Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PAT > t/f mixed > Flashcards

t/f mixed Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Acral lentiginous melanomas is the commonest form of melanoma is non-Caucasians.
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pemphigus is most common in the elderly and is characterized by sub-epidermal blisters.

A

False. It’s characterized by superficial blisters. Sub-epidermal blisters = bullous pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bronchopneumonia is characterized by diffuse consolidation of an entire lobe.

A

False. Characterised by patchy consolidation of several lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lobar pneumonia is rarely associated with sputum production.

A

False. It is commonly associated with sputum production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lobar pneumonia is rarely through the stages of red hepatisation before grey hepatisation.

A

False. It is always through those stages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Opportunistic lung infections with Pneumocystis jirovecii show alveoli with bubbly pink exudates.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary tuberculosis usually affects the lungs bilaterally and involves apices.

A

False, secondary tuberculosis is nearly always located in the lung apices and sometimes bilaterally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lymphocytic infiltration and follicular destruction are the histologic hallmarks of Graves disease.

A

False. Those are hallm,arks of autoimmune hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypothyroidism can be associated with peripheral fungal infections and an enlarged edematous tongue

A

True. They are prone to candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Autoimmune hypothyroidism is the most common cause of hypothyroidism and is usually seen in older women.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Different types of thyroid cancers tend to affect different age groups

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Malignant melanomas always contain melanin

A

False. They can be various colours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A TSH-secreting adenoma is associated with high serum concentrations of T3, T4 and TSH.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tuberculosis is an example of granulomatous inflammation without necrosis

A

False. There is necrosis in primary TB with granulomatous inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

. A Reed-Sternberg cell (R-S cell) is derived from B-lymphocytes and is the characteristic cell of non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas

A
  • False, it is the characteristics of Hodgkin’s lymphomas.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anemia could be indicative of a more sinister disorder such as acute leukemia.

A

True, having acute leukemia with normal hemoglobin and white blood cell counts is extremely rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Multiple myeloma defined as a neoplastic proliferation of neutrophils.

A

False. Its a neoplastic proliferation of PLASMA cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The major clinical features of multiple myeloma are osteonecrosis and pathological fractures.

A
  • False, as osteoporosis with pathological fractures is most common skeletal abnormalities in multiple myeloma, the major clinical feature of the disease is BONE PAIN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Oesophageal varices are not a feature of portal hypertension.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hepatocyte injury in alcohol liver disease is caused by acetaldehyde.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma is often associated with raised serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Auto-immune hepatitis occurs more commonly in males.

A

False. Mostly in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The serum level of caeruloplasmin is decreased in Wilson’s disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in intravenous drug users.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Papillary muscle rupture causes acute mitral valve incompetence with resultant cardiogenic shock and death within 48 hours.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mitral stenosis is a complication of Rheumatic heart disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Right to left cardiac shunting is characterized by early cyanosis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A cardiac aneurysm develops in areas of prior myocardial infarction and may predispose to development of systemic emboli.

A

False. POST-myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BRCA mutations are linked with hereditary breast cancer.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Metastatic breast cancer to lymph nodes does not affect the prognosis of patients

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HPV causes cervical cancer

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An osteochondroma is a benign neoplasm and comprises of bone with a cartilage cap.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Osteosarcoma, a malignant neoplasm of bone, is mainly seen in young males, and commonly metastasises to regional lymph nodes.

A

False. lung and bones are the most common metastatic sites. To lymph node is rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Codman’s triangle is a radiographic description of slow growing bone lesions that typically elevate the periosteum.

A

True, osteosarcoma is the slow growing bone lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis affects the weight bearing joints.

A

False, that is osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with high serum concentrations of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) and may be linked to other autoimmune conditions

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism is an important cause of osteoporosis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Addison’s disease is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency worldwide.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Primary tuberculosis may involve the adrenal glands with resultant inflammation (tuberculous adrenalitis) and loss of adrenal-cortical function (adrenal insufficiency).

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

General weakness, vitiligo and salt craving are commonly seen in Addison disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pheochromocytoma of the adrenal cortex may result in malignant hypertension

A
  • False. arise from adrenal MEDULLA. (Other than pheochromocytoma, adrenal cortical adenoma may cause hypertension. )
41
Q

Pheochromocytoma of the adrenal cortex may result in malignant hypertension

A
  • False. arise from adrenal MEDULLA. (Other than pheochromocytoma, adrenal cortical adenoma may cause hypertension. )
41
Q

Pheochromocytoma of the adrenal cortex may result in malignant hypertension

A
  • False. arise from adrenal MEDULLA. (Other than pheochromocytoma, adrenal cortical adenoma may cause hypertension. )
42
Q

Loss of erythropoietin accounts for the anemia of chronic kidney disease.

A

True

43
Q

Abnormal collagen deposition and degeneration of glomerular basement membrane is seen in thin GBM disease

A

False, seen in Alport’s syndrome.

44
Q
  1. Granular sub-epithelial IgA occurs in membranous nephropathy.
A

false its IgG

45
Q

Fusion of podocyte foot processes is seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.

A

True

46
Q

Diabetic nephropathy frequently recurs in transplanted kidney tissue.

A

False, it recurs at Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).

47
Q

MALT lymphomas do not occur in the stomach

A

False

48
Q

A volvulus is an investigation of a segment of bowel into another segment.

A

False, the invagination of a segment of bowel into another segment is intussusception. The bowel’s normal sequence of rotation and fixation failure is volvulus.

49
Q

In Barrett oesphagitis the normal squamous epithelium of the upper oesophagus is replaced by mucous-secreting columnar epithelium.

A

False, its of the lower oesophagus

50
Q

Carcinomas of the upper oesophagus are usually squamous in nature whereas adenocarcinomas are more often affecting the lower oesophagus.

A

True

51
Q

A raised MCV may be seen in conditions such as liver disease and hyperlipidemia.

A

true

52
Q

The peak incidence of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is in the 3 and 4th decades of life.

A

true

53
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma occurs only as an endemic neoplasm in equatorial Africa.

A

True

54
Q

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma is the commonest type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

False

55
Q

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma is the commonest type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

False

56
Q

Vaso-occlusive crisis is the most common crisis encountered in sickle cell anemia

A

True

57
Q

Actinic keratosis can be classified as a premalignant lesion.

A

True

58
Q

Blue nevi occur in the superficial dermis and have a high tendency for malignant
transformation

A

False

59
Q

Melanoma spreads by haematogenous route only

A

False

60
Q

The most common explanation for iron deficiency anemia in men and post-menopausal women is gastrointestinal blood loss

A

true

61
Q

Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune
disorder with loss of mucus cells causing intrinsic factor deficiency

A

true

62
Q

patients with sickle disease should receive prophylaxis
to protect against pneumoccal infection

A

true

63
Q

Bilirubin is the breakdown product of hemoglobin and
circulates in an unconjugated water-soluble form

A

true

64
Q

Wilson’s disease is characterized by iron accumulation in the liver and brain.

A

false, its copper accumulation

65
Q

Surgical removal of hydatid cysts in the liver may lead to anaphylactic shock.

A

true

66
Q

In endocarditis only the heart valves are involved.

A

false

67
Q

In infective endocarditis the
most common organism is Streptococcus viridans

A

false

68
Q

Corpulmonale is the result of right heart failure secondary to lung disease.

A

true

69
Q

Corpulmonale is the result of right heart failure secondary to lung disease.

A

true

70
Q

Pulmonary valve stenosis is one of the four abnormalities found in tetralogy of Fallout

A

true

71
Q

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis usually manifests as cavitations of the apical aspect
of the lung

A

false

71
Q

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis usually manifests as cavitations of the apical aspect
of the lung

A

false

72
Q

H. Pylori can be transmitted via saliva

A

true

73
Q

H. Pylori can produce acetaldehyde from alcohol which damages the DNA of the gastric
epithelium leading to cancer.

A

true

74
Q

Barrett’s oesophagitis is associated with 100x risk of carcinoma at the lower end of
the oesaphagus

A

true

74
Q

Barrett’s oesophagitis is associated with 100x risk of carcinoma at the lower end of
the oesaphagus

A

true

75
Q

Oesophageal adenocarcinomas occur more at the upper end and middle section of the
oesophagus and squamous carcinomas occur more in the lower part of the
oesophagus

A

false, swapped around

76
Q

Achalasia occurs when a part of the stomach moves above the
diagram and causes loss of sphincter tone and reflux oesophagitis

A

false

77
Q

Intestinal polyposis in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with risk of cancer, whereas
familial polyposis is not

A

false, they are BOTH associated with cancer risk

78
Q

Duke’s staging of adenocarcinoma of the colon uses invasion of the muscular layer as
prognostic indicator

A

true

78
Q

Duke’s staging of adenocarcinoma of the colon uses invasion of the muscular layer as
prognostic indicator

A

true

79
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

79
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

80
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

81
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

82
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

83
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

83
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

83
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

83
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

83
Q

Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammatory polyps occurring in “skip” lesions..

A

true

84
Q

Oral-facial granulomatosis is associated with Crohn’s disease.

A

true

84
Q

Oral-facial granulomatosis is associated with Crohn’s disease.

A

true

85
Q

Ulcerative colitis is characterized by haemorrhagic ulcers and small aphthoid abscesses of
the colon mucosa

A

false

86
Q

Ulcerative colitis is characterized by haemorrhagic ulcers and small aphthoid abscesses of
the colon mucosa

A

false

87
Q

Actinic keratosis can be classified as a premalignant lesion.

A

true

88
Q

Failure to synthesize alpha chains is the most common type of thalassemia.

A

false

88
Q

Failure to synthesize alpha chains is the most common type of thalassemia.

A

false

89
Q

Langerhans cells in the epidermis are not part of the antigen-presenting system.

A

false

89
Q

Langerhans cells in the epidermis are not part of the antigen-presenting system.

A

false

PAT (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions