Systems Review Questions Flashcards
Questions from 10 JUL 2013 PH RC7 (283 cards)
1
Q
With the NOSE taxi and takeoff light ON, when will those lights automatically extinguish?
A
Landing gear retraction
2
Q
With the STROBE switch in AUTO when do the strobe lights operate?
A
When the landing gear strut is not compressed
3
Q
When will the LOGO lights illuminate?
A
NAV & LOGO switch ON and main gear compressed or slats extended
4
Q
If the LAND light selector is moved from RETRACT to OFF, what does the landing light do?
A
It extends but is extinguished
5
Q
Is the ANN LT TEST switch used during preflight?
A
No, ANN LT TEST switch is a maintenance function
6
Q
What flight deck lighting is maintained if normal electrical power is lost?
A
Right dome light, Standby compass, CAs instruments
7
Q
What would an amber temp indication in either the Pack Outlet Temp or Pack Compressor Outlet Temp indicate?
A
Excessive temps
8
Q
How is the Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve controlled?
A
HOT AIR pb on the overhead panel
9
Q
If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will go to what rate?
A
HIGH
10
Q
With the APU supplying bleed air, what will the pack flow be if the PACK FLOW switch is in LOW?
A
HIGH
11
Q
There are three temperature selectors for the various zones in the aircraft. The pack controllers will deliver air at the coolest demanded temperature to the mixing units. How are the individual zones maintained at a comfortable temp if the air being demanded is always the coldest?
A
By mixing hot bleed air through trim air valves into the distribution network
12
Q
Inflight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?
A
Engine speed is increased automatically
13
Q
What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pb?
A
Duct overheat
14
Q
The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START. When does the valve automatically open?
A
After successful start or 30 sec
15
Q
How many motors are installed on the crossbleed valve?
A
2 – one for automatic mode and one for manual mode
16
Q
Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?
A
No
17
Q
If the APU bleed valve is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve
A
Open
18
Q
When would the RAM AIR pb be used?
A
Ventilation and/or smoke removal
19
Q
What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR pb is selected ON?
A
The outflow valve opens when the cabin differential pressure is < 1 PSI
20
Q
If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber on the ECAM CABIN PRESS page, what would be indicated?
A
System fault
21
Q
What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?
A
High cabin rate of climb/descent
22
Q
What occurs when the DITCHING pb is selected on?
A
All valves below the water line close except for the outflow valve if the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL is in MAN
23
Q
With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?
A
FMGC database information
24
Q
With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation?
A
2,000’
25
When does the pressurization system switch between auto-controllers?
After each landing
26
What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch on the CABIN PRESS panel indicate?
Both automatic systems have faulted
27
Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?
No
28
What ECAM page is selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?
ECAM COND page
29
What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE indicate?
A fault has been detected
30
How many CAB FANS are installed?
2
31
If either the BLOWER or EXTRACT pb is selected to OVRD, will the system run on the OPEN or CLOSED configuration?
CLOSED
32
How can you tell the APU is up to speed and the generator is available?
APU electrical power is available
33
When would the corresponding APU N% speed be displayed in amber or red?
When an overspeed occurs
34
What is indicated when the APU EGT indication is displayed in amber or red?
An overtemp condition
35
With external power supplying the buses and the APU operating, what action is required to select APU power?
Deselect external power by pushing the EXT PWR pb
36
The APU START pb is pressed and illuminates blue. What does this mean?
The APU starter is energized
37
When would the APU fault light illuminate?
APU automatic shutdown
38
What are some possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?
High oil temp, low oil pressure, overspeed, etc
39
Is altitude a consideration when considering use of the APU as a source of bleed air and/or electrical power?
Yes
40
How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?
Check the database validity period on the Aircraft Status page
41
When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?
When departing from a runway intersection (non-GPS only)
42
If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity, what will occur?
NAV will disengage and the aircraft will revert to HDG/TRK mode
43
Box prompts on the MCDU indicate what?
Data entry is required for minimum FMGS operation
44
Dashes on the MCDU indicate what?
Data is being calculated by the FMGC
45
If inflight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?
Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and press the NAV button and you can dial appropriate freqs
46
What is the difference between OPT and REC MAX?
OPT is based on present GW, temp, and cost index -- best economy btwn fuel and time savings
REC MAX is based on GW and ISA deviation -- provides 1.3g load protection
47
Inflight with the autopilot engaged, will movement of the pitch trim wheel cause the autopilot to disengage?
Yes
48
What occurs when the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled?
OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages
49
What is the function of the LOC pb?
The AP and/or FD is armed to capture the localizer
50
Once APPR is armed but not captured, provide an example of the methods that may be used to disarm it
As long as the aircraft is above 400' RA:
- Press the APPR pb a second time
- Press the LOC pb
- Arm NAV by pressing the HDG/TRK knob on the FCU
- Disengage both APs
- Engage GA mode
51
If I were hand flying the precision approach w/o the aid of the FD or AP, would I still push the APPR pb to arm the approach?
No
52
Name some examples of when the AP will disengage
- Takeover switch is pressed
- Sidestick is moved beyond the load threshold
- The other AP is engaged (except when LOC G/S modes are engaged)
- Thrust levers set to TOGA on the ground
- DA - 50' when APP is engaged on an RNAV approach
- THS wheel moved
53
When can the second AP be engaged?
After selecting APPR during an ILS approach
54
Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button?
No
55
What action would the pilot take to use SELECTED SPEED?
Pull the SPD MACH selector
56
If the pilot desired an immediate level off, what action should be taken?
Push the V/S selector knob
57
Is V/S "0" altitude hold?
No
58
Is altitude alerting automatically inhibited with the AP on?
Yes
59
Must the FD be on for the windshear function of the FACs to operate normally?
No, it's independent of the FD on/off switch
60
What does the APPR pb do?
Arms the FD and/or AP to capture the glideslope and localizer / non-precision approach course
61
The CAPT & PURS switch should always be in which position?
CAPT
62
With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO, when do the CVR and DFDR energize?
- For 5 minutes after electrical power application
- 1 engine running
- Continuously during flight
63
In order to test the CVR, the Parking Brake must be in what selected position?
ON
64
When will the DFDR operate?
- On the ground w/1 engine running
| - Continuously in flight
65
How would you erase the data on the CVR?
On the ground with parking brake set, press the CVR ERASE pb for 2 sec
66
When the MECH pb is pushed, what signals are received in the landing gear bay?
Blue light and horn. Horn will sound as long as button is held.
67
What can you expect if you push the EMER pb?
Three high-low chimes (6 bells) and commencement of the FA emergency procedures
68
The Audio Switching selector allows us to replace a failed ACP with the 3rd occupant's ACP. After switching, is the 3rd occupant's ACP still operational?
The 3rd occupant's acoustic equipment is no longer usable and the crewmember with the failed ACP will have to use the ACP located overhead
69
How should the PA button be positioned on the #3 ACP?
Selected out in the 3 o'clock position
70
How do we make a PA using the ACP?
Press and hold the PA pb
71
How is the ATT or MECH flashing lights extinguished after a call?
By pressing the RESET key
72
How is a FA call answered?
Press the ATT transmission key, then press and release the CAB reception knob and adjust the volume
73
Can any communications radios be controlled from any RMP?
Yes. All comms radios can be controlled from any of the 3 RMPs
74
Are there any procedures in the PH which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?
No, this is a maintenance function
75
An amber SMOKE annunciation in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicates what?
Smoke in the avionics ventilation system
76
If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, is there any equipment still powered by generator 1?
Yes, one fuel pump in each tank
77
If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, what becomes the source to AC bus 1?
Generator 2 through the bus tie
78
What will cause the RAT to extend automatically?
Loss of AC bus 1 & 2 and airspeed > 100 kts
79
In flight with the airplane powered normally (both generators), we push the RAT MAN ON switch. What will power the AC and DC ESS buses?
Emergency generator
80
What is the difference between the RAT MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel and the switch labeled similarly on the HYD panel?
With the electrical RAT MAN ON, the blue hydraulic system drives the emergency generator. With the switch on the HYD panel, only the blue hydraulic system is available
81
What does a fault light in a BAT pb indicate?
Charging current is outside limits
82
What does the indication ___% in the GEN 1 icon indicate?
Generator 1 load is ___%
83
Upon entering the flight deck prior to the first flight of the day, what should the battery voltage be?
Greater than or equal to 25.5 V
84
What is the primary purpose of the batteries?
Emergency electrical and APU starting
85
During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is
- Replace the battery
| - Complete a 20-min charge and recheck for sufficient voltage
86
During the Safety & Power On checklist, why is the battery check accomplished with the batteries in the OFF position?
To determine the exact battery voltage. In the AUTO position, the acft is essentially in an emergency electrical configuration
87
If the BATT switches are in AUTO overnight without any other power, will the batteries discharge completely?
No
88
Under what conditions are the batteries connected to the DC BATTERY BUS
Each battery's BATTERY CHARGE LIMITER automatically connects the batteries when:
- APU is starting
- In the emergency electrical config
89
When is the main galley bus automatically shed?
Single generator operation
90
If the main galley bus sheds automatically on a single generator or power source, how is it powered on the ground?
All galley buses are supplied with APU or External power
91
What does the FAULT light in the IDG pb indicate?
High oil temperature or low oil pressure
92
What precautions exist when disconnecting an IDG?
- Do not hold the disconnect pb for more than 3 seconds
| - Engine must be running or windmilling
93
If the pilot inadvertently pushes the IDG disconnect, can it be reconnected?
Not in flight
94
The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses is:
Engine generator, External power, APU, generator for other engine
95
What does the FAULT light indicate in the GEN 1 pb?
A fault has been detected because:
- GCU tripped
OR
- GLC (generator line contactor) opened
96
What is the normal source of power for the AC ESS BUS?
AC BUS 1
97
Could AC BUS 2 be used to power the AC ESS BUS?
Yes, it is automatically supplied by AC BUS 2 when AC BUS 1 is lost
98
What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?
A fault has been detected (AC ESS BUS is not powered). Follow ECAM procedure
99
What does the green AVAIL light indicate in the EXT PWR pb?
External power is connected and within normal parameters
100
If the green AVAIL light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light is present on the APU, what is the source of electrical power with the engines shut down?
APU since the EXT PWR must be selected ON
101
If both engines were started at the gate using external power, would the EXT PWR ON light still be illuminated?
Yes, however the engine driven generators are supplying power to the aircraft
102
If EXT power is in use during APU start, does the green AVAIL light in the APU START pb indicate it is now the source of power?
No. External power has priority over the APU. The green APU AVAIL light indicates that the APU generator is available
103
If landing in the Emergency Electrical configuration, when will the DC BAT BUS be automatically connected to the batteries?
Loss of AC BUS 1 & 2 and speed below 100 kts
104
If landing in the Emergency Electrical configuration and speed decreases below 50 kts, the AC ESS BUS is shed. What would be the indication to the crew?
Loss of display units
105
What is the significance of the green CBs?
They're ECAM monitored
106
Why do the Wing Tip Brake CBs have red caps installed on them?
To prevent inflight resetting
107
The FASTEN SEAT BELTS, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds _________ feet, regardless of the respective switch position
11,300
108
When will the emergency lighting system illuminate automatically?
When normal aircraft electrical power system fails
109
What is included in the aircraft emergency lighting?
- Overhead emergency lights
- Exit signs
- Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
110
How many fire bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?
1 bottle supplies both compartments
111
How many channels must detect smoke to receive a Cargo Smoke warning?
Both channels
112
When is the fire detection and extinguishing system tested?
First flight of the day during the Flightdeck Preparation Flow
113
If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the fuel system?
Yes, it closes the low-pressure fuel valve
114
When is the engine extinguishing agent switch armed?
When the engine fire switch is released out
115
Where are the engine fire sensing elements installed?
- Pylon nacelle
- Fan
- Core
116
If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will occur?
An engine fire warning will occur
117
How would the crew know if any component of the fire detection system fails?
ECAM message(s)
118
If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?
Yes. If the fire occurs during APU start, the APU will auto shutdown and the extinguisher will discharge
119
If the FIRE pb were released out, would that action affect the electrical system?
Yes, it deactivates the generator
120
How many fire bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?
2 for each engine
121
How many fire bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
1
122
If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire?
Nothing. On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge after the fire warning appears. The external horn sounds and a red light illuminates in the external control panel
123
A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates?
The extinguisher bottle has lost pressure
124
If there is an APU fire in flight, will the APU automatically shutdown?
No. The APU must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged
125
With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?
APU FIRE pb and SQUIB illuminated
126
If the aircraft is powered, what indications would be seen during the APU fire test?
- APU FIRE pb illuminated red
- SQUIB / DISCH lights illuminated
- Both red MASTER WARNING lights illuminated
- ECAM would display the APU FIRE warning
- APU page would be on the system display page
127
How would low hydraulic pressure be indicated on the F/CTL page?
G, B, or Y would be displayed in amber at the corresponding positions on this page
128
What indicators would the FO reference during the Flight Control Check?
Flight Control Position Indicators for aileron, elevator, spoilers, and rudder
129
On what other ECAM page would spoiler deployment be indicated?
ECAM WHEEL page
130
How many ELAC computers are installed and what are their functions?
2 Elevator Aileron Computers provide normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control
131
What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pb indicate?
It's on when a failure has been detected or during power up for 8 seconds
132
How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?
3 Spoiler Elevator Computers provide spoiler control and standby elevator/stabilizer control
133
What control surface do the FACs control?
Rudder
134
Is there any rudder pedal feedback for yaw dampening or turn coordination functions?
No
135
What flight control computer provides reactive windshear detection?
FAC
136
If one FAC is lose, are any FAC functions lost?
No, the second FAC will handle the demand
137
Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?
Yes, mechanically
138
Do the sidesticks move with autopilot inputs or with inputs from the opposite sidestick?
No
139
What would result if both sidesticks were moved at the same time during flight with the AP off?
- Both inputs are summed algebraically
- Dual Input warning will sound
- Green sidestick priority lights will flash
140
Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?
Yes
141
Will the red arrow portion of the SIDESTICK PRIORITY light illuminate in front of the pilot losing or gaining priority?
Losing
142
What indications are present when inputs are being made simultaneously to the sidesticks?
The green CAPT & FO portions of the sidestick priority lights flash and the aural Dual Input warning sounds when neither takes priority
143
Config 1 is selected for takeoff. What slats/flaps combination is indicated?
Flaps 1 + F
144
Config 1 is selected on approach. What slats/flaps combination is indicated?
Flaps 1, which is slats only
145
If the flaps are not retracted after takeoff, what happens?
The trailing edge flaps retract at 210 kts
146
Does the rudder trim rotary switch have any effect with the autopilot engaged?
No
147
What does the RESET button on the rudder trim do?
Resets rudder trim to 0 if the AP is off
148
What happens to extended speed brakes when Flaps FULL is selected on the A320?
Speed brakes retract
149
During landing, when does partial spoiler extension occur?
- Reverse selected on at least 1 engine and 1 main gear strut compressed
150
During landing, when does full ground spoiler extension occur?
- Touchdown of both main gear
| - Both thrust levers at idle OR at least 1 engine in reverse thrust
151
Are there any procedures that call for the pilot to use the VOR switch installed on the EFIS Control Panel?
Yes: VOR approaches and when DME information is needed
152
Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector?
No, radar is not available in PLAN
153
When the LS/ILS pb is selected, where will the localizer and glideslope scales be displayed?
Onside PFD
154
If the Standby Attitude Indicator power source fails, how will this be indicated?
A flag will appear if the power supply or instrument fails
155
What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?
The STATUS page holds messages
156
If the upper ECAM display fails, what happens automatically?
EWD display replaces the SD display on the lower ECAM
157
What if the lower ECAM display unit failed? Could we display the lower ECAM information?
We can press & hold a systems page pb on the ECAM Control Panel and the page will be displayed on the upper ECAM. We can also select CAPT or FO on the ECAM/ND XFR rotary switch on the switching panel
158
What is the purpose of the EIS Switching Panel?
Permits cockpit display screens to access secondary sources
159
Can the lower ECAM display be transferred to another display unit?
Yes
160
DMC 1 (2) has failed. Can the information on the affected displays be restored?
Yes. Rotate the switch labeled EIS DMC to replace the failed DMC with DMC 3
161
What happens when the TO CONFIG pb is pressed?
An application of takeoff power is simulated. A warning occurs if the aircraft is not in takeoff configuration
162
If during the flight we received continuous spurious warning messages that we knew to be incorrect, is there any way to cancel this caution?
By depressing the EMER CANC pb we can cancel Level 1 and Level 2 Caution messages only (along with the Master Caution). However, that specific caution is now inhibited for the remainder of the flight
163
We have pressed the EMER CANC pb. How can we restore the system to normal?
Press the RCL pb for more than 3 seconds. The Level 1 and Level 2 Caution messages that have been suppressed are recalled. Messages that we have cleared will be recalled
164
How could we check the Status page for inoperative systems or maintenance messages?
Press the STS pb and the status page is displayed on the lower ECAM. If there is no status message present, NORMAL is displayed for 5 seconds
165
Why is it very important to maintain a "lights out" condition on the ECP during flight?
Because the automatic phase of flight function and display of the relative system on the lower ECAM during an abnormal will be inhibited by the page we have displayed manually
166
We have 3 DMCs which acquire and process all information and signals received from the sensors and computers to generate the images to be displayed on all of the Display Units. Where is the information normally displayed by DMC 1? DMC 2?
- DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, and the Upper ECAM
| - DMC 2 supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2, and the Lower ECAM
167
How is a DMC failure displayed?
Basic aircraft: A diagonal line on the display units driven by the failed DMC
Enhanced aircraft: "INVALID DATA" is displayed on the units driven by the failed DMC
168
If a display unit failed, would the screen have a diagonal line displayed?
No, the screen would be blank
169
How many VOR and DME receivers are on the aircraft?
2 VOR and 2 DME
170
If all systems were working normally and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?
Yes, auto tuning and FMGC radio position updating are superseded and RAD NAV page is blanked. NAV on RMP 3 will have no effect
171
When would we use the RMP to tune an ILS?
When both MCDUs or FMGCs are inoperative or when the aircraft is in an Emergency Electrical configuration
172
Can 2 different ILS freqs be tuned at the same time?
No
173
If the LOC or G/S fails, what would be indicated on the PFD?
LOC or GS in red on the PFD of the failed receiver. In ROSE ILS, we would see a red LOC or GS flag
174
What is the fuel feed sequence?
A319/320: Center tank then wing tanks
A321: Fuel flows from the center tank to the wing tanks, which feed the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence: Aft ACT, Forward ACT, Center, Wing
175
The transfer valves automatically open when the wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to _______
1,650 pounds
176
The transfer valves have opened. When will they close?
Automatically at the next refueling operation
177
With the MODE SEL switch in AUTO, when will the center tank pumps operate on the A319/320?
- 2 minutes after each engine is started
| - When slats are retracted in flight until 5 minutes after the center tank is empty
178
Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
Yes
179
Can fuel be gravity fed to the engines?
Yes, inflight
180
How many fuel pumps are in each fuel tank in the A319/320?
2
181
Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
Green and Yellow
182
Name some of the major users of the Green hydraulic system
(Look at panel next to the Upper ECAM for hints)
- Landing gear
- Autobrakes
- NWS (on basic aircraft)
183
The Yellow hydraulic system has an engine driven pump. What other means do we have to pressurize the Yellow system?
- Electric pump
- PTU
- Hand pump for cargo doors
184
How many pumps does the Yellow hydraulic system have (not counting the PTU)?
3: Engine, electric, and hand
185
What does the Yellow hydraulic system hand pump supply pressure for?
Opening the cargo doors
186
When does the PTU operate?
When pressure between the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems drop to a predetermined level
187
Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems?
No
188
Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?
No
189
When is the PTU tested?
During the second engine start
190
Is it possible to pressurize the Green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?
Yes
191
What are the hydraulic priority valves, and what is their function?
They cut off heavy load units if system pressure drops below a predetermined value
192
With the airplane on the ground and the Blue electric pump switch in AUTO, when will the Blue pump be energized?
When 1 engine is running
193
To emergency extend the gear, the crew has to turn the gear crank 3 turns clockwise. What does this action accomplish?
It shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens the doors, and unlocks the gear
194
After emergency extension, do the gear doors remain open?
Yes
195
Do we have NWS after emergency gear operation?
No
196
What would happen if the rain repellent pb were pushed on the ground with the engines shut down?
Nothing
197
Is it permitted to select WING ANTI-ICE on the ground?
No
198
On the ground, will the Wing Anti-Ice valves open?
Only during a 30 sec test sequence if pneumatic supply is available
199
After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed?
At thrust reduction altitude, after selection of LVR CLB
200
On approach, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected OFF?
At the FAF inbound unless in severe icing
201
What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?
The 3 outboard slats
202
What part of the engine is anti-iced?
Nacelle
203
What happens when either anti-ice valve is open with regard to engine RPM?
Minimum idle RPM is increased if necessary
204
When does probe heat come on automatically?
When at least 1 engine is running
205
Window heat operates at what power level in flight?
Normal
206
Where does the crew look to verify that the parking brake is on?
Confirm on the ECAM Memo
207
What is the purpose of the brake check accomplished immediately after the aircraft starts moving?
- Checks brake efficiency
| - Confirms Green pressure has taken over and that Yellow pressure is 0 on the Triple Indicator
208
If AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?
Auto Brake is armed
209
What does the UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indicate?
Gear is in transition or not locked in the selected position
210
What does HOT in the BRK FAN light indicate?
Brakes are too hot (accompanied by ECAM)
211
Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if LGCIU 1 is not powered?
No
212
Does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes?
Yes, except Auto Brakes are inop
213
Is NWS available with Green hydraulic pressure inop?
- Basic aircraft: no
| - Enhanced aircraft: yes, powered by the Yellow system
214
When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake applications can the pilot expect?
7 full brake applications
215
What is the maximum degree of NWS available using the hand wheel?
+/- 75 degrees
216
When using the rudder pedals for NWS, the steering angle starts to reduce _____ kts and progressively reduces to 0 degrees at ____ kts
40, 130
217
The green DECEL light on the Auto Brake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to what percent of the selected rate?
80
218
When is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?
Below 20 kts
219
When is brake pressure applied to the brakes during landing using the LO setting? MED?
LO: 4 sec after ground spoiler extension
MED: 2 sec after ground spoiler extension
220
Are there any operations described in the PH that requires the use of MAX Auto Brakes during landing?
No
221
Is the Anti-Skid system operational with Yellow alternate brakes?
It may or may not be available
222
What does the Red Arrow indicate on the landing gear panel?
Landing gear not down and locked when the aircraft is in the landing configuration
223
The brake pressure on the Triple Position indicator reads which system pressure?
Yellow
224
Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?
Yellow
225
When the parking brake is on, is the anti-skid active?
No
226
How any ADIRUs does the aircraft have?
3
227
When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV during a full alignment, what indications should be noted on the panel?
- The ON BAT light illuminates momentarily
| - It's followed by 3 ALIGN lights on each respective IR on the GNADIRS panel
228
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
1 or more IRs are being supplied only by the aircraft battery. It also illuminates momentarily at the beginning of a full alignment
229
If the ADIRS switches are already in NAV, how do you accomplish a quick alignment?
Turn the Mode Selectors OFF and back ON within 5 seconds and select ALIGN IRS on the INIT page
230
What would occur if the pilot were to take longer than 5 seconds to cycle any of the Mode Selectors from OFF back to NAV?
Full alignment
231
Can the present position be entered through the GNADIRS panel or must we use the MCDU?
It can be entered on the GNADIRS panel through the numeric keyboard
232
Does the center OFF, 1, 2, 3 switch turn the GNADIRS unit off?
No, only the upper display
233
What would cause the ADIRS ALIGN light to flash?
- IR alignment fault
- No present position entry after 10 minutes
- Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1 degree of Lat or Long
234
The entered position causes the ALIGN lights to flash. If the coordinates are correct, how is the problem corrected?
Check the city pairs and re-enter them if necessary
235
What would a steady FAULT light in IR 1 indicate?
IR 1 is lost
236
Would a fault in IR 1 cause ADR 1 to fail?
No
237
What would a flashing IR FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode
238
Are we allowed to pushback during the alignment process?
No, movement will cause a system fault
239
After selecting the IR Mode Selectors to NAV, when should you select ALIGN IRS on the INIT A page?
Immediately after selecting NAV to avoid excessive ADIRS drift
240
If you were to rotate the IR 1 Mode Selector to OFF, would that affect ADR 1?
Yes, although they are independent systems, they share an ON/OFF switch
241
If IR 1 were to fault inflight, what information would be lost on PFD 1? How is it displayed?
Attitude and heading information is lost. Red ATT and HDG flags are displayed
242
If IR 1 were to fault inflight, the DDRMI will show a compass card flag. Why?
IR 1 drives the DDRMI compass card until it is switched
243
What IR information may be recovered if an IR FAULT light is flashing?
Attitude and heading may possibly be recovered by turning the IR Selector to ATT
244
Are the IR track, wind, and heading information displayed on the IR overhead panel relative to true or magnetic?
True
245
If the SYS pb is selected OFF on the EGPWS panel, what is inhibited>
All basic EGPWS alerts (modes 1-5)
246
What is the purpose of the FLAP MODE pb?
To inhibit nuisance warning when an ECAM calls for landing with a reduced flap setting
247
What is the purpose of the LDG FLAP 3 pb?
It is used when landing in Config 3
248
If a TERR fault light is illuminated, would that affect the basic EGPWS modes?
No
249
Where is ILS 1 and ILS 2 displayed?
- ILS 1 is displayed on the CA PFD and FO ND
| - ILS 2 is displayed on the FO PFD and CA ND
250
Radio Height is displayed on the PFD at what altitude?
Below 2,500'
251
What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?
Airspeed and altitude
252
When is sidestick position and max sidestick deflection displayed on the PFD?
On the ground after the first engine start
253
If RADIO ALTIMETER 1 fails, is radio altitude information lost on either PFD?
No
254
What information do the FACs provide that is indiated on the PFD?
All characteristic speeds:
- VLS
- Vmax
- Vfe
- ALPHA MAX
- ALPHA PROT
- F Speed
- S Speed
- Speed trends
255
Can the loudness of the aural alert and voice messages be controlled by the loudspeaker volume knob?
No
256
With the TERR ON ND pb OFF, what happens if a terrain caution is generated?
Terrain data is automatically displayed on the ND and the ON light illuminates
257
How can the pilot differentiate terrain from radar sweeps?
Terrain sweeps from the center outward
258
Does EGPWS use radar signals to ground map terrain?
No, it uses a worldwide terrain database
259
When do the passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically?
The cabin altitude exceeds 14,000'
260
What is cockpit crew oxygen supplied by?
A single high pressure bottle
261
What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY pb?
Controls the supply valve in the avionics bay
262
What indications do we have on the ECAM when the CREW SUPPLY pb is off?
OXY in front of the oxygen pressure on the DOOR page is amber
263
What is passenger oxygen supplied by?
A chemical generator system
264
How long will the passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen?
13 minutes
| 15 minutes according to the Training Manual
265
The cockpit crew oxygen masks provide what type of oxygen above 35,000'?
100% regardless of the position of the N/100% selector
266
How can the passenger oxygen system be activated?
- Automatically at 14,000' cabin altitude
| - Manually by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb
267
What does the MASK MAN ON pb do?
It energizes the system and opens the doors
268
When will the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?
When the mask is pulled toward the seat
269
When might a manual start be considered?
If an automatic start aborts due to low starter inlet air pressure
270
If the ENG MAN START 1 pb is pressed, will the engine begin to motor?
No, the ENG MODE Selector must be set to either CRANK or IGN/START
271
During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pb have to be pressed to close the start valve?
No, it closes automatically when N2 is ≥ 50%
272
What are the five positions of the Thrust Levers?
TOGA, FLEX/MCT, CL, IDLE, and MAX REV
273
How is AT usually activated on the ground?
By setting the Thrust Levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running
274
How is AT usually activated inflight?
By selecting the Thrust Levers to the CL detent
275
How is activation of AT confirmed?
A/THR is displayed in white in column 5 of the FMA
276
What is Thrust Lock?
Prevents thrust variations when the AT fails/disconnects
277
What is Alpha Floor?
A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position
278
What is TOGA Lock?
After the aircraft leaves Alpha Floor conditions, TOGA thrust is frozen and Thrust Lever movement has no effect until AT is disconnected
279
What happens if the instinctive disconnect pbs are pushed and held for 15 seconds?
The AT system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight. There is no Alpha Floor protection
280
What does the FAULT indication on the ENG panel mean?
- Automatic start abort
| - Fuel valve disagreement
281
With the ENGINE MODE switch in NORM, when will ignition be provided?
- CFM: Flameout and EIU failure
| - IAE: Flameout, EIU failure, slats extended, Engine AI on
282
What does the FADEC control?
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control controls start sequencing, fuel metering, and engine limits
283
What happens if one FADEC fails?
The FADEC is dual channel so the other channel will provide full authority for all engine functions
