T cell antigen recognition T cell activation Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

L selectin is expressed by naive T cells and binds to

A

CD34//GLYCam-1

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2
Q

LFA-1 binds to

A

ICAM1 on HEV for the adhesion to the HEV

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3
Q

T cell to APC cell use what adhesion molecule interactions? LFA-1, CD2, and ICAM3

A

LFA-1 –> ICAM1 or 2, CD2–> LFA3, ICAM3-LFA1

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4
Q

Dendritic cells are most efficient to present

A

viral peptide antigens/ extracellular

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5
Q

Macrophages are most efficient for presentation of

A

extracellular, independently replicating organisms (Bacteria/yeast) can also present intracellular antigens

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6
Q

B cells most efficiently present peptide from

A

soluble antigens (intracellular and extracellular antigens)

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7
Q

Antigen presenting cells (APCS) express a costimulator molecule

A

B7

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8
Q

B7 binds to (on APC)

A

CD28 (on the T cells)

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9
Q

two signals for activation of T cells

A
  1. binding of its TCR to cognate peptide on MHC

2. co stimulation of B7 (APC) to CD28 (T Cell)

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10
Q

Immature dendritic cells function is to

A

take up antigen (Mature dendritic cells no longer take up antigen)

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11
Q

Mature dendritic cells express co stimulatory molecules

A

B7.1 and B7.2 and high levels of MHC class I and II molecules

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12
Q

Mature dendritic cells express what adhesion molecules?

A

ICAM1, ICAM2, LFA1, LFA3

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13
Q

Dendritic cells also express a chemotactic cytokine that attracts naive T cells

A

DC-CK

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14
Q

resting macrophages express very low levels of ? and do not express?

A

low levels of MHC class II and low levels of B7!

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15
Q

Without a costimulation signal, the macrophages induce anergy, a process called

A

peripheral tolerance

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16
Q

Once ingest microorganisms, macrophages will up regulate their expression of what molecules?

A

MHC Class II and B7

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17
Q

B cells activation process

A
  1. BCR binds to soluble antigen, produces activation signal

2. B cell internalizes and process antigen, presents peptides on MHC Class II molecules

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18
Q

B cells readily present antigen to antigen specific

A

CD4 T cells, T cells will produce 2nd signal of activation if they are effector T cells

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19
Q

T cell activation signals

A
  1. encounter with specific peptide antigen bound to an MHC molecule on APC
  2. CD28 on T cell interaction with FB7 on APC
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20
Q

Signaling of CD28 and B7, increases/stabilizes/upregulates

A

IL-2

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21
Q

T cell that recognizes specific antigen bound to MHC, but has no costimulation signal will become

A

anergic, peripheral tolerance

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22
Q

CD8 T cells must be activated by

A

dendritic cells

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23
Q

Produced by activated T cells upon activation

A

IL-2

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24
Q

Which IL can promote T cell proliferation? and promotes differentiation into armed effector T cells?

A

IL-2

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25
Moderate affinity IL-2 receptor has what chains?
beta, gamma
26
when resting T cell encountered specific antigen, it produces IL2 and
alpha chain of IL2 receptor
27
Armed effector T cells do not require what?
costimulation signal (B7: CD28)
28
Armed effector T cells express high levels of which adhesion molecules?
LFA-1, CD2, VLA-4
29
TH1 CD4 cells are primarily involved with recognizing MHC Class II molecules on
macrophages and b cells
30
CD8 T cells recognize peptide antigens on
MHC Class I
31
TH2 CD4 cells recognize peptide antigens bound to
MHC Class II on B cells
32
Which T cell promotes class switching and somatic hypermutation ?
TH2 CD4: induce B cells to produce other isotopes of Ab
33
What do TH1 CD4 t cells induce B cells to
produce Ab that are efficient for opsonization (IgG1 and IgG3)
34
What cytokines usually cause CD4 Th0 cells to become TH1
IL-12, IFN-gamma
35
IL-12 is produced by ? and when?
macrophages and dendritic cells in response to viral and some intracellular bacterial infections
36
NK cells produce IFN-gamma for?
to inhibit development of TH2 cells
37
CD4 TH0 activated to become TH2 in presence of what?
IL-4, 5, 6
38
Which cytokines inhibit generation of TH1
IL-4, IL-10
39
TH2 cells produce what? inactivates growth of TH1
IL-10, TGF-beta
40
Self antigen specific T cell receptors can be found on what?
regulatory T cells
41
What surface protein is found on Tregs?
CD25
42
Tregs express a transcriptional repressor known as
FoxP3
43
In presence of TGF-beta, TH0 differentiate into
Tregs
44
Tregs recognize
self-determinants
45
IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, x linked syndrome) deficiency in
FoxP3
46
Th17 produce what interleukins?
IL-17, IL-21, IL-22
47
TH17 promote what influx?
neutrophil
48
deficiency of Th17 cells can leave patient susceptible to
opportunistic pathogens
49
VLA-4 is an integrin on surface of EFFECTOR t cells that binds to
VCAM-1 of activated vascular endothelial cells for transmigration of effector T cells out of vasculature
50
lower than normal levels of IgM but almost undetectable quantities of IgG or IgA in serum. lymph biopsy reveals near total lack of germinal center formation. Non-sense mutation of?
IL-2. Normal numbers of B cells and T cells. B cells appear to be functional because of IgM. Defect that prevents him from mounting CD8 or CD4 mediated immune responses. IL-2 is required for proliferation and differentiation after activation. Patients with this defect can't make CD4 or CD8 T cell response, can't activate B cells
51
IL-4 deficient patient, more susceptible to?
extracellular pathogens
52
IL-12, IFN-gamma deficient patient more susceptible to?
intracellular pathogens (no TH1 response)
53
Heightened susceptibility to viral, bacterial, fungal pathogens. SCID. elevated serum concentrations of IgM, but almost undetectable concentrations of other antibodies. normal levels of all immune cells in circulation. Normal architecture, except total lack of germinal centers Clinical history shows what?
Lack of B7 expression on macrophages and dendritic cells isolated from secondary lymphoid tissues. No ability to produce B7, unable to activate T cells (CD4 and CD8). SCID patients.
54
Deficiency in VCAM-1 or VLA4 would prevent effector T cells from what?
migrating from circulation into inflammatory sites.
55
GATA3 drives transcription of cytokines by
Thelper 2 type effector CD4 T cells. (heightened susceptibility to extracellular pathogens)
56
T-bet drives expression of cytokines by
T helper type 1 cells. (heightened susceptibility to intracellular pathogens)
57
Thelper17 cells produce? what does this do?
IL-17, IL-22 that promotes production of antimicrobial peptide/proteins by epithelial cells
58
Most important immune response for clearance of most viral infections is an acquired response that allows for high specificity detection and killing of virally-infected cells early in replicative cycle. What is this?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are effectors of this response. | T helper 1 type T cells are next because they produce cytokines that activate CD8 t cells.
59
What type of antigen presentation would be expected with someone that has inflamed laceration of right arm and white exudate (pus)?
PUS: rules out viral infection and intracellular bacterium. Extracellular: pathogen would be via MHC class II pathway. CD4 cells. B cells and dendritic cells can take up bacterial, but macrophages take them up much more efficiently. B cells would have to have a BCR that has specificity for that single pathogen.
60
Highly prone to activate self-reactive T cells, variety of autoimmune conditions developed. most likely cause?
Lack of T reg cell functionality. self-reactive effector CD4 T cells subset. Recognize cognate peptide determinant, produce anti-inflammatory cytokine TGF-beta that acts on nearly T cells that prevents from being activated (prevents activation of self-reactive T cells). FoxP3 drives expression of TGF-beta by Treg cells.
61
GATA-3 drives cytokine expression by
TH2 effector cells
62
T-bet transcription factors drive cytokine expression by
TH1 effector cells.