Systems Review Flashcards
(170 cards)
1
Q
15 miles out, 3000’ AFE. As you configure for landing when would you expect hydraulic ACMPs 1 and 2 to turn on?
A
When flaps are selected to any position greater than 0.
2
Q
The crew elects to single engine taxi on engine 2. With flaps extended, parking brake released, and no other action taken…what hydraulic pump(s) are operating?
A
3A and EDP #2
3
Q
The backup hydraulic pumps for systems 1 and 2 are the:
A
ACMPs 1 and 2
4
Q
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
A
PTU assists gear extension/retraction should the right engine or right EDP fail.
5
Q
H-PBIT runs automatically when all 3 hyd systems are pressurized and…?
A
Hyd reservoir temp at or above 10C or timer is at 0 hours regardless of temperature.
6
Q
On post flight you notice fluid leaking from nose wheel gear assembly. Which system would you expect to be the source of the leak?
A
System 2
7
Q
If hydraulic pump 3A fails during taxi to runway, will hydraulic pump 3B automatically turn on?
A
No - you’re on the ground.
8
Q
In system 3, ______ is the primary hydraulic pump.
A
3A is primary for System 3.
9
Q
To check hyd reservoir temp, pressure, and qty, go to the ______ ?
A
Hydraulic Synoptic page.
10
Q
In the event of a total loss of hyd systems 1 and 2, the only way to stop the airplane is reverse thrust. (T/F)
A
False - have accumulator. 6 pumps!
11
Q
The PBD provides O2 by:
A
pulling mask apart, which activates O2 cylinders, providing 15 minutes of O2.
12
Q
When cleaning oxygen mask, it is acceptable to use alcohol wipes on the lens and rubber parts of the mask? (T/F)
A
False.
13
Q
Halon fire extinguishers can be used for…
A
A, B, and C type fires.
14
Q
In the case of an emergency evac, the PIC must make every effort to preserve aircraft documents and maintenance records. (T/F)
A
True.
15
Q
In case of partial slide deployment:
A
stop immediately and notify maintenance!
16
Q
Should the cockpit door become inaccessible, how can the flight crew evacuate the aircraft?
A
Out the Direct View window using escape rope.
17
Q
During an Emergency Descent, the crew oxygen mask provides?
A
All above… sufficient oxygen for all crew members, 98 min at normal at 10,000’ and 22 minutes at 100%.
18
Q
Water extinguishers can be used for?
A
Class A fires.
19
Q
According to SOPM, how can you identify the flashlight is properly charged?
A
Flashing red LED.
20
Q
If the humidty indicator on the PBE is showing bluw is this OK?
A
Yes Blue is normal. (pink = no).
21
Q
During Origination flow with the APU running, the pilot presses and holds the Fire Extinguisher TEST button for more than 10 seconds - will the APU turn off?
A
Yes. You’re basically faking out the APU and telling it that it has a fire.
22
Q
At FL350 you experience an IDG failure, after completing the appropriate QRH, you elect to start the APU. What altitude must you descend to in order to start the APU?
A
30,000’
23
Q
Will the APU automatically shutdown for an inflight fire?
A
No. Only for UFO in flight - underspeed, FADEC fault, overspeed. For ground: SHELF - sensor fail, high oil temp, low oil pressure, or fire.
24
Q
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be operated?
A
33,000’
25
While starting the APU, the switch is rotated to "ON". Prior to rotating the APU switch to "START" what should be verified?
All...EICAS energized for 30 seconds, no APU fail messages on EICAS, and APU indication changes from OFF to APUY control parameters.
26
When powering down the APU using the leaving airplane checklist, what indication are you looking for prior to switching BATT 1 and BATT 2 to OFF?
Wait until APU indicates OFF.
27
How long must you wait between the 1st and 2nd APU start attempts?
60 seconds.
28
The APU provides...
Electrical power and bleed air.
29
If BATT 1 is deferred, you can start the APU provided that a DC GPU is available? (T/F)
False. Need BATT 1 for APU FADEC.
30
Once the engine is started, you inadvertently turn the APU off before realizing that APU must be on for takeoff performance. Select the most appropriate option:
Within the 60 second cool down period you can reselect ON and the APU will not shutdown. You gotta catch that window!
31
ATC clears you to descend via the RIIVR TWO arrival into LAX. In order for VNAV to utilize PTH mode, you must have at least.......
All...must have a TOD in vertical profile, VNAV must be active, the lowest cleared altitude must be set in the altitude pre-select.
32
In order to fly CAT II, you must have two separate air data systems. T/F
True.
33
If the FO's ADS fails, what is the reversionary logic?
Auto reversion to system 3.
34
The pilot should reference the FD during a stall and verify that it is below the horizon. T/F
False.
35
What does the FPA show?
Actual path of airplane relative to the horizon.
36
The PF should reference the FD for windshear escape guidance? T/F
True.
37
At FL330 one engine flames out and FADEC is unable to relight the engine. What would be the most appropriate speed for drift-down?
Green dot.
38
The bank limiting is unavailable in which FMA lateral mode?
LNAV regardless of altitude.
39
If the F-BUG disappears before flat/slap retraction, what information can the pilot use to retract the remaining slat/flaps?
Green dot + 10 kts.
40
What does green dot show?
All... 1.3g over shaker at 40deg of bank, ideal flap extension speed, drift down speed.
41
Advisory messages are identified by what color?
Cyan.
42
The GND PROX TERR INHIB button will inhibit the predictive EGPWS functions. This button should be pressed to manually inhibit the EGPWS when landing at an airport that is not in the database? T/F
True.
43
What is the meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?
Addressing this item first will likely clear other messages --- it's a root message.
44
What items does the TO CONFIG button check to ensure the aircraft is properly configured for takeoff?
Flaps mismatches MCDU, trim setting not in green, parking brake not released, spoilers deployed.
45
The aircraft is equipped with windshear detection and guidance. T/F
True.
46
EGPWS provides visual and aural warnings to help pilots avoid....?
CFIT.
47
The warning system messages are displayed on....?
EICAS.
48
Which of the following conditions prior to takeoff will generate a "NO TAKEOFF, ____" voice aural?
Flap position not in agreement with MCDU selection, pitch trim out of green.
(other two logic qualifies: parking brake, spoilers).
49
If too many EICAS messages are displayed, the pilot can scroll the warning messages out of the way to see the rest? T/F
False - warnings stay at top.
50
Navigation should not be predicated with the use of the TAWS/EGPWS? T/F
True - don't use it for nav.
51
During walk around, the APU unexpectedly shuts down and you notice tail cone smoke. You run into the cockpit - what will you see?
APU fire extinguisher pushbutton illuminated.
52
Sitting in an unpowered airplane, a ramp agent runs up and says the right engine is on fire. Without applying power to the airplane, can you discharge the bottles and fight the fire?
Yes - fire extinguishing and fuel panel will work with airplane powered down.
53
While in flight you suspect a non-annunciated AFT cargo fire. While running the appropriate checklist you are directed to push the AFT CARGO EXT button on the fire panel. What happens when you first push this button?
Bottle doesn't blow but you'll arm the high rate squib.
| no circulation stuff for AFT cargo
54
When the fire extinguisher handle is pulled, what valves close?
Bleed, Fuel, Hydraulic SOVs all close.
55
Prior to selecting TEST on fire extinguisher panel, SOPM says pilot must:
Verify EICAS on for 30 seconds and no fire protection fail messages.
56
What areas have fire protection?
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lav.
57
What happens automatically if a fire is detected in the FWD cargo?
Air circulation fans in forward compartment turn off, ventilation outflow valve closes, high rate bottle is armed, and associated cargo fire button is illuminated.
58
If FADEC detects an APU fire in flight, how long before it automatically shuts down the APU? (tricky)
APU won't automatically be shutdown during FLIGHT if a fire is detected.
59
While at gate, you get an EICAS warning "FWD CARGO FIRE" what should you do first?
Run the QRC for FWD CARGO FIRE.
60
When must a fire detection system test be performed?
Crew's first flight of day in a particular airplane.
61
After completing memory and QRC for hot start, what section of the QRH will you reference for an engine abnormal start?
Non-annunciated.
62
Departing 1R at SFO, you experience engine failure at V1. You accomplish actions and callouts per SOPM and upon reaching VFS you call "Continuous, Bank Off". How do you select CON?
TRS key on MCDU then CON.
63
When the PF advances the thrust levers to TO/GA and calls "Check Thrust:" the PM should verify?
N1 has reached target, ATTCS is green, and engine parameters are normal.
64
On final approach, you notice GA mode is displayed between N1 gauges. What immediate pilot action is required? (tricky)
None - this is normal after gear and flaps are extended.
65
The use of Flex Thrust for takeoff is prohibited when...?
Windshear is forecasted or reported.
66
In the SOPM, what guidance is given regarding thermal stabilization before shutting down either engine?
2 minutes at or near idle.
67
With the thrust levers set to TO/GA, when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?
>15% N1 split, windshear detection, engine failure during takeoff or go-around.
68
If you choose NOT to dry motor an engine after the first failed start attempt, how long must you wait before the second engine start is attempted?
10 seconds off first.
69
If FADEC auto aborts a failed engine start attempt, why must the pilot perform the ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item?
Starter Control Valve must be manually closed to ensure the starter limitation will not be exceeded.
70
When must the engine be manually aborted?
No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N2 increase, no positive N1 increase prior to starter cutout, no ITT lightoff within 30 seconds of engine start.
71
If stick shaker activates, will the autopilot be automatically disconnected?
Yes.
72
After starting Engine 1, Captain calls for "Flaps 2, APU off, flight control check" --- what are you looking for on flight controls synoptic?
surfaces travel in correct directions, controls are checked for freedom of movement, full green box indication on synoptic is NOT a requirement.
73
What is the purpose of the E-PBIT?
Provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs, SF-ACEs.
74
During origination flow, you accidentally interrupt the E-PBIT. What should you do?
As long as FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED is not displayed, and you have enough time on the counter prior to takeoff, no action is required.
75
On the first flight of the day with an OAT -20C, you notice "AFCS Fault" message displayed on the EICAS along with erroneous airspeed on PFDs. What action(s) should you take?
ADSP Heater Switch to ON, allow E-PBIT to run properly, and ensure AFCS FAULT is no longer displayed.
76
The proper flap setting for a singe-engine approach and landing (all other systems are normal) is....?
Flaps 5.
77
When will the speedbrakes automatically retract?
Airspeed <180 or flaps greater than 1.
78
What is stabilizer trim priority logic?
Backup, Captain, FO, FCM.
79
What does a "FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG" message mean after starting Engine 1 only and releasing parking brake?
H-PBIT portion is in progress.
80
When executing a CAT II, flaps FULL should be used to reduce ground speed. T/F
False.
81
With the APU off, what will happen if both IDGs fail?
RAT deploys automatically after 8 seconds, and powers AC ESS BUS. Batteries power DC ESS BUS and AC STBY BUS via an inverter. Once the RAT is powered up, the DC ESS BUS is powered via the ESS TRU.
82
The TRUs convert DC to AC? T/F
False.
83
What items are on the AC ESS BUS?
3A pump, ACMP pump 2, Slat channel 2, Flap channel 1.
84
While performing safety and power up check, BATT 1 and 2 show 23V and 22V. What action(s) if any must you do?
BATT 2 needs to be above 22.5V --- look at SOPM table and charge it up.
85
After BATT 1 and 2 are ON and AUTO, what screens should be displayed?
2 and 3. IESS on too. (look for 22.5V!).
86
Suddenly you lose power to AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 and experience an electrical emergency. One minute later you notice BATTERY DISCHARGING warning message still displayed on EICAS. What does this message tell you?
RAT is not powering AC ESS Bus and batteries are not getting recharged.
87
The IDGs provide what type of electrical power?
AC.
88
After starting engine 1, with the APU running, which AC sources are powering the electrical system?
IDG 1 and APU GEN.
89
The memory item for BATT 1 OVERTEMP Warning is to turn off the associated battery. T/F
True.
90
What generates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message?
Loss of AC power to AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2.
91
If AC ground power is in use and you start the APU, which fuel pump(s) will provide fuel pressure to the APU?
AC fuel pump.
92
What is the maximum fuel capacity?
20,935 lbs.
93
The ERJ has 2 wing tanks, each divided into a collector, main and surge tank? T/F
True.
94
In an electrical emergency, with the RAT deployed, which electrical fuel pump(s) are available?
AC Pump 2 (AC ESS Bus) and DC pump.
95
During cruise, the primary pump used to transport fuel from the collector tank to the engine is the....?
Main Ejector Pump.
96
What is the max fuel imbalance for the 175?
794 lbs.
97
When the crossfeed selector is set to LOW 1 or LOW 2 what is the best way to describe fuel balancing?
Both engines will burn from the same tank in order to balance the fuel.
98
An unpowered airplane can be refueled because the refueling panel can be powered from the Hot Battery Bus. T/F
True.
99
In the event of an engine fire or other severe damage, the only way to close the engine fuel shutoff valve is with the fire extinguishing handles. T/F
True.
100
What is min fuel temp?
-40C.
101
You're trying to push back but tow operator says that the light is still RED - why could this be?
Parking brake still on, external steering switch not in disengaged position.
102
Live animals can be placed in the ____ cargo only.
FORWARD.
103
Shortly after takeoff a serious malfunction occurs and requires immediate landing. As you setup the FMS shows landing weight of 74,862 - will you need to write up an overweight landing?
No, 74,957 is MLW.
104
When pressing the water dump button, when will the striped bar extinguish?
faulty drain mast heater indication in aft attendant panel?? water dump button pressed again? potable water system is empty, the landing gear is extended.
105
Takeoff is permitted with 15kts of tailwind. T/F
True.
106
When does the SOPM require NAV lights to be on?
When AC power is on the airplane.
107
Flying ILS 35L to DEN -- 350@10G18. Vref has been determined to be 128 kts - what is Vap?
Half headwind + gust difference = 13 kts
| Vap = 141 kts.
108
What is the dry max taxi speed?
30 kts.
109
Someone is attempting access to flt deck using EMER ENTRY push button located on the door control panel inside the cabin. How much time does the pilot have to press the INHIB button before the door unlocks?
30 seconds.
110
When will pax oxygen masks automatically deploy and how long do they provide oxygen?
14,000-14,750' and 12 minutes.
111
What will the flight director command if you activate DES NOW option on the MCDU prior to reaching the TOD?
An initial descent of 1000fpm.
112
Pressing VNAV turns VNAV on/off. If VNAV is on, the vertical mode is displayed in magenta on the FMA? T/F
True.
113
On an ILS approach, what is the min A/P altitude?
50 ft.
114
As you approach cruise altitude the vertical mode in the FMA should switch from FLCH to ASEL as well as A/T mode should change from SPDe to SPDt. T/F
True.
115
While climbing on an RNAV departure with speeds/alt restrictions and controller says "delete altitude restrictions, climb and maintain FL230" - what is the most appropriate way to comply with this clx?
Climb in green FLCH and FMS speeds.
116
True or False: according to SOPM, the use of FMS speeds is allowed during all flight conditions, including single engine flight.
True.
117
While the TCS button is pressed on the yoke, the flight director is synced with the FPA. T/F
True.
118
If assigned holding, what is the minimum SkyWest holding speed at 5,000' MSL?
200 kts / not less than green dot.
| above 6000 not less than 210 kts
119
Takeoff clx is "fly runway heading" and after runway is verified, the Capt arms the A/T and both pilots silently verify what on the FMA?
White TO (armed A/T mode), green ROLL (active lateral mode), green TO (active vertical mode), and white VNAV (armed vertical mode).
120
What does the FMA show?
Flight Mode Annunciator - automation modes and status.
121
If PAX Cabin knob is set to ATTND, the flight attendant has control of the cabin temperature. T/F
True.
122
Flight DFW to SFO, you're filed for FL380 however en route ATC advises that FL360 will be final. What considerations do you have in regards to the pressurization system?
Change MCDU cruise altitude to FL360 in order to lengthen the life of airframe.
123
The buttons on the AIR COND/PNEUMATIC control panel are in the AUTO position if pressed in and dark (no white stripe). T/F
True.
124
What protects the airplane's structure from damage due to over or under pressurization?
Safety vale and negative pressure relief valve.
125
While cruising at FL390, you receive a MCL accompanied by PACK 1 FAIL EICAS message. You were unable to restore the back via QRH. What is the maximum altitude at which you may cruise?
FL310.
126
The APU can supply bleed air for engine and wing anti-ice. T/F
False.
127
In AUTO mode when the cabin DUMP button is depressed, this will command the following to occur...
Recirculation are turned off, packs are turned off, and outflow valve opens to maintain 2000fpm.
128
What are the onboard sources of bleed air?
APU, Engine 1, and Engine 2.
129
PACKS are automatically turned off during engine start if in AUTO position. T/F
True.
130
If pressurization mode is in AUTO, the LFE is automatically set based on the flight plan destination. T/F
True.
131
Shortly after takeoff you observe an AI WING VLV OPEN status message in VMC. What is the most likely cause of this message?
Normal test that occurs 10 min after takeoff or at 10,000 ft AGL, whichever occurs first.
132
After landing in DEN during a light snow shower, what action by the crew is required to turn the Anti-Ice system ON while taxiing into the gate on contaminated surfaces?
The Ice Protection switch should be moved to ON.
133
When the buttons on the ice protection panel are pushed in (dark) operation is automatic. T/F
True.
134
The maximum wiper speed is?
250 kts (SW).
135
Which of the following considerations should be given during an approach when the EICAS message "STALL PROT ICE SPEED" is displayed?
Pilot must use the "With Ice Accretion" chart when determining their Vspeeds for landing if ACARS is not available.
136
If both ice detectors fail in flight, you will lose ice protection. T/F
False.
137
The ATIS reports OAT of 7C and overcast at 1,500', How should the ice protection system be configured for takeoff?
EAI ON.
138
The tail is provided with anti-ice. T/F
False.
139
When the Ice Protection Mode knob is set to AUTO, the ice protection will turn on in flight if the ice detector detects ice? T/F
True.
140
During taxi out, the windshield is automatically heated under which of the following conditions?
Two engine taxi --- double check this answer...
141
Radar range and tilt are adjusted with?
CCD inner and outer knobs.
142
The IRS can align on the ground or in flight. T/F
True.
143
Does the ERJ have WXR?
Yes.
144
While being vectored for an ILS approach, what button on the GP arm LOC and GS on the FMA?
APP.
145
At what speed does the TAS, TAT, and SAT information become valid?
60 kts.
146
During cruise flight the primary source of navigation is normally the?
FMS.
147
SkyWest is authorized to do LOC BC approaches. T/F
False.
148
In an electrical emergency, which nav sources are available?
Lots.... NAV 1, IRS 1, FMS 2... double check question...
149
Navigation source info on the PFD is shown in ____ if FMS, _____ if VOR/LOC, and _____ if cross sided.
magenta, green, amber.
150
The FMS determines airplane position using?
IRS, GPS, VOR/DME.
151
Setting the autobrakes to RTO provides the same deceleration rate as max manual braking. T/F
True.
152
The emergency/parking brake has a dedicated accumulator that can provide ____ applications of the brake with the 1 and 2 systems depressurized.
6 pumps.
153
The procedure for landing on contaminated runways includes....
max reverse thrust and autobrake setting MED.
154
What type of brakes are installed?
Carbon.
155
What brake temperature indications should the FO verify on the Before Takeoff Checklist flow?
Indications must be GREEN.
156
After takeoff you are unable to move the gear handle. Which scenario would be most appropriate to use the DN LOCK REL button?
When necessary to retract the landing gear for obstacle clearance.
157
How may ways can the flight crew attempt to lower the landing gear?
3.
158
The landing gear and brakes are actuated using?
Hydraulic pressure.
159
In order to achieve max braking performance upon landing on a short runway, which technique should be used?
Max manual braking and max reverse thrust.
160
What is the max tire speed?
195 knots.
161
On the MCDU, radio frequencies can be changed by?
Various aways, type, twist.
162
On MCDU radio page, the top (green) freqs are active and bottom (white) freqs are standby. T/F
True.
163
If Comm. 3 is deferred, how would you figure out the landing performance and speeds?
Use the QRH - no ACARS.
164
Is it possible to turn radios with the PFD and CCD. T/F
True.
165
The radio freqs are primarily controlled by the ...?
MCDO RADIO page.
166
A successful FDR test consists of pressing the FDR test button and verifying that no FDR EICAS messages appear. T/F
True.
167
Pressing the PAX ADDRESS button allows direct communication to the passengers regardless of what is selected on the ACP. T/F
True.
168
The MIC button on the ACP must be selected to MASK to allow the oxygen mask mic to work in the event auto mode failes. T/F
True.
169
The emergency FA call button when pressed....
Triple HI/LO chime, green light flashes inside button, flashes a red flight on the rainbow bar.
170
The yoke PTT should be selected to ____ in order to communicate with ramp personnel.
HOT.
