SYSTEMS TWO EXAM DECK Flashcards
(114 cards)
1
Q
Where is trim interrupt located?
A
Right of the roll/pitch trim switch on top of the ctrl column
2
Q
What does trim interrupt provide
How to activate?
A
Press & hold button,
- interrupts power to aileron, elevator & rudder trim tab actuators
- TAD also disengaged
3
Q
Advisories when Trim interrupt used?
A
TAD OFF
TRIM OFF
4
Q
What occurs when you release the trim interrupt button?
A
Power restored to all trim actuators, TAD remains disengaged
5
Q
Trim Disconnect switch;
Location
Switch options
(outcome & Advisories)
A
- LH FWD consol
- NORM: all systems activated
- TRIM DISCONNECT: removes power from trim system & disengages TAD “TRIM OFF” & “TAD OFF” (green)
6
Q
What’s the difference between trim interrupt and turning trim off?
A
Trim interrupt button will
interrupt power to the trim actuators, but will re-engage trim when the button is released.
Trim off switch will fully remove trim system power when actuated
Both will disengage TAD.
7
Q
What inputs does TAD utilise?
A
Engine torque, pitch rate, airspeed, and altitude.
8
Q
Which control surfaces does TAD affect?
A
Rudder only
9
Q
Trim Aid Device (TAD) purpose?
How?
A
Assists pilot in maintaining directional trim, reduces out of trim rudder forces & helps maintain coordinated flight.
Auto-adjusts rudder trim to compensate for power/airspeed changes.
10
Q
Caveat wrt to TAD?
A
Still requires pilot input (doesn’t completely trim a/c in yaw)
11
Q
When will the speedbrake
retract?
A
When requested, when flaps are set to TO/LDG, or at PCL max.
12
Q
When will the speedbrake not extend?
A
When flaps are already down.
13
Q
Speed brake general (3 points)
EICAS advisory?
A
- Located b/t flaps
- 3 pstn Thumb rocker (Rear = extend, fwd = retract)
- Electrically actuated, hydraulically powered, mechanically operated.
SPDBRK OUT
14
Q
Where are the ground adjustable trim tabs, and what do they do?
A
On TE of the ailerons, they assist S&L flight (stick neutral trim input).
They are only adjusted by maintenance on the ground.
15
Q
What parameters does the fuel auto balancing system work within?
A
It aims to keep both fuel tanks within 20 pounds of each other.
16
Q
When does the fuel auto balance take action and how?
A
If the EDM detects a +20lbs imbalance for more than 30 seconds,
The transfer valve will shut off motive flow to the light tank, and fuel will only draw from the heavy tank (via the collector tank) until rebalanced
17
Q
When would you get an amber FUEL BAL cas message? (2)
What other advisories?
A
- Fuel imbalance more than 30lbs for more than 2 minutes causing auto balance system to turn off
- Fuel probe failure (FP FAIL message also)
Amber FUEL BAL advisory on CAS, MASTER CTN & Aural alert.
18
Q
Which switch can be reset to bring the fuel auto balance system back online?
Another option to balance fuel if automatic system no good?
A
-Reset the auto balance system by cycling FUEL BAL switch (gives 2 more minutes) (can be done multiple times)
-FUEL BAL switch to MAN/RESET and set the MAN FUEL BAL switch to the light tank until balance is achieved
19
Q
What three scenarios will activate your boost pump?
CAS Advisory?
A
-Automatically by the low Pressure switch if it senses motive fuel flow line less than 10psi OR if PCL > IDLE
- Whenever starter is activated regardless of fuel pressure
-BOOST PUMP switch set to ON
*Green BOOST PUMP
20
Q
When will the fuel EICAS tapes turn yellow?
A
-Respective tank has less than 150lbs
-Total fuel is less than 300lbs
21
Q
At what point will fuel levels create a caution advisory?
What will you see?
A
At 110lbs in one tank, Amber L/R FUEL LO will illuminate on CAS, and a MASTER CAUT will go off.
Aural alert.
22
Q
Two different refuel options?
Max fuel?
A
(Primary) Single point pressure - 1100 lbs
(Secondary) Over wing gravity - 1200 lbs
23
Q
Fuel tank capacities?
EICAS Disp?
A
530lbs L/R
40lbs collector (not shown on EICAS disp - split between L/R tanks as it should always be full)
24
Q
What is the elevator bobweight?
A
An assy of 2x metal plates attached to the base of the front control stick.
Extra weight gives a heavier stick force with an increase in G.
This helps enhance control feedback to help prevent over-stressing the aircraft.
25
How is the generator controlled? (2)
Generator control unit in the rear cockpit, right hand side.
GEN switch front RH consol
26
What indicates a generator failure? (4)
Red GEN on CAS,
MASTER WARN,
Voltage drop to 24V or under,
Negative amperage.
27
If the bus tie is open & the generator fails, what systems will be lost? (6)
- VHF navigation/DME,
- Left MFD,
- Air con + blowers,
- Speed brake,
- NSW
- TAD.
28
By what two means can you attempt to restart the Gen after a Generator failure?
Pressing the GEN RESET button for minimum 1 second or cycling the GEN switch
29
What is powered by the hot battery bus? (8)
Ram air valve,
Clocks,
ELT,
Battery,
OBOGS,
Emergency flaps,
FDR maintenance,
Chip detection.
30
What systems does the auxiliary battery run power to? (5)
How long?
What will deplete it?
Fire 1,
BFI,
Radio relays (transponder/transceiver), Inertial reference unit, Standby VHF control
Approx 30mins
excessive radio usage
31
What are the oil pressure limits at IDLE?
What is the CAS message?
15-40psi: amber.
15-40psi 5+ seconds: amber and red.
<15psi: red
OIL PX
32
What are the oil pressure limits above IDLE?
40-90psi 10s: amber
<40psi: red
33
How do we control external power
Batt Switch, Bus tie switch closed
(If it is not closed, the generator will not be powered)
34
MFD Brightness controls?
Centre button top & bottom of display (up/down rocker)
35
When moving the PCL, what components are you controlling?
FMU - mechanically
PMU - electrically
36
Np overspeed limits?
When does the readout turn red?
100% +/- 2% (by electronic governor)
> 102% Readout background turns red (or ground resonance 62-80%)
106% limited by mechanical overspeed governor (with a functioning PMU)- no more fuel will come through PMU
37
Prop components that auto- control blade angle & speed?
How?
Increase vs. decrease in oil px?
Prop interface unit (PIU)
Power management unit (PMU)
PMU maintains 100% prop RPM by varying the prop blade angle with oil px through the PIU (which increases oil px from PIU to the prop shaft)
Increase oil px: blades towards fine (disc)
Decrease oil px: blades towards coarse/feather
38
What occurs with PIU fail?
PMU fail/deactivated?
Manual governing?
If PIU fails, mechanical governor kicks in.
If PMU fails, the mechanical overspeed governor ctrls oil px to maintain Np at 100% +/- 2%.
Manual governing is achieved with centrifugal force moving flywgts out, causing oil px to dump - fxing spring will drive blades to coarsen to keep Np in limits.
39
Engine failure with PCL OUT of the cutoff position - how will the prop act?
Two methods to fully fx the prop?
Prop will slowly begin to move towards fx due loss of oil px, but may not fully feather (due windmilling)
On engine shut down with PCL, and PMU is in NORM (PMU sends signal to prop servo valve to drain oil px)
PCL to CUTOFF: activates microswitches to power fx dump solenoid valve to dump oil.
40
What powers the PMU?
PMU receives primary power from the PMA (permanent magnet alternator) mounted on the reduction gearbox.
This provides 32VAC, which the PMU converts to DC.
At <40-50% Np, or if the PMA fails, power is supplied through the battery bus in 28VDC.
41
Why does IOAT indicator background turn amber?
below 3 deg with probes anti ice OFF
42
How is Np indicated & what is it?
Top right on EICAS in white box, as a % of Prop RPM (100% = 2000RPM)
43
In flight: Amber PMU STATUS CAS message displays, what does this mean?
Other alerts?
What does this mean for us?
There is a fault or mismatch in the WoW switches & the PMU will not revert to ground mode on LDG.
MASTER CTN & Aural tone will also occur.
Ground idle (idle N1) not avlble on LDG rollout & taxi. Plan for increased LDG distance due higher idle N1 (approx 67% N1)
44
On the ground: PMU Status - what does it mean?
Illuminates 1min after landing (WoW) to alert maintenance if PMU has a fault. (Not serious enough o revert to manual mode in Flt)
45
What are the N1 limits at IDLE with PMU on/off?
In ground mode, idle is 60-61% N1, and minimum 67% N1 in flight mode
PMU OFF: 67%
46
When will a hydraulic fluid low warning present itself?
Advisory?
Hydraulic fluid lower than 1 quart, and Amber HYD FL LO, Master CTN & aural tone
47
What could indicate a hydraulic leak/fluid empty?
Consids?
HYD FL LO/EHYD PX LO, CHK ENG CAS advisories, Master CTN & aural tone
Get gear & flaps down as rqd!
48
What is fitted b/t primary & emergency hyd systems
A fuse and check valve.
Check valve: prevents emergency system from bleeding into main system if main fails
Hydraulic fuse: used to prevent a leak in the emergency system from draining the main hyd system.
49
What three situations would require the use of the emergency hydraulics system?
Primary hyd failure, Engine failure, battery bus failure
50
Where do you check brake reservoir fluid levels?
Sits between front & rear cockpit, in between the canopy rail
51
Wheel brake system;
Type?
Hyd system?
Controlled by?
- Differential braking
- Independant hyds from the primary hyd system
- Hydraulic link from front to rear cockpit's master cylinders, yet whoever puts more pressure on will override the input.
- Park brake handle, pull & twist 90deg CW
52
If your flaps are extended & your Batt bus fails, what happens?
They will slowly retract, flap indicator is unreliable & you are unable to confirm flap pstn from the cockpit.
53
Normal flap operation with Batt bus failed?
Emerg flap operation?
Normal flap operation/position indication is powered by the battery bus. therefore unavailable if you've lost your battery bus OR are running only on aux power.
Emerg flap operation is powered by the hot batt bus (still not avlble if only powered by aux batt)
54
Where is the hydraulic servicing bay?
What is in it?
Lower aft fuselage aft right wing TE.
- Manual px release handle (releases pressurised fluid from emerg accumulator back to resevoir)
-Sight glass & indicator rod to check hyd fluid levels
55
How to check Hydraulic system qty?
when should it be serviced?
- By comparing the pstn of the indicator rod to the marked pstn windows.
- If fluid level is not FULL AC or FULL AD, depress the emergency accumulator by pulling the px release handle
- As accumulator discharges, fluid level in reservoir should increase
- Service rqd if accumulator is fully discharged & the level does not indicated FULL AD
56
How does OBOGS work?
Mechanically separated using a fine filter with bleed air to allow oxygen through. In event of failure, Emergency Oxygen (EO) is activated by pulling the green ring fitted to seat, which lasts 10 minutes
57
What 4 things occurs when defog switch set to ON
- Opens the defog valve, increasing bleed air supply.
- Inflow valve auto selected to high, further increaseing the amount of bleed air entering the cockpit
- Aircon compressor is automatically turned on to dry the air.
- The ejector downstream of the heat exchanger takes the high px bleed air & passes it through a venturi, drawing in additional ambient air from the cockpit
58
Bleed air inflow switch - positions & what they do?
HI/NORM/OFF
Controls the position of the inflow valve (bi-level flow control & shutoff valve), determining how much bleed air will be provided to the system
59
Ram air flow control switch;
positions?
What valve it controls?
What it provides us?
Grd vs. flight?
HI/NORM/OFF
Controls position of the motor driven fresh air valve (provides fresh air ventilation)
Ground: WoW activates blower inside duct > airflow to fresh air valve
Flight: WoW shuts off blower > flapper valve opens > airflow supplied from ram air inlet to fresh air valve
60
Evap blower control knob?
OFF-HI
Provides power to the blowers which supply airflow through aircon vents
61
Temp ctrl switch knob
AUTO/MANUAL
Operates the motor driven heat exchanger bypass valve (which determines amount of warm air to be mixed with cool air supplied by heat exchanger)
62
Aircon switch?
Controls aircon compressor.
63
What happens regarding pressure if you lose electrics?
Power to the dump solenoid is lost, which causes the px ctrl valve to open, which will depress the cockpit.
64
How to get max ram airflow into the cockpit? (2 switches)
- Gdd Pressurisation switch to RAM/DUMP
- BLEED AIR INFLOW switch: OFF (shuts off bleed air)
65
Simple explanation of temp ctrl process
Heat exchanger takes bleed air from P3 Port & cools it
Some is put through heat exchanger bypass valve, allowing a mixture of warm/cool air to be supplied to the cockpit (depending on pilots temp selection)
66
Will defog deice the canopy?
No
67
When would you use the MOR for ejection?
Location?
Manual Override release - Manual sep of pilot from seat
Located RHS of seat
-If the automatic system fails (if seat hasn't sep below 15,000ft MSL)
-Flying over mountainous terrain above 14,000-16,000ft AMSL
68
When to use emergency oxygen
OBOGS failure (provides 10min emerg oxy)
69
Where is emergency oxygen found and what should it read?
Behind your seat (left shoulder), and needle should read 1800-2500psi
70
Describe ISS handle settings
CMD FWD: rear ejects individual, forward ejects both.
SOLO: nil gas tsfr between seats, activating seat is only seat to eject
BOTH: Gas signals tsfr b/t seats, Either seat activating will eject both (0.37s delay between).
71
Min recommended altitudes for ejection.
2000ft controlled, 6000ft uncontrolled
300 ABSOLUTE MSD
72
What are the three main factors that affect ejection seat performance
Sink rate, angle of bank, dive angle
73
Will the canopy fracture system operate without power, and if so how?
Yes, Piezoelectric crystals generate a charge that fires flash lamps, which provide a light source, that activates optical detonators via laser. This triggers the det cord.
74
Describe the two types of det cord used in the Texan CFS
FLSC: Flexible linear shaped charge (strong), used for thicker front canopy
MDC: Mild detonation cord (weaker). Used for thinner rear transparency.
75
If your PMU fails (reverts to manual mode), what indications will you get (4)
1) Amber PMU STATUS & red PMU FAIL CAS messages
2) red MASTER WARN light then
3) aural tone
4) Power step change: Your PMC will now idle at 67%, this will extend your landing roll due to the increase in minimum power
76
What valves does the Pressurisation Switch move in each stage;
NORM
DUMP
RAM/DUMP (NOTE)
NORM - Pressurisation system operates automatically
DUMP - Nil power to dump solenoid, pressurisation control valve opens, depressurising the cockpt, bleed air inflow continues, fresh air valve stays closed, nil Ram air into cockpit
RAM/DUMP - Nil power to dump solenoid, pressurisation control valve opens, depressurising the cockpit. Fresh air valve opens, defog valve closed (if open).
NOTE: bleed air inflow will continue unless BLEED AIR INFLOW SWITCH is turned OFF (= nil bleed air into cockpit & ram air inflow will increase)
77
What are the maximum perameters for the Martin-Baker? Seat separation?
1) 35,000 feet / 370 knots
2) Separation at 14,000-16,000 feet
78
What are the safest flight stages for ejection?
In level flight, or an unaccelerated climb
79
How many fuel probes and where?
3 in each wing tank, 1 in collector tank
80
What cas message is given when the low pressure switch senses motive fuel flow falls below 10psi?
Red FUEL PX
81
What is the purpose of the hot battery bus?
Provide power to essential components, regardless of battery switch position
82
If the aircraft is on external power with the battery switch on and the battery systems are operating but the generator systems are not, what is the likely cause?
BUS TIE switch set OPEN
83
What is the purpose of the auxiliary battery?
To provide power to critical systems during a main electrical system failure
84
T/F:
a. If the aft cockpit battery switch is moved to the ON position, the forward cockpit battery switch will also move to the ON position?
b. The battery switch must be on for external power to be available to the aircraft?
c. The PMU won't function if the battery bus fails?
a. False
b. True
c. False
85
The engine has shutdown in flight and the blades move toward feather but don't fully. Why is thiS?
Wind travelling over the propellor creates a windmilling effect which maintains some oil pressure.
86
What is the first indication you would receive of a hydraulic leak in the emergency system that is LESS than 0.25 gallons per minute and what are you next actions?
Amber HYD FL LO cas message
Lower landing gear and flaps using the main system
87
T/F:
a. The speedbrake will not extend if the flaps are already extended?
b. As there is a speed brake switch in both cockpits, the forward cockpit switch has priority?
c. If the primary hydraulic system fails, wheel brakes won't work?
a. True
b. False (responds to last input)
c. False (has its own hydraulic system)
88
T/F:
a. Flaps are unavailable should the primary system fail?
b. Emergency flap extension can only be operated after the emergency landing gear handle has been activated?
c. If the flap position indicator fails, flap position can be visually confirmed from the aft cockpit only?
a. False - emergency system
b. True
c. False - Flaps not visible from either cockpit
89
If the rod isn't in either of the AD or AC areas in the reservoir window, what can be done?
Pull the manual pressure release handle and rod should move into AD
90
Which two switch/valve combinations can prevent right side P3 port bleed air from entering the cockpit?
-BLEED AIR INFLOW switch OFF (inflow valve)
-DEFOG switch OFF (defog Valve)
91
With the Fresh Air Valve opened to maximum, how can more ram air be achieved?
BLEED AIR INFLOW switch to OFF (Closed Inflow Valve)
92
T/F:
a. As the temperature control is turned toward COLD, the heat exchanger bypass valve opens up and more cool air from the heat exchanger enters the cockpit?
b. The canopy/windshield defogging system will clear the windshield during an icing encounter?
c. The position of the bilevel flow control and shutoff valve is controlled by the BLEED AIR INFLOW switch?
a. False
b. False
c. True
93
During flight, a red CKPT PX cas message illuminates, what does this mean?
Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 - 4 psi
94
Where is the manual CFS handle?
Both cockpits, left console
95
a. Springs provide the initial seat ejection?
b. You should dive to exchange altitude for airspeed when ejecting?
c. If possible ejection should be done in level or climbing unaccelerated flight?
a. False
b. False
c. True
96
Function of the BUS TIE switch?
Positions?
CAS alert?
Used to tie/isolate the Battery & generator busses.
NORM: Generator feeds both Generator & battery bus items.
OPEN (or if the tie fails): Busses separated (Amber BUS TIE CAS alert)
97
BATT/GEN switch functionality between cockpits?
What does the BATT provide power to do?
- Switches are magnetically held on & electrically interlocked so that battery/gen power can be ctrld from either cockpit.
- Moving switch to ON in either cockpit turns power ON. (moving the switch from OFF to ON will trip the other switch to OFF & transfers ctrl to the cockpit in the ON pstn).
-Provides power for engine start & can power everything except aircon
98
What powers the flaps?
Battery Bus
Electrically controlled, hydraulically operated
99
What 5 things does engine bleed air provide the ECS?
- Pressurisation
- Cockpit heating
- Canopy defog
- Anti G
- OBOGS
100
What occurs wrt firewall shutoff valve when FWSOH is pulled?
- Mech shut off hyd fluid, fuel & bleed air to engine (Prevents fumes from being drawn into the cockpit from the engine compartment)
101
DUCT TEMP CAS?
Colours?
Amber & master CTN
>148.8deg C (300deg F)
102
Describe how A/C pressurisation occurs?
What is stdd cabin alt maintained at?
Ctrl valve regulator located in aft px bulkhead monitors cockpit px & auto adjusts the position of the px ctrl valve.
8000ft PA.
103
General flow for how bleed air enters cockpit?
Exception?
Bleed air from RHS P3 port > routed through inflow and/or defog valves > heat exchanger (or bypass) > ejector bypass > FWSO valve > footwarmers/defog vents.
(OBOGS LHS P3 port)
104
Safety valve?
Normally closed, opens to relieve over-px.
105
Dump solenoid?
On grd vs in flt?
Connected to pxisation ctrl valve.
Ground: WoW switch removes power from solenoid, leaving pressuration ctrl valve open.
Airborne: weight off wheels, power applied to solenoid & ctrl valve closes. As the a/c reaches 8000ft PA, the ctrl valve will open & close to regulate cockpit px.
106
Amber CKPT ALT
Red CKPT PX
Amber CKPT ALT: cockpit PA >19,000ft
Red CKPT PX: px diff > 3.9 to 4.0Ppsid
107
Battery or battery bus fails & BUS TIE caution illuminated; what will/will not be powered?
Items on the BATT BUS will NOT be powered
108
BUS TIE Caution illuminated, Generator fails; what will/will not be powered?
Items on GEN BUS will NOT be powered.
Expect a min of 30mins of battery power to BATT BUS items
109
BUS TIE in NORM, generator fails; what will/will not be powered?
GEN BUS fail?
Battery powers all items except air conditioner
If only the generator BUS has failed, the generator will not power the GEN BUS items, but will still continue to power the battery bus & charge the battery
110
Amber EHYD PX LO?
When would you get it?
Emergency accumulator px drops below 2400 +/- 150psi
Normal fluid flow from mains to emergeny system is limited to .25GPM. If rate is exceeded (due to a leak). System allows loss of up to 0.5 Qt before illuminating EHYD PX LO CAS.
Flap & gear can still be extended using main system.
111
In what scenario could an emergency hyd system leak deplete the main system completely?
If the leak rate is less than .25GPM. (nil EHYD PX LO annunciator), mains will deplete until HYD FL LO caution illuminates.
Gear & flap can still be lowered using the main system.
112
What CAS illuminates after discharging the emergency hyd system during hyd qty checks?
EHYD PX LO
Will remain illuminated until the emergency accumulator is re-pressurized.
ENSURE IT HAS GONE OUT PRIOR TO FLIGHT!
113
How to extend emergency flaps?
Emerg LDG gear handle must be pulled first
Select flap lever to either TO or LDG
Emergency selector valve (in emerg hyd system manifold) enables extension.
Flaps cannot be retracted once extended
114
Components of the pressurisation system? (5)
- Control valve
- Safety valve
- Control valve regulator
- Pressure Diff regulator
- Solenoid dump valve (requires power to CLOSE)
