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T38 > T38 MQF > Flashcards

T38 MQF Flashcards

1
Q

An exhaust gas temperature _____ sensing system varies the nozzle area to maintain exhaust gas temperature within limits at both MIL and MAX range throttle positions.

A

B. T5

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2
Q

The UTILITY HYDRAULIC or FLIGHT HYDRAULIC warning light will illuminate when:

A

A. The pressure reaches approx 1500 psi

B. The hydraulic fluid has an excessively high temperature

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3
Q

If one transformer-rectifier fails ____________________.

A

D. the other automatically supplies all DC requirements.

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4
Q

Flaps are controlled & operated by the following power source/s:

A

B. Right AC C. DC

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5
Q

Activation of the speed brake requires _____ power.

A

D. Hydraulic and DC

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6
Q

Maneuvering above approximately ______ feet and below ______ IMN has proven to increase susceptibility to stall/flameout due to reduced/distorted ram air flow to the engine.

A

A. 28,000; 0.6

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7
Q

A ______, powered by the DC bus, converts the DC bus voltage to 115 VAC.

A

A. Static Inverter

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8
Q

Total usable fuel in the T-38 is APPROXIMATELY _____ pounds (Single point refueling - JP-8).

A

B. 4,000

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9
Q

The typical takeoff gross weight of the aircraft is ______ pounds with a dual crew.

A

D. 12,700

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10
Q

Rear cockpit _____ indicators repeat the pointer positions of those in the front cockpit

A

A. EGT

B. Fuel flow

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11
Q

_____ indicators represent independent readings from a single transmitter on each engine.

A

A. Oil pressure
B. Nozzle
C. Tachometer

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12
Q

Oil consumption through engine operation and overboard venting caused by condensation and aerobatic flight should not exceed _____ pint per hour.

A

A. 1

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13
Q

Normally, sufficient fuel will flow by gravity to maintain MAX power from sea level up to approximately _______ feet; however it is only guaranteed to _____ feet and flameouts have occurred as low as ______ feet.

A

B. 25,000; 6,000; 15,000

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14
Q

The IFF (AIM) system has a _____ minute warm-up period.

A

A. 3

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15
Q

Throttle bursts (throttle movement in 1 second or less) from idle RPM to MIL should be avoided in order to allow the variable exhaust nozzle to keep pace and match the fuel flow, as well as to help minimize the possibility of compressor blade failures.

A

A. True

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16
Q

The FUEL LOW caution light will illuminate after a _____ second delay when a fuel quantity indicator reads below _____ pounds.

A

B. 7.5; 275 to 225

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17
Q

Gearbox shift occurs in the _____ to _____ RPM range.

A

D. 65; 75

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18
Q

Generator cut in speed is _____ to ____ RPM.

A

C. 43-48%

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19
Q

The XFMR RECT OUT and master caution light may blink due to the battery voltage momentarily overriding the DC bus voltage. This is a normal condition and does not indicate a failure:

A

A. True

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20
Q

When the nose gear is extended 3⁄4 or less, rudder deflection is limited to _____ degrees. When the nose gear is more than 3⁄4 extended, full rudder deflection of _____ degrees from neutral in either direction is available.

A

A. 6; 30

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21
Q

The gear warning system (tone and red light in the handle) will be activated if the gear is not down and locked and:

A

A. The airspeed is 210 KIAS or less

B. The altitude is 10,000 (+/-750) feet or below C. Both throttles are below 96% RPM

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22
Q

Extension of the main and nose landing gear using the alternate release handle will require approximately _____ seconds, but may take up to ____ seconds

A

A. 15; 35

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23
Q

Front cockpit pilot should not place the left foot outboard of the rudder pedal due to the possibility of striking the landing gear handle interconnect linkage causing uncommanded landing gear retraction.

A

A. True

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24
Q

If possible, avoid opening the canopy when relative wind exceeds _____ knots (ground speed plus wind component over the nose).

A

C. 30

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25
Q

During emergency ground egress, pulling the emergency release handle will release the survival kit from the parachute harness regardless of the position of the AUTO/MANUAL selector.

A

A. True

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26
Q

The cabin pressure regulator maintains cabin pressure at relative zero psi differential at altitudes below 8000 feet. Between 8000 feet and approximately 23,000 feet, the regulator maintains a cabin pressure corresponding to _____ feet.

A

B. 8000 +/- 1000

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27
Q

Placing the Flight Director switch to the OFF position:

A

A. Removes power from the flight director system

B. Controls power to the standby attitude indicator

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28
Q

When using FAST SLAVE on the ground, the aircraft should be stationary during activation and until completion of the 30-second alignment cycle.

A

A. True

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29
Q

For solo flight, rear cockpit gyro should be uncaged.

A

A. True

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30
Q

Allow a _____ second warm-up prior to testing the TACAN during preflight.

A

B. 90

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31
Q

During the TACAN test, if the test indicator light remains illuminated in either T/R or REC functions, all information is considered invalid.

A

A. True

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32
Q

Maximum range occurs at _____ AOA and maximum endurance occurs at _____ AOA.

A

D. .18; .3

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33
Q

Symmetric G limits for an aircraft with 3,000 lbs of fuel are + _____/- _____.

A

D. 5.9; 2.4

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34
Q

With a low fuel state (approximately 250 pounds in either system) do not attempt to ensure fuel flow to both engines by selecting crossfeed operation with both fuel boost pumps operating.

A

A. True

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35
Q

At low altitude and high airspeed (500 KIAS), EGT droop may occur with engine at military power when accompanied by _____ percent or less nozzle indication.

A

A. 3

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36
Q

_____ fire warning lights in both cockpits must illuminate during TEST. Failure of any bulb to illuminate may indicate an inoperative fire detector.

A

C. Four

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37
Q

The oxygen hose from the mask to the disconnect should be routed under the right shoulder harness strap before connecting to the disconnect.

A

A. True

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38
Q

If any cords are visible on the nose gear, check the maximum wear limit listed on the tire sidewall. Wear limits vary by manufacturer.

A

A. True

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39
Q

Prior to moving either throttle to IDLE during engine start, ensure the respective _____ indicator OFF flag is out of view, or the ON flag is in view as applicable (front cockpit only); otherwise, an engine start cannot be properly monitored.

A

B. EGT

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40
Q

As the flaps are moved, the flab-slab interconnect system provides the following:

A

A. The horizontal tail is automatically repositioned to essentially eliminate the pitch changes caused by flap movement
B. As the flaps are extended, the interconnect system increases the amount of horizontal tail travel available in the nose down direction
C. The interconnect system changes the pitch authority of the control stick by increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel

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41
Q

The minimum taxi interval is _____ feet staggered or _____ feet in trail.

A

A. 150; 300

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42
Q

Allow_______ to elapse after power has been applied to the attitude gyro control assembly before taxiing.

A

B. 3 1/2 minutes

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43
Q

The attitude indicator warning flag on the will appear during initial application of electrical power for approximately 1 minute. The instrument is unreliable until the flag disappears.

A

A. True

44
Q

Keep the use of power to a minimum. Normally a power setting less than _____ percent RPM should be enough to taxi.

A

C. 80

45
Q

During any ground flight control checks, lateral stick movement should be smooth and controlled to prevent undue strain on the aileron control mechanisms.

A

A. True

46
Q

Ensure the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) is within __ degrees of the magnetic compass and within __ degrees of a known heading.

A

C. 8; 5

47
Q

Do not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds __ percent of the available runway (formation takeoff).

A

A. 80; 70

48
Q

The acceleration check speed is the only means by which actual aircraft (engine) performance can be referenced to the computed values.

A

A. True

49
Q

During the takeoff roll, at approximately 135 KIAS, smoothly initiate back stick pressure. Nose-wheel liftoff should occur at approximately 145 to 150 KIAS, and the aircraft should fly off the runway at approximately ____ KIAS.

A

A. 160

50
Q

When initiating a level-off with the VVI at or above 6,000 FPM, you should reduce your pitch attitude by _____ at _____ feet prior to level-off, and then use _____ percent of the vertical velocity.

A

D. One-half; 2,000, 10

51
Q

Minimum items to check are engine instruments, fuel quantities, fuel balance, G-suit connection (when appropriate), oxygen system, and cabin altitude.

A

A. True

52
Q

When performing operational checks of the altimeter, below 10,000 feet the indicated change may be as much as ______ feet, and above 10,000 feet, as much as ______ feet.

A

C. 150; 250

53
Q

Aircraft will not descend below 5000 feet AGL during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering.

A

A. True

54
Q

The indication to execute a stall recovery is:

A

C. A definite increase in buffet intensity

55
Q

Stall Recovery is complete when the descent is stopped, positive controlled climb is established (altimeter and VVI reversed), and aircraft has sufficient airspeed for continued flight.

A

A. True

56
Q

Stalls can be terminated by relaxing back stick pressure, rolling wings level, and moving the throttles to MAX simultaneously.

A

A. True

57
Q

The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is 150 KTS unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows a slower airspeed for the training being conducted.

A

A. True

58
Q

When the crosswind exceeds ____ knots, limit touch and go landings due to increased tire wear and the risk of blown tires.

A

B. 15

59
Q

Extreme CAUTION must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above ______ KIAS, as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize.

A

D. 120

60
Q

When the crosswind component exceeds 15 knots ____________.

A

A. Touchdown should be planned for the upwind side of the runway
B. Limit touch and go landings due to the increased tire wear and the risk of blown tires

61
Q

When flying in gusty winds, increase which of the following speed by half the gust factor?

A

A. Final approach/touchdown

62
Q

The desired touchdown point for a VFR approach is _____ feet from the threshold.

A

A. 150-1000

63
Q

The desired touchdown point may be altered in cases where prudence would dictate a slightly longer aim point, such as in runways where there are hazards in the overrun environment (or no overrun) and a long runway allows sufficient room for landing rollout.

A

A. True

64
Q

Attempt to approach any barriers perpendicularly, in a three point attitude, and, if possible in the center. Prior to engagement, release the brakes and then reapply after passing the barrier.

A

A. True

65
Q

___________ is the maximum speed to which the aircraft is able to accelerate with both engines operating in MAX, and either: Abort with Both Engines Operating (BEO) or abort with an Engine Failure (EF).

A

B. Refusal Speed

66
Q

The speed to which the aircraft accelerates with both engines, experiences an engine failure, and permits either an acceleration to SETOS or deceleration to a stop in the same distance.

A

A. CEFS

67
Q

Maximum recommended 90 deg crosswind component for a dry runway is _____ knots.

A

D. 30

68
Q

The minimum speed at which the aircraft can experience an engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff (approximately 350 feet from start of rotation at SETOS) in the remaining runway.

A

C. Decision speed

69
Q

Insufficient aerodynamic braking could increase the ground roll distance by as much as _____%

A

B. 50

70
Q

_______ is the speed at which the aircraft is able to climb, once clear of ground effect, at a minimum of 100 feet per minute with gear down, Flaps - 60%.

A

B. SETOS

71
Q

If ignition does not occur before the fuel flow reaches _____ LB/HR, retard the throttle to OFF, and maintain airflow for at least 2 minutes before attempting another start.

A

B. 360

72
Q

If EGT does not begin to rise within _____ seconds after the first indication of fuel flow, abort the start.

A

A. 12

73
Q

Abort start if EGT exceeds _____ degrees C to preclude exceeding temperature limits.

A

B. 845

74
Q

Military power flight steady state limits: 630-645 degree C EGT / 99.0-104% RPM / 0-20% Nozzle / 20-55 PSI Oil Pressure / 30 minute duration.

A

A. True

75
Q

(Max) Afterburner power flight steady state limits: 630-645 degree C EGT / 99.0-104% RPM / 50-85% Nozzle / 20-55 PSI Oil Pressure / 15 minute duration

A

A. True

76
Q

Total fluctuations in EGT of 15 deg C (+/- 7.5 deg) are acceptable if the average EGT is between ____ and _____ deg C.

A

A. 630; 645

77
Q

The maximum airspeed limitation of the WSSP is _____ KIAS.

A

A. 400

78
Q

The WSSP maximum airspeed in severe turbulence or with speed brakes open is _____ KIAS. Avoid abrupt control movements above _____ KIAS.

A

A. 350/240

79
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft with which of the following malfunctions or failures?

A

A. Nosewheel steering
B. Brake System
C. Canopy

80
Q

Which of the following is not required when accomplishing an emergency ground egress?

A

A. Insert canopy jettison safety pin

81
Q

If the left engine is inoperative but windmilling, generally gear retraction may be accomplished but may require up to ______.

A

B. 1 minute

82
Q

Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above _____.

A

D. 100 KIAS

83
Q

If unable to retract the landing gear, best level flight/climb capability is obtained at _____ KIAS with 60% flaps or at _____ KIAS with the flaps up.

A

B. 200; 220

84
Q

Best acceleration during a single-engine takeoff occurs with the aircraft _____.

A

B. In a three-point attitude, with the stick at or slightly aft of the takeoff trim setting

85
Q

The gear should be retracted during a single-engine takeoff as soon as the aircraft is airborne:

A

A. Above SETOS+10 KIAS

86
Q

During a single-engine takeoff/go-around, at high gross weight, and unable to retract landing gear, flap retraction should not be initiated prior to _____ KIAS.

A

C. 220

87
Q

The effects of a tire failure are most pronounced at heavy gross weights and speeds below _____ KIAS.

A

A. 100

88
Q

____ engine seizure will completely deactivate the Speed Brake, Landing Gear, Nosewheel steering, and Stability Augmenter system.

A

B. Left

89
Q

Under single-engine low fuel conditions with two operating boost pumps, placing the Crossfeed ON and both boost pumps ON will provide the maximum usable fuel.

A

A. True

90
Q

For airstarts of the engine, _____ - _____% RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow. _____ - _____ rpm is the heart of the airstart envelope at all altitudes.

A

C. 12-14; 18-20

91
Q

If you suspect engine damage during a compressor stall, you should:

A

A. Advance the throttle above idle only if required

92
Q

A compressor stall may be recovered prior to complete flameout by:

A

C. Rapidly retarding the throttle to idle and pushing the affected engine start button

93
Q

If a nozzle fails in the closed position, EGT may increase above 645 deg C during landing rollout or taxi. If this occurs, the engine should be shut down.

A

A. True

94
Q

Simultaneous illumination of the generator and hydraulic caution lights for the same engine may be an indication of:

A

D. Airframe mounted gearbox failure

95
Q

The pilot should refrain from attempting to reset the generator more than _____ due to the danger of the generator burning.

A

A. Once

96
Q

Do not delay ejection below _____ feet in a controlled condition or _____ feet in an uncontrolled condition.

A

D. 2,000; 15,000

97
Q

If one system reads zero, hydraulic system transfer may occur. In this case, flight time could be limited to only _____ minutes.

A

C. 35

98
Q

When determining the airspeed at which aircraft becomes difficult to control, maintain at least _____ KIAS above minimum controllable airspeed during descent and landing approach. Plan to touch down at ____ knots above either normal touchdown speed or minimum control speed, whichever is higher.

A

C. 20; 10

99
Q

When attempting an alternate airstart, if a throttle is already in MAX, it must be recycled MIL to MAX to reset and reactivate the ignition cycle.

A

A. True

100
Q

If ejecting, attempt to let the crewmember in the _____ cockpit eject first.

A

B. Rear

101
Q

China MOA area altitudes are normally 3,000’ AGL up to and including FL 230. Lateral limits are as depicted on aeronautical charts (not radial/DME defined).

A

A. True

102
Q

When the VFR pattern is in effect, all departing aircraft, except U-2s releasing pogos and RQ-4s, shall maintain at or below ________ until departure end of the runway or ATC issued turnout, then climb out according to ATC clearance.

A

B. 1000’ MSL

103
Q

Do not fly in areas of known or reported icing. Also, climbs or descents through icing conditions more severe than forecast light rime are prohibited.

A

A. True

104
Q

If flight in icing conditions, results in ice accumulations on the aircraft, a 781 write-up is necessary as the engines must be inspected for ice ingestion damage.

A

A. True

105
Q

To ensure effective anti-icing, maintain a minimum of _____% RPM when the engine anti-icing system is turned on.

A

D. 80%

106
Q

Select ILS on the Navigation Mode Switch when the aircraft’s heading is stabilized within _____ degrees of the final heading and within _____ deflection of the CDI.

A

C. 15; one-dot

107
Q

As a technique, begin reducing speed 5 to 10 nm prior to the holding fix (1 to 2 minutes) to ensure entering holding at holding airspeeds of _____________.

A

A. 250 to 265 KIAS

T38 (3 decks)

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