T B Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
How does an alpaca acquire a meningeal worm infection?
A) From biting flies
B) By cutaneous larval migration
C) By ingestion of snails or slugs which may be intermediate hosts.
D) By ingestion of water containing larvae of the parasite
E) by ingestion of deer feces on contaminated pastures.
A
C) By ingestion of snails or slugs which may be intermediate hosts.
2
Q
Which one of the following statements is true concerning CLA in goats?
A) Treatment of CLA with large doses of antibiotics usually results in resolution of disease within 2 months.
B) There are two forms of CLA: Internal and External
C) Culling of infected animals with CLA is not necessary due to the fact that the disease is not communicable
D) It is possible to include both vax’d and unvax/d animals in an ELISA screening program and get accurate results
E) Proper vax for CLA will usually eliminate the risk of most new infections and sometimes cures infected animals.
A
B) There are two forms.
3
Q
A lactating ewe is found down one morning in a lush pasture after a period of rain. She was in distress, paddling, and unable to rise. What is your tentative diagnosis?
A) Encephalitis
B) Botulism
C) Copper toxicosis
D) Tetanus
E) Hypomagnesemia
A
E) Hypomagnesemia
4
Q
What is the most common clinical manifestation of CAE virus infection in goats?
A) Chronic interstital pneumonia
B) mononuclear infiltration of the mammary gland
C) Leukoencephalomyelitis
D) Chronic hyperplastic synovitis
E) Lymph node hyperplasia
A
D) chronic hyperplastic synovitis
5
Q
Which of the following statements is true concerning white muscle disease in sheep?
A) The cardiac form is most commonly observed
B) there is no recommended prevention for this problem.
C) Corticosteroids are an important part of therapy
D) Star gazing is an important clinical stage
E) Stiff gait and/or muscular weakness are common clinical manifestations.
A
E) Stiff gait and/or muscular weakness are common clinical manifestations.
6
Q
Bayril is a broad spectrum antibiotic used in animals. It is labeled for use in cattle for treatment of bovine respiratory disease (BRD). Your client wants to use it for foot rot. Can you prescribe this as an extra label use drug?
A) Yes, I can prescribe what I want.
B) Yes, even though other drugs are labeled for treatment of foot rot I can prescribe it ELUD.
C) no, it is illegal to prescribe baytril for ELUD.
D) Only if the cow is milking and over 20 months old.
A
C) no, it is illegal to prescribe baytril for ELUD
7
Q
The causative agent for bovine mammillitis is:
A) pox virus
B) Herpes virus
C) parapox virus
D) irritation from teat dip products
E) Papilloma Virus
A
B) herpes virus
8
Q
Which one of the following ovine parasites is associated more with clinical signs of anemia and acute death than with diarrhea?
A) Mullerius capillaries
B) monezia expansa
C) melophagus ovinus
D) dicrocoelium dendriticum
E) Haemonchus contortus
A
E) Haemonchus contortus
9
Q
What is FARAD?
A
The food animal residue avoidance databank
10
Q
With current technology, which one of the following diseases can be eradicated from sheep flock.
A) OPP, strongylosis, footrot
B) itch mites, CLA, scrapies
C) Pink eye, footrot, itch mites
D) footrot, CLA, OPP
E) Scrapies, strongylosis, pink eye
A
D) footrot, CLA, OPP
11
Q
The treatment of choice for pink eye in a Saanan goat would be:
A) topical or systemic oxytetracycline
B) Parenteral procaine penicllin G
C) Parenteral tilmicosin
D) topical furazolidone
E) topical chloramphenicol
A
A) topical or systemic oxytetracycline
12
Q
If a non-vax’d lamb was found down this morning unable to rise with a history of tail docking and castration two weeks ago with rubber bands, what is your primary tentative diagnosis?
A
Clostridal disease
13
Q
Milk protein allergy in dairy cattle is manifested as
A
Urticaria
14
Q
Why would a red coated cattle breed be better adapted to the tropics than a black one?
A
More tolerant of heat.
15
Q
Which on of the following breeds is more resistant to tick borne disease?
Brahma, angus, hereford, shorthorn, limousine
A
Brahma
16
Q
Chornic weight loss in goats is best evaluated within the context of the animal’s ______ and _______
A
within the context of the animals environment and heardmates
17
Q
Which of the following diseases in sheep is important because of zoonotic implications?
OPP, Coccidiosis, Crypto, Meningeal worm, Sheep Ked
A
Crypto
18
Q
What breed serves as a model for Tay-Sachs disease?
A
Jakobs
19
Q
A kid presents to owner with weakness, lethargy, and facial swellings. What would be a likely diagnosis?
A
Hypoproteinemia
20
Q
Congenital porphyria is a genetic disorder seen in what breed of cattle?
A
Holstein
21
Q
The classification for both frostbite and thermal burns is based upon degree. Which degree is characterized by blister formation?
A
2nd
22
Q
What type of vax is used for parapox virus in sheep?
A
Live virus
23
Q
Fly predators are:
A
tiny wasps that prey on fly larvae and pupae
24
Q
What hormone is secreted in the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
25
Which one of the following statments is true:
A) cattle should be moved out of a pen from the back of the pen
B) cattle cannot hear high pitched sounds
C) solid sides are not needed on a loading ramp for cattle
D) a crowd pen should be full to make it work properly
E) an animals flight zone will vary depending on how calm it is
E) an animals flight zone will vary depending upon how calm it is
26
Which one of the following statements concerning fescue toxicosis in cattle is correct:
A) unlike horses affected with this problem, cattle do not show agalactia as a clinical sign
B) clincial signs of endophyte toxicosis inclue hyperthermia, hyperaslivations, inappetance, and roughened hair coat, along with poor growth.
C) Fescue hay will not cause problems, only fresh grass will cause problems when grazed
D) grass staggers is a main clinical sign
E) the disease is unique to north america
B)
27
What breed cross will usually result in a "black baldy calf"?
Angus X Hereford
28
Dermatomycosis of cattle (is/is not) zoonotic.
Is
29
A thin ewe was in advanced stagees of pregnancy toxemia. The ewe could not get up and is not anemic. What therapy would you recommend to the owner?
Cesarian section
30
Under what circumstances can antibiotics be added to feed in a manner or dose other than that described on the manufacturer's label?
NO OFF LABEL USE OF FEED ADDITIVE DRUGS IS ALLOWED
31
A producer wants to minimize the occurrence of pregnancy toxemia in a flock of crossbred ewes. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
Target the phase of nutrition to avoid extremes in body condition in the pregnant ewe.
32
When coosing an antibiotic in a food animal, you must consider which of the following.
A) withdrawal times
B) label indications
C) Species of the animals
D) all of the above
F) all of the above
33
T/F
| Minimal restraint is preferred for all llama-handling procedures
T
34
You leave a 100 ml bottle of procaine penicllin G at your clients farm with instructions to inject a calf with bactrial pneumonia IM once a day at a dose of 22,000 units/kg. The manufacturer's label lists bacterial pneumonia as an indication at a dose rate of 2,000 units/lb. Is this an extra label use of the drug?
Yes, because of the dose given. Requires an ELUD label
35
Acromonium is a fungus associated with ______ and ______ in cattle and horses
fescue toxicosis and hypogalactia
36
What test would be most accurate in diagnosing the suspected viral cause of a swollen carpus in a goat?
ELISA test
37
What drug are banned from use in any food animals?
Phenylbutazone, human insulin, ionophore antibiotics, metronidazole, or enrofloxacin
Metronidazole
38
Which of the following statements is true concerning copper metabolism in sheep.
A) sheep accumulate copper in the liver more readily than other species
B) copper is required for an effective immune response
C) "steely wool" and "swayback" are commonly reported signs of copper deficiency in sheep.
D) copper is required for normal iron metabolism
E) all of the above
E)
39
Beef breed originating in Texas?
Beefmaster
40
One of the oldest beef breeds, developed in europe and praised by the poet Virgil. Also the tallest breed
Chianina
41
Double muscled beef breeds:
1.
2.
1. Belgian Blue.
| 2. Charolais
42
Dairy cattle red and white colored, originated in one of the Channel Islands:
Ayrshire
43
Cattle breed with brown or brown/white coat, dished face, prominant eyes
Jersey
44
What cattle breed was imported into texas for crossbreeding with longhorns and european breeds because of heat tolerance and tick resistance?
Brahma
45
The only dairy breed increasing in numbers in north america?
Jersey
46
_______ often cause lesions on the ventral midline of cattle, while ____ usually cause lesions alone on the dorsum of the back area.
Stephanofilaria,
| Warbles
47
Treatment for ringworm in cattle?
Copper napthenate
48
T/F:
| Removal of growths is an effective treatment method for bovine papillomatosis.
F, it may stimulate an immune response
49
T/F: There is no vax available for bovine papillomatosis
T
50
T/F: There is an effective Vax for prevention of Orf in sheep.
T
51
How would you eradicate topical bont ticks?
dipping or pour on of acaricide bi-weekly.
52
Tick infestation is a major factor in the causation of ____ infection in cattle.
Dermatophilus
53
Sucking lice can cause clinical signs including _____ and ____
anemia and death
54
Screw worms (have/have not) been eradicated from the US?
Have
55
What disease was discovered on the King Ranch in texas and has since been eradicated from the US?
Babesiosis
56
Bovine Anaplasmosis is an
a) infections/non-infectious
b) contagious/non-contagious
c) transmissible/non-transmissible
a) infectious
b) non-contagious
c) transmissible
57
Endemic stability to anaplasmosis can be established in a herd by....
exposing calves to anaplasmosis when materanal or age resistance is high
58
With respect to bovine respiratory system, The major immune response in the nasal passages and trachea of cattle is ______
surface-secreted antibody (IgA)
59
Why perform immunofluoresence testing on nasal mucosal epithelium samples?
Samples easily obtained, eval of paired serum samples requires too long of a time delay in getting a dx (?)
60
Classic sign of interstital emphysema in cattle:
Expiratory dyspnea
61
What drug is approved for therapy of shipping fever complex in cattle?
Naxel (cetiofur)
62
What antibacterial is approved for use in cattle with resp disease with zero day withdrawal period for slaughter?
Naxel (cetiofur)
63
Cattle:
| Expiratory grunt, dypsnea, and SQ emphysema are clinical signs characteristic of
atypical interstitial emphysema
64
Which type of sound is consistent with pericarditis on thoracic auscultation of a cow with dyspnea, distended jugular veins, and brisket edmea?
Splashing sounds, they are diagnostic
65
Traumatic pericaridits can be confirmed in cattle by using....
auscultation of the heart and confirming presence of both gas and fluid within the pericardium
66
in cattle, which heart valve is most often affected with valvular vegatative endocarditis lesion?
Tricuspid
67
Valvular heart disease in cattle has a (bad/good) prognosis and has a (neutropenia/neutrophilia)
Bad, Neutrophilia
68
The best control for bovine LSA
Taking care to prevent transmission of blood between animals (ie rectal palpation)
69
T/F
| About 50% of cattle infected with bovine LSA virus develop LSA
False
70
The main route for transmission of bovine LSA is...
direct contact with blood of an infected animals
71
Two most common organs involved with LSA in cattle are ___ and ___
Uterus and heart
72
T/F
| A female cow this is positive for LSA can be used for embryo transfer without transmitting the ova.
T
73
The best way to prevent white muscle disease is by..
injection Selenium and Vit E.
74
In addition to low magnesium, which other blood electroylye abnormality is usually present in grass tetany in cattle?
low calcium
75
In calves, lambs, and kids, which structure is most likely to get infected after birth?
Umbilicus
76
Goat breed with short ears =
Lamancha
77
Most common pathogen isolated from the resp. tract of sheep?
Pastuerella (mannheimia) hemolytica
78
Best test for CAE in goats?
1
2
1. AGID
| 2. ELISA
79
The romanov breed of sheep is noted for what characteristic?
Ability to have a litter of lambs at one time
80
What breed of sheep is more susceptible to foot rot?
Merino
81
What breed of sheep has a resistance to parasites?
Red massi
82
What element should you probably add to a ration when there is an outbreak of urethral calculi in a sheep feedlot?
Calcium.
83
What is the therapy of choice for lead toxicosis in sheep?
Calcium versenate
84
Most common clinical manifestation of CAE virus infection in goats less than a year of age?
Leukoencephalomyelitis
85
What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range?
probably indiciative of an acute overwhelming infection
86
5 freedoms:
1. freedrom from hunger and thirst
2. freedom from discomfott
3. freedom from pain, injury, or disease
4. freedom to express normal behavior
5. freedom from fear and distress
87
A male goat is a __/__ and a female goat is a ___/___
billy/buck
doe/nanny
88
A female sheep is a ___ while a male sheep is a ____
ewe
| ram
89
A castrated male sheep or goat is a ___
wether
90
Goat cheese is called ___, white goat meat is referred to as ____.
Sheep cheese is called ___, while sheep meat is called ____
Chevre
chevon
feta
mutton
91
Five common breeds of dairy goats in the US
Nubian, La Mancha, Toggenburg, Alpine, Saanen
92
The ___ breed of goat generally has the richest quality of milk, while the ____ breed usually gives the largest ield.
Nubian
Saanen
93
Fresian is a breed of sheep with what purpose?
A tall black-faced meat type sheep is the ____
Dairy
Suffolk
94
A goat kept mainly as a pet or companion is the _____.
A meat type of goat becoming more popular in the US is the ____
African pygmy
Boer
95
A common hair-type sheep found in the caribbean is the _____
A breed of sheep known for it's fecundity is the _____
A multi horned sheep with a spotted coat color is the _____
Barbados Black Belly
Romanov
Jacob
96
The hornless gene in goats is linked with ________
pseudohermaphrodites
97
The ___ breed of goat originated in New Zealand, while the ____ goat breed originated in south africa
Kiko
Boer
98
The Suffolk sheep breed is affected with the ____ and ____ genes.
Which sheep breed is noted for genetic resistance to parasitism?
Callipyge and Spider-leg genes.
Red Maasai
99
Goats (do/do not) utilize water efficiently?
Do. Almost like camels.
100
____% of goat diet should be roughage.
25%
101
Feed costs of the ewes and her lambs constitue ___% of total lamb production costs
70%
102
_____ and ______ are both metabolic problems of sheep and goats with a nutritional basis
Hypocalcemia and Hypomagnesemia
103
Pregnancy toxemia is associated with energy deficiency in pregnant animals and can be prevented by increasing the energy intake the last (#?) weeks before the expected due dat and by feeding (#?) grain daily per animal
4-6 weeks
.5-1 lb grain
104
______ is a metabolic disease of small ruminants associated with a relative deficiency of Thiamine
Polioencephalomalacia
105
Signs of polioencephalomalacia may include ____ or _____
neuro or rumen inactivity/death
106
Copper deficiency is mainly manifested as ____. A differential diagnosis would be ___ deficiency
anemia
Cobalt
107
Most cases of copper toxicosis are an (acute/chronic) expression of an (acute/chronic) problem. This element is closely linked to ______
acute expression of a chronic problem
Molybdenum
108
What is the major manifestation of iodine deficiency (not goiter)
neonatal mortality
109
In small ruminants, urolithiasis is almost always a disease of (males/females). The usual site for obstruction is the _______.
males.
Vermiform process
110
3 factors that may be involved in the pathogenesis of urolithiasis in small ruminants?
water availability/intake, high grain, increased Mg
111
____ toxicosis is associated with inactivation of cholinesterase activity. An appropriate therapy would be administration of _____
Organophosphate
Atropine
112
Clinical Signs of Copper Toxicosis in sheep include
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. Diarrhea
2. Jaundice
3. Anemia
4. Hemoglobinuria
113
Treatment of choice for lead toxicosis
Calcium versanate, Ca EDTA
114
Acute sudden death caused by taxine from the ____ plant may be diagnosed from contents in the ___/_____.
Yew
| mouth/rumen
115
Vomiting in small ruminants may be associated with _____. another plant toxicosis
Rhododendron
116
A type of toxicosis associated with ingestion of moldy feed and characterized by hepatitis would be ________
aflatoxicosis
117
Most important abomasal parasite of small ruminants
Haemonchus controtus (barber pole worms)
118
Clinical signs of haemonchus contortus
1
2.
3.
1. Bottle Jaw
2. Anemia
3. Weight loss
119
Coccidiosis usually affects what age animals?
| Treatment may include ____, ___ or ____
> 3 week old.
Sulfonamides, amprolium, ionophores
120
2 main aspects of controlling Haemonchus in small ruminants?
Preventing environmental contamination and Treatment of susceptible animals
121
A type of tapeworm infestation usually manifested by development of cysts in the thorax or abdomen of small ruminants is _______
Taenia Hydatigena
122
Two protozoal disease of sheep and goats that have abortion as a clinical sign are _____ and ______
Sarcocystis and Toxoplasmosis.
123
A protozoal disease of ruminants associated with skin lesions is ______
besnoitiosis
124
A rickettsial disease of ruminants that occurs in the carib as well as africa is _______. It's transmitted by ticks, and is characterized by fever, sudden death, with ____ in the body cavitites
Heartwater (ehrlichia ruminatum)
Jaundice
125
_______ is a zoonotic disease which is a cause of diarrhea, especially in neonates or animals with immunodeficiences
Cryptosporidiunm
126
Probably the most common infectious disease of sheep of all ages is ______ caused by _______
Pneumonia caused by Pastuerella
127
Clinical signs of pneumonia in sheep include _______ and _____
Listlessness and hard bag
128
3 differentials for pneumonia in sheep include
1.
2.
3.
1. CLA
2. Mastitis
3. Parasitic pneumonia (lungworms)
129
An important aspect for the control of infectious foot rot in sheep is that the causitive organisms.....
survives only to a max of 2 weeks off the host
130
Which is a better way to control foot rot:
Vaccines, or Hoof trimming + foot baths
Hoof trimming + foot baths
131
Infectious keratoconjunctivits in sheep and goats is associated with ____ or ____. This disease is known as _____.
Chlamydia or Mycoplasma.
Pink eye
132
Internal lesions of CLA are more common in (sheep/goats).
External lesions are more common in (sheep/goats)
Sheep
Goats
133
Sudden unexplained deaths in a group of feedlot lambs might suggest ______, especially if vaccination had been neglected. ____________ may be a predisposing factor to the disease
Enterotoxemia.
Inadequate levels of fiber in the diet
134
Clostrol immunity to tetanus in lambs lasts for how long?
4-6 weeks
135
Stiffness and lameness due to coronitis may be the only clinical signs in mild ______, making foot rot and laminitis differentials
Bluetongue
136
(morbidity/mortality) for bluetongue is very high.
____ aggravates the clinical symptoms of the disease
morbidity
UV light
137
An example of a viral disease which may be asymptomatic in sheep and highly fatal in cattle is _____-
malignant catarrhal fever
138
The control program for scrapie in the US uses the ____ biopsy test
3rd eyelid
139
Vax for ecthyma utilizes a ___ virus vaccine
Live
140
Abnormal enlargement of the mammary gland in goat kids is sometimes referred to as ______
witch's milk
141
Hygromas are common in goats, especially those affected with ____
CAE
142
Verminous pneumonia in goats may be associated with _____.. ____ or ___ are required as hosts in some life cycles.
Lungworms
Snails or Slugs
143
The control of external parasites such as lice may be a problem in ____ goats due to long fleece
Angora
144
2 dermatological problems of cattle that are more common in the winter months are ____ and _____
lice and mites
145
A dermatlogic condition of cattle related to parasitic fly infestation which results in damage to the hides is ______
warbles - Hypoderma bovis
146
Fescure grass can be infected with 2 types of fungus:
Acremonium and ergot
147
Claviceps produces the toxin ___, which may be responsible for what clinical sign?
Ergot
Gangrene
148
Fescue produces a toxin that may be responsible for the condition _____
Summer Slump
149
Pithomyces may produce _______, responsible for development of ______
Sporodesmin
Photosensitivity
150
The most common cutaneous neoplasm in cattle is ____
SCC
151
The cause of ventral midline dermatitis in cattle is ______ transmitted to them by ____
Stephanofilaria
| Horn Fly
152
A type of pyoderma which affects the area between the upper and rear leg of a dairy cow or the cleavage between the front quarters of the udder is known as ____
Udder Scald
153
Two plants which may cause primary photosensitization in cattle when ingested are _____ and ____
St. Johns Wort and Buckwheat
154
A hereditary type of photosensitivity in cattle is known as ____ and is found in what 2 cattlel breeds
Porphyria
Holstein and Limousine
155
_____ is a topical therapy for ringworm in cattle. Other options are ___, ____ or ___
Mild iodine tincture
copper naphtenate, thiabendazole, captan
156
____ can be used as a therapy for lice in cattle
Avermectin
157
An infectious disease that may cause photosensitivity in cattle is _____-
Lepto
158
Zinc deficiency in cattle may be manifested as ______ and _____
poor growth rate and lack of hair
159
The type of fly causing the most economic damage to cattle in north america is the _____
Horn fly, hematobia irritans
160
When handling cattle with respiratory disease, one must not .....
cause extra stress
161
Infection of the calfs upper respiratory system with _____ results in calf diptheria. This may be treated with _______
Fusobacterium
Oxytetracycline
162
The SID test is used to differentiate between a case of ____ in a cow or exposure to some other antigen
TB
163
____ was a disease of cattle that was a major factor in the development of regulations requiring pasteurization of milk
TB
164
False positive to TB testing in cattle may be shown by animals exposed to other antigens such as _____ or ______
Paratuberculosis or paratuberculosis vaccine
165
Herpes virus infection in cattle is associated with ____
IBR
166
AMDUCA =
Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act
167
The antibiotic that is not prhibited from use in food animals but its use is greatly discouraged because of its excessive withdrawal time of 1.5 years is ______
Gentamycin
168
_____ could be used in an extralabel manner legally for calf septiciemia
Ceftiofur
169
This antibiotic has a gram positive spectrum, requires daily dosing, and has a medium withdrawal time of around 10 days, is cheap, can be purchased OTC, and is a good choice for footrot, presurigcal use, listeria and clostridial infections is _____
Procaine PenG
170
______ is an antimicrobial in which accidental injections in humans has resulted in death
Tilmicosin (micotil)
171
An antimicrobial or anti-inflam drug that is prohibited from extra label usage in dairy cattle over 20 months of age would be _____
phenylbutazone
172
According to the label, Banamine must be administered to cattle by what method?
IV
173
the age of the female bovine when several food animal antibiotics become extralabel is ____
20 months
174
An asymptomatic arrhythmia of cattle associated with electrolyte disturbances or GI disease is ___
A-fib
175
Pericarditis in cattle is usually associated with _____ or _____
Traumatic gastritits of Hardware disease
176
the three common sequllae of bovine LSA viral infection in cattle are _____, ______ and ______
adult lymphosarcomas, persistent lymphocytosis, or asymptomatic tumors of heart/abomasum/uterus
177
Three commons sites for development of LSA lesions in cattle other than lymph nodes would be ____, ____ and ____
Heart, abomasum, and uterus
178
Under natural conditions, bovine LSA can be transmitted horizontally by contact with _____
Blood (ie during rectal palpation)
179
The quickest method of reducing the incidence of bovine leucosis in a herd of cattle involves.....
using semen from bull free of BLV
180
The effectiveness of oxytetracycline is reduced when treating parasites when....
the animal has more than 15% of its RBCs parasitized
181
Anaplasmosis outbreaks are related to the _____ of a control program, the ratio between ______ and _____, and the amount of ______
efficiency
Anaplasmosis carriers: infected animals
vector transmission
182
A-fib in cattle is most often seen secondary to _____
hypocalcemia
183
A common congenital cardiac anomaly in cattle is ____
VSD
184
Two breeds of dairy cattle known for the production of high solids milk are the ____ and _____
Jersey and Guernsey
185
A breed known for the production of A2 beta casein milk is the ____
Guernsey
186
The three major breeds of English beef cattle found in the US
Shorthorn, Angus, Hereford
187
Dwarfism has been identified in both the _____ and _____ beef breeds
Dexter, Brahma
