T-1A MQF 27 Jan 2015 Flashcards
(312 cards)
1
Q
An operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ______?
A
Note
2
Q
If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.
A
False
3
Q
Once TCAS announces “clear of conflict,” the pilot should:
A
Expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.
4
Q
Failure to properly set the decision height properly could result in __________.
A
nuisance warnings from the GPWS.
5
Q
If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70° (approximate) compass segment.
A
True
6
Q
The weather radar system detects ____________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path.
A
wet precipitation, ±60°
7
Q
Due to weather radar system limitations, ________.
A
do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather
8
Q
If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing. (
A
True
9
Q
Avoid fingerlift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding throttle toward IDLE.
A
True
10
Q
The weather radar system provides radar data up to _______ NM.
A
300
11
Q
If the WX radar antenna is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a phenomenon known as a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within approximately ______ of aircraft heading.
A
± 10°
12
Q
Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded engine shutdown; however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at time of failure, or retard to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at a high power setting, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the Engine Shutdown During Flight checklist in Section III.
A
True
13
Q
As oxygen cylinders become chilled the pressure is reduced, sometimes quite rapidly. A temperature drop of 100°F will reduce pressure 20%. However, if the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, __________.
A
an oxygen leak should be suspected
14
Q
In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased fuel flow could result in engine cooling.
A
False
15
Q
After flushing the lavatory, __________ to prevent contents from overflowing.
A
leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch
16
Q
If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute is required.
A
False
17
Q
Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.
A
False
18
Q
When using cross-side attitude information, pilots should cross-check ________ with other reliable instruments.
A
All of the above:
position
attitude
altitude
19
Q
Asterisk (*) items in the checklist:
A
need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day
20
Q
While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attention should be given to detect fluid leakage.
A
True
21
Q
The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle.
A
False
22
Q
Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door during flight.
A
True
23
Q
During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system.
A
True
24
Q
During the Exterior Inspection, how many aft compartment circuit breaker panels are required to be checked?
A
3
25
When the nose wheel mechanical disconnect pin is disconnected, nose wheel steering is still available.
False
26
Failure to check all _______ door locking pins showing white can result in the door opening in flight.
8
27
If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted and the aircraft should not be flown.
True
28
An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight.
True
29
Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin and push button retainer bar will:
All of the above:
make hatch inoperable from the outside.
make hatch inoperable from the inside the aircraft.
delay emergency ground egress from the escape hatch.
30
Repeated tests of the AHRS battery are acceptable and will validate AHRS battery performance.
False
31
When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _____ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements.
1,000
32
Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________.
could damage the threads or needle valve seat
33
When the battery feed test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for:
a & b:
A. FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated
B. STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated
34
After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to "EMER," check for operation of __________.
RTU #1
35
Landing with brakes applied could result in_________ due to failure of the touchdown protection.
All of the above:
Blown tires
Potential runway departure
Damage to the aircraft
36
The H STAB DEICE TEST position will:
b & c:
B. check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions
C. applies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six
37
When checking the stall warning system _______________.
a & b:
A. the master test switch must remain in L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice
B. check that the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication
38
When testing the indicator lights, the following lights do not illuminate:
All of the above:
red landing gear unlocked indicator
starter DISENGAGE button
ENG START buttons
39
When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate:
twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7.
40
After selecting the left tank during the fuel crossfeed check, these lights will illuminate:
Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
41
When running the pitch or roll trim switch for _____ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate.
5
42
During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physically check the flight controls.
True
43
If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the second engine until the first engine's loadmeter reads below _____ amps
150
44
For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at IDLE.
True
45
The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position.
3
46
While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test.
True
47
Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ___________.
horizontal stabilizer
48
If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact.
True
49
Do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT.
10
50
An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below_____.
5°F
51
When checking wing and engine anti-ice in the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, the throttles should be set at a minimum of _____ to ensure that the wing anti-ice valve is open.
70% N2
52
When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps _______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of ice being cast off from the tires.
retracted
53
An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a _____?
Caution
54
During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of _____ minutes behind a large aircraft or helicopters. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced.
2, 5
55
For a wake turbulence takeoff:
with an effective crosswind over 5 knots, the interval may be reduced
56
After the gear is retracted on a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of_____ until reaching _____ feet above field elevation.
Vco + 10; 400
57
When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of _____ degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to _____ degrees.
15; 10; 30
58
During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position.
True
59
For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at _____.
LOW
60
Ignition switches should be turned to the ON position when __________.
b and c:
B. when flying through turbulence and/or visible precipitation
C. for all takeoffs, approaches, and landings
61
During the cruise check, a temperature drop of _____°F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%.
100, 20
62
Manual damping of dutch roll may be required in takeoff and landing (when the yaw damper is off) or in the event of a yaw damper failure. Manual damping of dutch roll is best accomplished:
with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation
63
Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at _____, enroute descent is flown at _____, and rapid descent is flown at _____.
230, 250, 330
64
Maximum range descent is _________.
idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 ft, 230 KIAS below 35,900 ft.
65
During preflight or postflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve ______.
is acceptable
66
Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear.
False
67
Use of stabilizer trim for round-out in the flare could induce a strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted.
True
68
In the event of a suspected hard landing:
a & b:
A. make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed, and approximate vertical velocity at touchdown.
B. gear should remain down and the mission terminated.
69
Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ____ KIAS.
6
70
The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to _______ knots indicated airspeed. Higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.
200
71
The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.
True
72
Failure to properly reset the trim can result in _________________.
All of the above:
A. lower than normal yoke forces
B. over-rotation
C. higher than normal yoke forces
73
Which of the following is true concerning the stall characteristics of the T-1A?
B. The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes.
74
Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously.
False
75
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway:
do not retract flaps beyond 10°.
76
If the parking brake is set from the copilot’s side:
a & c:
A. the binding could affect action from the pilot’s side at a later time.
C. temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur.
77
During crossfeed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi.
False
78
If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.
True
79
If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed, _____________.
the takeoff should be continued
80
If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected.
False
81
Which statement(s) are true?
a & b:
A. Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots).
B. Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables.
82
If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of crossfeed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected.
True
83
Due to the fact that the base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended, personnel should use caution to avoid personal injury when using this exit.
True
84
With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5 MHz) be tuned?
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker
85
If UHF guard mode was on when dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available.
True
86
Using the engine fire switchlights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve.
True
87
Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?
a & b:
A. Turns off the squelch.
B. Returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure.
88
NAV auto-tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position.
True
89
In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?
Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
90
Securing the engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to reaching _______.
a & c:
A. 400 ft AGL
C. clear of obstructions
91
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time.
False
92
Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties.
True
93
If a spin is entered:
simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.
94
During a starter assisted air start, a relight should normally be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle.
10
95
During a windmilling air start, should the temperature rise in such a manner as to indicate an imminent hot start, the throttle should be placed in CUTOFF, and windmill the engine for ____ seconds before attempting another start.
30
96
On V-MDA type approaches, the FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try to comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach.
True
97
During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement.
True
98
The switchlight in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _____ on the respective engine.
a & b:
A. main fuel line shutoff valve
B. hydraulic valve
99
The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.
False
100
Rudder boost is provided by the rudder servo of the autopilot.
True
101
In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the BATTERY switch to the EMER position causes the battery to power the _________________.
All of the above:
emergency bus
standby bus
standby battery
102
During the SMOKE AND FUMES IN AIRCRAFT checklist, the bleed air source selector must remain in each position long enough (approximately _______ seconds) to allow adequate system purging to determine the source of smoke.
20
103
With oil pressure below _____ psi, execute engine shutdown during flight checklist.
40
104
If high oil temperature is experienced, _______________.
throttle on the affected engine should be increased within N1 limits
105
While trying to eliminate smoke or fumes from inside the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of _______ feet.
12,500 ± 1,500
106
Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed ______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling fuel through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than _______ minutes.
121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 15
107
If you have an EFC failure:
matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause overboosting of the other engine.
108
If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filter is purifying the fuel to the engine.
False
109
Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the affected wing tank.
200
110
If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.
True
111
If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by _____ % N2, press the starter disengage button.
45
112
Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position.
True
113
An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed is a ____?
Warning
114
Ground fault protection is provided by the ________.
battery protection circuits
115
Air entering the cabin for pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.
True
116
In the event of a bleed air duct failure annunciator illumination, if the wing anti-ice switch was in use, subsequently turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.
True
117
If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically.
True
118
Upon landing, if a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes, _______
immediately place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.
119
The emergency descent procedure is a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment.
True
120
To execute an emergency descent:
All of the above:
you may use a moderate bank up to 45° to aid in lowering the nose
lower the nose approximately 20°
accelerate to 330 KIAS or .78 MACH whichever is slower
121
The maximum zero fuel weight is _______ pounds.
13,000
122
During a controllability check, the aircraft speed must be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight in order to properly evaluate handling characteristics at slow speeds.
False
123
Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30°.
True
124
When executing a forced landing without power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction.
False
125
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system.
False
126
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker.
True
127
Electrical loads up to _____ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500 feet.
280
128
If operating below 32,500 feet, single generator operations load capacity is _____ amps.
400
129
Partial failure of the electrical system may necessitate degrading electrical systems to reduce electrical loads imposed on the operating generator.
True
130
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, all electrical power except the items on the emergency bus and DC standby bus are lost. Which of the following will NOT occur?
Both normal and emergency pitch trim will be lost
131
During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF and reset them one at a time.
True
132
Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators.
True
133
The BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the overhead panel illuminates with any of three possible malfunctions. Which statement is correct in its entirety?
If the light is accompanied by only the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator, check the EMER BUS FDR circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has tripped and will not reset, subsequent loss of the left load buss will result in loss of the emergency bus.
134
When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery _____________ and ___________.
relay is open; battery charging will not occur
135
If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as they stay securely fastened.
False
136
The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that:
A and/or B:
A. the cabin door upper lock pins are not fully seated
B. the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked
137
The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the:
cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 ± 500 feet
138
Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than _____ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ feet per minute.
15, 500
139
Under windshear approach procedures, reference groundspeed is computed by ________ the surface headwind component (or __________ the tailwind component) from approach true airspeed.
subtracting, adding
140
An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below ____°F.
5
141
If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged.
False
142
The Pilot Flying must announce to the crew when the autopilot is engaged or disengaged.
True
143
Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft.
False
144
The flight crew will make all necessary entries in AFTO 781 to indicate when any limitations have been exceeded. Entries shall include:
All the above:
time interval (where applicable)
actual instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded
amount and duration of an over temperature
145
Do not operate surface anti-ice systems in flight at ram air temperatures above 10°C.
True
146
The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for all landings.
False
147
With respect to brake energy limitations, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes in stopping the aircraft within a given stopping distance, regardless of whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or in a series of short applications.
True
148
Maximum Braking Speed is the brake application speed from which the aircraft may be brought to a full stop without exceeding the energy absorption capability of the brakes. This energy absorption corresponds to the fuse plug brake energy, ________ million FT-LB per brake.
4.05
149
When _____ million foot pounds are absorbed, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires.
8.1
150
If hot brakes are suspected:
all of the above:
the aircraft should not be taxied any more than is necessary to clear the active runway
the aircraft should not be maneuvered into a crowded parking area
the parking brake should not be set and do not approach overheated brakes for one half hour
151
The thermal fused screws are designed to soften and blow out, releasing air pressure in the tires when the temperature reaches approximately _______° F?
430
152
Takeoffs are permitted with partial wing fuel and fuel in the fuselage tanks.
False
153
For practice approach to stalls calculate _____and use as Go-around % N1.
MCT
154
During stall recoveries, placing the control column forward of neutral may:
result in accelerations below 0 g, exceeding the aircraft acceleration limit with flaps extended
155
During a windshear recovery, until downward momentum is arrested and an adequate rate of climb is achieved, the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick shaker
True
156
Accumulations of ½ inch of ice can add ________ pounds or more to the aircraft gross weight.
500
157
Apply ______% of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb, and take-off ground run and zero wind climbout factor.
150
158
After checking flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces.
True
159
The total energy absorbed by the brakes assumes equal distribution between left and right brakes. Uneven toe pressure or numerous turns in the same direction can cause one side to absorb more energy than the other. As a result, thermal fuse plug release may occur prior to 8.1 million foot-pounds.
True
160
Take-off rated thrust is the maximum allowable thrust (determined by fan speed, %N1) and varies with _________.
all of the above:
pressure altitude
ram air temperature
engine bleed air usage
161
Increase approach speed and touchdown speed by 50% of the gust increment, not to exceed a ____ knot correction.
10
162
Vmcg is _____ KIAS, and is the minimum controllable speed during the takeoff run, at which an engine is failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than _____ feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway.
88, 25
163
Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to ________.
personnel movement within the cabin area
164
A PIC may only deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3, flight rule, ATC clearance:
all of the above:
to protect life
for safety of flight
or when an inflight emergency requires immediate action
165
When an alternate airport is required and the pilot uses both ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel:
need not include the fuel required for a missed approach at the destination.
166
In the absence of MAJCOM-defined consumption rates, when computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for:
best endurance at 10,000 ft MSL
167
Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are responsible for avoiding:
all the above:
traffic
terrain/obstacles
environmental hazards
168
Do not turn after a takeoff until at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless:
a or c above:
A. safety dictates otherwise
C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure
169
When the anti-skid fail caution annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode
True
170
Retractable gear aircraft will report gear down status to ATC or runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear. This report shall be made during any approach prior to crossing the _____.
runway threshold
171
If operationally necessary, AETC/A3 authorizes the PIC to ensure aircraft vertically clears all obstacles along the missed approach path OEI by subtracting up to ____ feet per NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient.
48
172
USAF fixed-wing aircraft must be flown under IFR to the maximum extent practical and shall fly under IFR if:
all of the above:
weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
airspace rules require IFR flight (e.g. Class A airspace)
operating in excess of 180 knots true airspeed (KTAS) within (not simply crossing) federal airways
operating fixed wing aircraft at night, unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR
173
An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than:
b and c above:
B. ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 sm
C. may be reduced to 1,500 feet and visibility of 3 sm with two or more suitable independent precision approaches
174
If operationally necessary, AETC/A3 authorizes the operations supervisor (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) to ensure the aircraft vertically clears all obstacles along the planned departure path OEI by subtracting up to ____ feet per NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient.
48
175
In the event a formation is unable to maintain VMC while aborting a low level, lead will direct the route abort, giving base heading and ERAA at a minimum. Lead will set ______ and initiate a climb to ERAA at ______ KIAS (unless otherwise briefed). The wingman will set _____, initiate a climb at ______ KIAS (unless otherwise briefed) to ERAA plus 1,000 feet. While executing the climb, wingman will ensure lateral separation (wingman will normally execute lost wingman procedures while executing the climb to the directed altitude). Once obstacle clearance is assured, the wingman may set power as required to attain ______mile spacing. WARNING: The wingman is responsible for avoiding obstacles while performing the lost wingman procedure. Wingman must remain situationally aware at all times.
MCT; 250; MCT; 220; 1
176
For fixed wing aircraft, the worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain, or snow showers) will meet or exceed the highest of:
All of the above:
a ceiling of 1,000 feet
a visibility of 2 sm
a ceiling of 500 feet above the lowest compatible minimum
a visibility of 1 sm above the lowest compatible minimum
177
Which of the following conditions does not disqualify an alternate?
all compatible approaches at the alternate require the use of GNSS and planning to the destination was based on the use of traditional ground based NAVAIDs.
178
AETC/A3 authorizes AETC fixed wing multi-engine aircraft to depart VFR even if they do not meet published IFR departure climb gradients with one engine inoperative. The PIC will:
A and B above:
A. complete a thorough review of the planned departure track
B. ensure terrain and obstacle clearance
179
If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, AETC/A3 authorizes a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure. A VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure is to be used when?
A and B above:
A. as a last resort
B. when the mission priority justifies the increased risk
180
For cold weather altitude corrections, add the values derived from the FIH temperature correction chart to the published procedure altitudes and advise ATC if any applied correction exceeds _____ feet.
80
181
When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes:
homing
182
When does the wingman maneuver to the stack level position for a formation tactical overhead pattern entry?
Initial
183
When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
5, 10
184
When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet.
75
185
Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent.
False
186
Which is a correct standard holding pattern?
Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet
187
Wing commander approval is the lowest approval authority required to perform practice instrument approaches under VFR.
False
188
ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within ______minutes of reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, reduce to holding airspeed.
5, 3
189
Alternate Air Refueling rendezvous procedures in order of precedence are primary _________, secondary_______, tertiary_________.
Use the computed backup timing; receiver calls miles from the ARCP (off FMS) every 2 NM; Receiver calls DME off of the NAVAID defining the ARIP/ARCP line every 2 NM (if applicable)
190
Using the 70 degree method for holding, if the inbound holding course is not within 70° of the aircraft heading:
both b and c above:
B. turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
C. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, either parallel or attempt to intercept course inbound.
191
During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:
maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the instrument approach
192
Before reaching the IAF:
all of the above:
recheck the weather (if appropriate).
review the IAP.
check the heading and attitude systems.
obtain clearance for the approach.
193
For radar vector weather requirements, when the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course as follows:
all of the above:
A. at least 1 mile for the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 20 degrees
B. at least 3 miles for the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30 degrees
C. at all other times, unless specifically requested by the pilot, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least 3 miles from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30 degrees.
194
Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseology “Descend Via” shall inform ATC upon initial contact with a new frequency:
True
195
As a technique, if the receiver is less than ______ of the computed turn range (half-way through the turn) or the bearing pointer is below the ______ degree index, an overrun can be expected.
1/3; 45
196
During cell, lead will fly ________ KIAS
220
197
Unless the IAP specifies otherwise, the remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from:
the procedure turn fix
198
The parking brake should not be set ___________________.
All of the above:
A. if the brakes are hot
B. during low temperatures, when an accumulation of moisture is present
C. using the copilot's brake pedals
199
With respect to RNAV approaches, computation of the GPS final approach course is based on the station magnetic variation retrieved from the aircraft’s database and many aircraft lack the capability to update the magnetic variation. Therefore this will cause a difference between the displayed GPS final approach course and the charted final approach course. Variation between the charted and computed final approach course should be no more than _____ degrees. If the two differ by more than _____ degrees, the procedure is not authorized.
5, 5
200
The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.
30
201
When flying an ILS, if you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope, you:
a or c above:
A. do not descend below localizer minimums
C. may continue descent to decision altitude/height if the glide slope is recaptured within the above tolerance.
202
In the event of flap system malfunction, the circuit breaker, placarded FLAP, should be pulled to prevent further flap actuation due to air loads or switch contact proximity
True
203
Noise cancelling headsets are approved for use in the T-1.
False
204
Receipt of only bearing or only DME while flying a TACAN approach indicates a malfunctioning TACAN. If backup timing is published, it is permissible to use the timing to replace DME.
False
205
Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. The worst situation would occur if a 199-foot obstacle sat on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC (1:500,000) with a contour interval of 500 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain.
True
206
Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace:
Both A and B:
A. Pilots must be in two-way radio communication with ATC
B. Unless otherwise authorized, when within 4 nm of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL, do not exceed 200 KIAS.
207
In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost ____________.
a & c:
A. flap asymmetry detection is not available
C. the flap position indicator will be inoperative
208
Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is ________.
4° F; decreasing
209
USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000’), or G (below 10,000’) airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _______ feet horizontal.
3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
210
Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _______ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots _____ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFR from an airport within Class B airspace, ______ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC. (
10,000; must; obtain
211
Thunderstorms are responsible for two out of every three windshear events and are also often responsible for the most hazardous form of windshear, the microburst.
True
212
For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above ____ KIAS, below _____ KIAS, and above ____ feet AGL.
130, 270, 5,000
213
When conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority to allow units to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply?
All of the above:
maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
use terminal radar service when available
make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217, Volume 2.
request ATC clearance to fly the published missed approach.
214
USAF Aircraft flying in FAA Class C and D airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _______ feet horizontal.
3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
215
Operational check flights may be performed during student training sorties if the checks do not interfere with the training objectives.
True
216
On taxi, when obstacles affect only one wingtip, the marshaller may also act as the wing walker and direct the aircraft while monitoring the affected wingtip. This requirement does not apply at the home station when fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of ____ feet of wingtip clearance from obstacles and other aircraft.
10
217
The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is ______________________.
6,000 feet, critical field length, or the distance to reach reference zero whichever is greater
218
What will cause the speed brakes to automatically retract?
A or B above:
A. Flap extension beyond the 10° position
B. Either throttle advanced to approximately the "NORM T.O." position
219
The minimum runway length for full stop landings is ____________________.
6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater
220
Single engine and no flap tactical overheads are prohibited (simulated or actual).
True
221
Minimum runway length restrictions may be waived on a case by case basis by the _______________.
Operations Group Commander
222
If a Form F requires fuel to remain in the tank in order to keep the aircraft within CG limits under certain crew or cargo complements, crews may plan on utilizing this fuel for the planned sortie.
False
223
For student syllabus sorties, minimum briefing times are determined IAW the syllabus. For all other sorties, the minimum brief time will be ___________ prior to scheduled takeoff. The aircraft commander will determine briefing requirements for off-station sorties.
1 hour and 30 minutes
224
Aircrew members must wear approved flight gloves during:
A and C above:
A. external aircraft inspection
C. aircraft servicing
225
Failure to set the proper AOA value ________________.
may cause an erroneous on-speed indication
226
Water droplets in the free air, unlike bulk water, do not freeze at 0 degrees C. Instead, their freezing temperature varies from -10 to -40 degrees C. The smaller the droplets, the lower the freezing point. As a general rule, serious icing is rare in clouds with temperatures below -20 degrees C since these clouds are almost completely composed of ice crystals.
True
227
The secondary flight controls are ___________________.
All of the above:
flaps
speed brakes
all trim systems
a and c above
228
Maintain a minimum of ______ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing in daytime.
150
229
Simulated single-engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least ______ feet and _____ statute miles (sm) or circling minimums, whichever is greater.
2000; 3
230
Aircrew will fly a minimum of _____ feet above the highest unseen obstacle within ____ NM of the aircraft. Once the obstacle is visually acquired, aircrews will fly a minimum of ____ feet above, or laterally avoid the obstacle by a minimum of ______ feet.
500; 2; 500; 2,000
231
Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order):
Locally approved mission execution forecasts, local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station
232
When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from
an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS).
233
Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north.
True
234
If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately following the letter "G" (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or _______ speed.
peak wind
235
The weather requirements for USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace are:
3 sm; clear of clouds
236
Regarding VFR operations within class C airspace, pilot participation within the _____ nm outer area is ________. If class C radar services provided in the outer area are discontinued either through pilot request or ATC workload does not permit, USAF crews _____ continue to monitor the appropriate ATC frequency.
20; voluntary; should
237
Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting P5000FT, this means:
RVR is greater than 5,000 feet.
238
Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft?
a & c:
A. A loud report will be audible
C. Engine restart is not possible
239
The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section.
True
240
You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution.
True
241
Discoloration, crazing, or scratches will weaken the structural strength of the windows
False
242
During _____, to avoid obscuring visibility, the sun visors must be in the stowed position
A & B:
A. takeoff
B. landing
243
The green overboard oxygen discharge indicator on the right side of the nose section, provides a visual indication when an overpressure condition has existed in the oxygen cylinder. When the blowout disk is missing, the entire oxygen supply has been vented overboard. Thermal expansion will cause the disc to blow out when the pressure in the oxygen cylinder reaches approximately _____.
2700 psi
244
For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment.
False
245
All checklist items are to be read and the individual responsible for each item must reply with the appropriate response.
True
246
During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required.
True
247
During formation flight the wingman loses sight of lead in VMC. The wingman will:
All of the above:
call “blind” and state their altitude
follow lead’s instructions to ensure positive altitude separation
maneuver away from lead’s last known position
only A and B above
248
Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PF sets _____, and they memorize _____ if different than S1.
S1, Vco, Vrot
249
Cross-check your _____ and _____ as the primary references for VFR recoveries, and general area orientation.
chart, area landmarks
250
Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft.
True
251
Before starting traffic pattern stalls, set the yaw damper to off, set the AOA indexer to 1.3, set the proper approach speed on the airspeed indicator, and calculate the MCT and set on the N1 indicator, and clear the area.
True
252
Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering, or configuration.
True
253
When accomplishing rectangular patterns, fly the base turn to arrive at a _____ to _____ mile final.
1, 1.5
254
Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G Airspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _______ MSL. At and above this altitude is Class _____ Airspace.
14,500’; E
255
Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings in the aircraft.
True
256
When receiving your clearance from clearance delivery, you are informed that you are cleared as filed. This means the routes and altitudes in your flight plan have been approved. (FLIP)
False
257
When ATC authorizes “cleared for the option,” this allows an aircraft to perform which of the following? (FLIP)
Any of the above:
touch and go
full stop
low/missed approach
stop and go
258
Class A airspace extends from _____ MSL to FL _____.
18,000, 600
259
Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches?
Circling
260
When cleared for a descent at the pilot's discretion, you may temporarily level off at any intermediary altitude; however, once that altitude is vacated, you may not return to that altitude.
True
261
When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed ± _____ knots or ±_____ mach.
10, 0.02
262
On a Sectional or TAC, Class B airspace is depicted by ______ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in ______ indicating hundreds of feet.
solid blue lines, solid blue numbers
263
On a Sectional or TAC, Class C airspace is depicted by ________ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _______ indicating hundreds of feet.
solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers
264
On a Sectional or TAC, Class D Airspace is depicted by ________ indicating the lateral confines of the airspace, with the ceiling of the airspace depicted in _______.
dashed blue lines, blue dashed-boxed numbers
265
On a Sectional or TAC, Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are depicted by ________ indicating the various sectors within the area, with ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _______ indicating hundreds of feet.
screened black lines, solid black numbers
266
Students in formal flying training programs do not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day, unless authorized in the applicable syllabus.
True
267
The objective of CAP is to focus supervisory attention on a student's progress in training/screening, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.
True
268
Many items are required by aircrew to be considered Mission Ready. Out of those items listed below, which of the following must have been accomplished and/or maintained?
All of the above:
satisfactory completion of initial and mission qualification(s) along with proficiency
a flight physical and egress training
instrument refresher and CRM training
A and B above
269
When throttles are advanced to ______ on the ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 to 120 foot differential.
takeoff position
270
Aircrew members that fail to complete their semiannual CT requirements for the half are allowed to fly in Mission Ready status in the new period. This is because the Operations Group Commander has no need to review, waive, or assign additional training to the offending aircrew member. Furthermore there is no need to document anything in the individual’s training folder.
False
271
Verbal coordination between the pilot flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when control of the aircraft is transferred, repositioning fuel control switches (other than preflight checks), a crew member leaves position or goes On or Off interphone, a crew member goes On or Off oxygen, any electrical power source is changed (other than preflight checks), the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, the PF intends to perform any critical maneuver - takeoff or abort, landing, go-around, or touch and go.
True
272
The cabin is manually depressurized in case of an emergency by turning the control counterclockwise _____ complete revolutions. This proportionately vents the outflow safety valve’s control chambers and when the outflow safety valves open, depressurizing the cabin to a maximum of _________ feet.
7; 12,500 ± 1500
273
Out of the answers listed below, what “other” conditions require an alternate?
All of the above:
All compatible approaches require radar
Required navigational aids will be unmonitored
No weather reporting capability and/or the lowest compatible approach minimums are greater than or equal to 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 sm visibility
Forecast winds exceed aircraft tech order limits ± 1 hour of ETA
274
Out of the answers listed below, what conditions disqualify an alternate?
A & B:
A. Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
B. All compatible approaches at the alternate require use of GNSS and planning to the destination was also based on the use of only GNSS approaches
275
Declare “minimum fuel” or “emergency fuel” to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves.
True
276
For manned aircraft night operations, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight.
True
277
Before takeoff or while airborne, changes may be made to the original filed flight plan with re-filing provided: (
All of the above:
The change does not penetrate an ADIZ
The controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight
The change complies with applicable host-nation rules
278
For operations on published RNAV routes (Q or T routes), if RNAV routes cannot be retrieved from the database, selecting and inserting ALL of the named fixes from the database is permitted.:
True
279
By filing a fight plan, the PIC certifies all of the following except:
The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight
280
Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are relieved of their responsibility for avoiding traffic, terrain/obstacles, and environmental hazards.:
False
281
Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC.
False
282
Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within _____ hours prior to _____ or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
12; takeoff
283
If utilizing an RNAV system on a conventional route or procedure, it is permissible to retrieve all NAVAIDs, fixes, and procedures from an expired database provided you can verify with current FLIP.
False
284
Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible to sense and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles
True
285
Aircrew have the requirement to tune, identify, monitor and _____ the appropriate ground-based NAVAID whenever practicable
display
286
VFR-over-the-top is:
when an aircraft on a VFR flight plan that departs and climbs over the clouds in VMC, maintains VMC above the clouds, then descends in VMC and lands.
287
VFR-on-top is:
is ATC authorization for an aircraft on an IFR clearance to operate at VFR altitudes of their choice in VMC.
288
If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used.
False
289
The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice and de-ice systems must operate together. Should either system fail, both must be turned off.
True
290
For VFR operations within the Outer Area adjacent to Class C airspace, participation of radar services is:
a and c:
A. strongly encouraged
C. can be discontinued at pilot request
291
Prior to entering Class C airspace when operating under VFR, pilots must be in two way radio communication with ATC. What constitutes this “two-way” radio communication requirement?
ATC including the aircraft’s call sign in the radio call
292
If the Manual Deice (Backup) switch for the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice system is held in the MANUAL position longer than momentarily, power to the gap heater elements will be maintained for more than ______ and overheating could result
30 seconds
293
With respect to manual deice operation, to avoid damage to the electrothermal heating elements in the mats, manual mode must not be used for deicing on the ground due to:
potential overheating with insufficient airflow for cooling
294
The air data systems anti-ice heaters are powered separately for the pilot and copilot systems from the left and right overhead bus respectively
True
295
Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT except for preflight check.
10
296
Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems:
all of the above:
Mach/airspeed indicator
RA/VSI
altimeters
297
Before flying under VFR, USAF pilots must brief actions to be taken in the event of inadvertent penetration of IMC. If IMC is encountered while flying under VFR, USAF pilots will ______.
make every effort to maintain VMC
298
Use of the high heat mode of the windshield is authorized during takeoff and landing
False
299
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a & b:
A. The magnetic compass is unreliable when the windshield heat is set to HIGH.
B. The magnetic compass is erratic and unreliable when the side window defog heater/blower units are operating.
300
When taking off with engine anti-ice on, in all cases aircrew set the throttles to the TRT calculated based on the:
actual runway conditions, not based on the 400 or 1,500 feet AGL higher deconfiguration altitude
301
OG/CC approval is required to RON on the civilian side of a Joint-Use airfield.
True
302
Aircrew will add “departure” to their “gear down” call on their last pattern at CSM.
True
303
Formation maneuvers should not be conducted in AR70/60
True
304
If in the chocks when Lightning within 5 miles of Vance Air Force Base is called, aircrew will __________ until the Lightning Within 5 is lifted
remain in their aircraft
305
When cleared the block you are cleared the area block altitude while proceeding from present position and may maneuver once established in the altitude block up to 45 degrees from a direct line to the assigned area
True
306
If conditions permit, aircrews should burn down additional fuel when calculated landing “Hot Brakes Speed” is less than “Touchdown Speed” for the following situations:
All of the above:
When accomplishing 10-flap full stop special syllabus requirements.
Icing is encountered during flight that will force a 10-flap full stop landing.
Performing 10-flap full stop landings during crosswind or gusty wind conditions.
307
For all student training sorties, crews will use the “THROTTLES” call as the go/no-go decision point.
True
308
If a climb or descent is required through forecasted or reported moderate icing, SUP approval will be needed when:
Both A and B:
A. The icing conditions are greater than 5,000 ft thick
B. The icing conditions start below the minimum safe altitude
309
If a student earns an overall grade of UNSAT, the IP is not required to notify the FLT/CC and scheduler prior to departing the squadron
False
310
Instructors and students are not restricted from planning to locations with a forecast AHAS/BAM risk of severe, but must mitigate the potential for increased bird activity
True
311
At Vance AFB, aircrews can taxi into or out of parking spots under the “sun shades” or past AGE without a marshaller.
False
312
Non-standard formation advisory calls are not required for flights that are cleared “MANEUVERING.”
True
