OFF
| PACKS OFF
64
In an electrical emergency with the RAT deployed, which electric fuel pumps are operational?
1) Engine Driven Pumps
2) AC Pump 2
3) DC Pump
65
In a dual engine failure situation in the QRH will direct you to select the XFEED to LOW 1. Why?
To ensure that AC Pump 2 is on the fuel can be supplied to either engine.
66
What is the Stabilizer Trim Priority logic?
Backup, Captain, FO, FCM
67
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy and how long will they provide oxygen?
Cabin Altitude between 14,000 and 14,750 ft
| 12 min
68
If a fuel imbalance develops, how should you correct the abnormality?
Cross-feed fuel by selecting the low side with the XFEED knob
69
If you believe you have a non-annunciated cargo fire in flight how many time will you need to push the button for both bottles? Ground?
2 Flight
| 3 Ground
70
What is the max APU start altitude?
FL300
71
With APU off, what happens if both IDGs fail?
1) The batteries power the DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS visa the inverter druing the 8 second RAT deployment
2) RAT auto deploys and after 8 seconds supplies power to the AC ESS BUS
3) Once the RAT deploys, DC ESS BUSES are powered through the ESS TRU
72
What is the max turbulence penetration speed?
270/.76 above 10,000ft
| 250 below 10,000ft
73
What does DES NOW do on the MCDU
1000FPM down until intercepting the desired path
74
What does the green dot on the PFD airspeed tape represent
Indicates the drift down speed when flaps are up, and the ideal flap extension speed for the current aircraft weight
75
In an electrical emergency, how long are the batteries capable of supplying essential systems to the airplane?
10 min
76
What consideration should be given during an approach with the EICAS message "STALL PROT ICE SPEED" displayed?
Reference Green Dot, It automatically adjusts for icing conditions
77
How do you calculate Vap
Ref + 1/2 wind + gust factor
78
How do you get to the backup radio.
MCDU 2, MENU button, LSK 4L
79
Which vertical modes use SPD E
FLCH and OVSPD
80
What needs to be selected to automatically transition from FMS to ILS with preview needles selected?
APP
81
What not considered stabilized approach?
Non-transient deviations below 500ft
82
VOR approaches using vertical guidance require
Add 50ft to the MDA
83
FMS speeds during single-engine configuration are ________.
Prohibited
84
What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction?
2
85
The proper flap setting for a single-engine approach and landing is:
Flaps 5
86
Minimum Fuel and Emergency Fuel?
2,250lbs and 1,500lbs
87
Flaps 4 is only used for what?
Takeoff
88
According to SOPM, if performance considerations dictate, you may conduct a CAT II approach with flaps selected full.
FALSE
89
What is the Max Landing Weight?
74,957 lbs
90
When does GA Thrust mode become active?
When the landing gear is extended
91
How many ways are there to effectively lower the gear?
3
92
How do you achieve maximum performance braking?
Auto brakes OFF
Apply Maximum Brake Pedals
Use Maximum Reverse Thrust
93
The After Landing Sequence is:
A silent flow performed by the FO
94
How do you turn on engine anti-ice while operating on contaminated taxiways and ramps?
Manually Setting the Ice Protection Mode Selector to ON
95
When can you shut down engine #2? What might happen?
After 2 minuite cool-down period
| Nose wheel Steering could be temporarily unavailable
96
How long do you need to wait between APU start attempts?
1st and 2nd 60 sec
| 3rd 5 min
97
Setting the Emerg/Parking brake requires stepping on the brake pedals to pressurize the system
FALSE
98
How long should you wait after connecting GPU before shutting down engine #1
10sec
99
What do you have to do if the GPU button was left pushed in?
Cycle the button out and in once power is established
100
Post flight external inspection may be waived by the inbound crew under what circumstances?
The outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew leaves
101
Can you fight a fire in the engine after the aircraft is powered down
YES on extinguishing is on the hot battery bus but not detection
102
What does a successful test look like on the CVR/FDR?
No EICAS Messages
103
What is the AC power priority
Onside/Inside/Outside/Cross Side
104
What triggers the EPBIT to run
Establishing AC POWER
105
We are not required to let the EPBIT to run when
Successful test within the previous 50 hours no EICAS message
106
Temperature Limitations on the EPBIT
NO
107
What do we do if we have ADS/ACS EICAS messages
Use the ADS Heater
108
What is the EPBIT Testing
Electrical Components of the FBW systems such as the FCMs, ACEs
109
Can we start the APU with just the DC ground cart
NO you must also have Battery 1
110
When we turn the battery’s on what screens come on
DCU 2 and 3
| IESS
111
What else is being powered when we turn the Battery ON
IESS, Clock, FO MCDU, CP CCD, Both Comms - KNOW FOR ORAL
112
When are the annunciatiors tested
captains originating flow
113
What EICAS messages are we looking for prior to pressing the Fire Test Button
NO fire protection fail messages
114
What happens when we pull the fire handle
Fuel SOV, Hyd SOV, Bleed SOV, X Bleed Close, Arm Bottles
115
Non Annunciated Cargo Fire on the Ground
2 for high rate and 1 additional for low rate
116
How are the emergency lights powered
Dedicated battery pack (10 min), Charged with any AC power source
117
What will the APU auto shutdown on the ground
```
o Underspeed
o FADEC Critical Fault
o Overspeed
o Sensor Fail
o High Oil Temp
o EGT Overtemp
o Low Oil Press
o Fire
```
118
If the APU caught fire in the air what would happen?
APU Keeps Running
| APU Fire Warning
119
After landing when should we start the APU?
Only when needed approaching the gate with no ac power or environmental reasons
120
What are we looking for after we shut the APU off before we shut the Batteries off
APU OFF
121
What light do we turn on getting AC power established
Nav
122
What light indicates that engine start is eminent
Beacon
123
When does the strobe come on
Before Takeoff
124
What triggers the HPBIT
Establishing PSI on all three hydraulic systems and previously below 250psi
125
What temperature constraints for the HPBIT
All reservoirs must be above 10C for the HPBIT to run unless it is expired then it will always run
126
When does ACHP #3B turn on?
Only when ACMP #3A fails IN FLIGHT
127
3) What happened if I press the dump button in flight
Recirc Fans Off, PACS Off, ^2000FPM to 12,400ft in AUTO / NOTHING IN MANUAL
128
With the Press in AUTO what must we do to ensure normal pressurization
Set the departure cruise altitude and destination altitude in the MCDU & Airport not in the database you have to manually set LFE Elevation
129
When does the Wing Anti Ice Test Perform
10,000’ for 10min after departure
130
IF we get a Stall Protection Ice Speed - EICAS message what must we do for the landing speeds
QRH ICE speeds
131
What additional lights come on automatically when the masks deploy
fasten seatblets and no smokeing
132
What is the minimum O2 pressure for dispatch
Green 3 Cyan 2
133
What is the oxygen setting during preflight
100%
134
How do we reconnect the nose wheel steering
Press the Tiller
135
Do the IRSs auto revert
No 25.5
| Yes 27.1
136
When might we turn VANV off?
Clearance to climb unrestricted
| Deselect VNAV and press FLCH
137
When might we turn FMS speed off?
Slowing for an approach
| ATC assigned speed
138
What speed will the airplane pitch for on TO
```
Pitch Angle (V2 + 10 AEO)
Some speed between V2 and V2+10 OEI
```
139
If there is not F Bug for retraction
Use Green Dot +10
140
Min holding speed
Green Dot
141
What speed for drift down
Green Dot
142
Max Taxi Speed
30 kts dry uncontaminated
143
VNAV for descent what three things do we need
V VNAV
T TOD
A Altitude Set
144
Descend Now becomes active at
50nm from TOD
145
Descend Now past TOD
1.5 deg more than desired path to intercept
146
Refueling on a single engine turn
ONLY CREW Members Onboard
147
Max temp for brakes on T/O
Green
148
What fuel pumps are on when the APU starts from the battery
DC Pump
149
AC Power Avaliable what pump for APU start
AC Pump 2
150
What are looking for during the flight control test
freedom of movement, no binding, no white dashed boxes
151
Why are some actuators standby and others on
Only one in use and swap to allow for constant ware
152
Fuel Trend Monitor
TOC Check and Every Hour
153
Maximum Fuel Imbalance
794lbs
154
When do we press the ADS probes heater
FFOD & -18C
0C & Visible Moisture
Erroneous IAS
155
Setting up the TO Data Set when do we select Anti Ice
OFF > 10C
Engine 10C to 5 C
ALL < 5c
156
When must we not use Flex
Windshear
Contaminated Runways
Airport Specific Reasons
157
Normal Climb
250 below 10,000
| 270 to .74 above 10,000
158
Normal Cruise
Econ
159
Normal Descent
280 to .74 above 10,000
| 250 below 10,000
160
No Speed Brake Deployment
Flaps 2
160
TLA
161
When will the EICAS declutter
30 sec after flap retraction (Gear Up, Flaps Up, APU OFF)
162
Do we have anti ice protection vert and horizontal stab
No
163
Max Windshield Wiper Speed
250
164
How long does it take the fadec to shut down the apu
10Sec
165
Shooting an ILS approach min autopilot altitude
50ft
166
Shooting an Non Precision approach min autopilot altitude
MDA
167
Are we aloud to use TCS to respond to a break away maneuver on a PRM
YES, but no speed protection
168
What defines a stabilized approach
within 5 deg of runway centerline and no more than 1000 fpm sink rate
169
What limitations associated with a Cat 2 approach
tailwind 10 knots and crosswind less than 12 knots - Flap 5 special checklist
170
Can the IRS align on the ground and in-flight
YES
171
What does the FMS use to determine aircraft position
GPS, IRS, VOR DME
172
Are back course approaches approved with the IESS
NO
173
What is the primary source of navigation
FMS
174
What is the name of the APU
Sunstrand
175
What is the purpose of the AUTO function on the Battery 2 switch
System logic will automatically switch the battery from DC ESS 2 bus, to the APU start bus during an APU start
176
Windshield Heat requires what to operate normally
2 AC electrical sources
177
Pitch Higher Level Functions
AOA Limiting
Airspeed Scheduling
Auto Thrust Compensation
Configuration Change
178
Roll Higher Level Functions
Airspeed Scheduling
Stroke Limiting
Turn Coordination
Speed Brake Deployment
179
Yaw Higher Level Functions
Yaw Damper
| Turn Coordinator
180
When does ACHP #1 turn on automatically
Flaps > 0 & TL Takeoff Thrust or 50kts / Flaps > 1
181
When does ACHP #2 turn on automatically
Engine 1 running, Break Released, unless parking brake set for 6 minutes
182
The PTU will be automatically started when what conditions are met
1) Flaps not set to zero or gear not up and locked
2) EDP1 not failed
3) Hydraulic Reservoir 2 quantity above 12%
183
Engine Start Malfunctions
* No oil pressure within 10 seconds of N2
* N1 not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2)
* No ITT within 30 sec
* ITT exceeds 815C
* Oil Pressure Stabilizes below limits
* N1 or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
184
Engine
CF34-8E5
185
How long does anti ice stay on after ice is no longer detected
2 minutes
186
Single AC electrical source in-flight what part of the windshield heat works properly
Left windshield unless it fails then the right becomes available
187
Time to align the IRS
Up to 17min
188
Maximum Admissible Altitude (Tailstrike)
11.9deg
189
Ground Spoiler Deployment
Simultaneously:
- WOW
- Wheel Speed>45kts or IAS>60 kts
- TLA < 26deg
190
Ground Spoiler Retract
Wheel speed < 45kts > 5 sec
or
TLA > 35 deg
191
The E-175 has what types of circuit breakers?
Thermal and Electric
192
PACKs are automatically turned off during engine start (if the button is in the AUTO position)
True
193
Can the APU can supply bleed air for engine and wing anti-ice?
NO
194
Max Altitude that APU can be use for engine start
21,000ft
195
Max Altitude that APU can be used for bleed air
15,000ft
196
The primary hydraulic pumps for system 1 and 2 are the
EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps)
197
Autobrakes release when
When the brake pedals are pressed (more than 20%)
198
Once steering engaged, the aircraft can be steered
With the rudder pedals or the handwheel steering (tiller) but not both at the same time
199
The ______ provides higher level functions to the flight controls.
FCM (Flight Control Module)
200
The primary pump used to transport fuel from the tank to the engine is the
Main Ejector Pump
201
2. To perform a crossfeed, set the crossfeed switch to
the low side
202
When the crossfeed selector is set to LOW 1
The AC Fuel Pump on the high side (2) turns on, and both engines are supplied fuel from the high tank (2)
203
Green dot (on the airspeed indicator) shows
- driftdown speed
- ideal flap extension speed
- at least 1.3g over shaker speed (40 degree bank)
204
When must a fire detection system test be performed?
The crew’s first flight of the day in a particular airplane
