T6 MQF(2013) Flashcards
(308 cards)
1
Q
The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed wing) or _________ minutes, whichever is greater.
A
C. 20
2
Q
When computing required fuel reserves, turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide:
A
D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL
3
Q
An aircraft established on final approach has the right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land. In this case:
A
C. the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other.
4
Q
When given clearance to taxi by ATC, pilots
A
D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross.
5
Q
Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go or low approach unless:
A
A. at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation.
B. at a safe airspeed
C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a local procedure.
D. past the end of the runway (if visible)
*E. all of the above.
6
Q
The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility.
A
B. 1,500, 3.
7
Q
USAF fixed-wing aircraft must fly under IFR when:
A
A. operating in Class A airspace.
B. operating in excess of 180 KTAS within a federal airway.
C. operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.
*D. all of the above.
8
Q
If the GPS database has expired, the PIC
A
A. May continue a mission with an expired database if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP
B. Will not fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy (i.e. terminal or approach)
*C. Both a and b
9
Q
If a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP:
A
B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach
10
Q
In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is trying to tell you:
A
A. Descend to lower altitude.
11
Q
A visor must be worn during all phases of flight (including at night).
A
A. True
12
Q
While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly.
A
A. He or she wants to land immediately.
13
Q
The formation signal for attention in the air is to:
A
B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
14
Q
G-suits are required on all sorties when planning to exceed 2 G’s during any portion of a sortie.
A
A. True
15
Q
Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail.
A
D. 75, 150
16
Q
Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is the higher of what is established locally or ____ pounds:
A
B. 200
17
Q
Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is ____ feet:
A
C. 4000
18
Q
When conducting OCF recoveries over clouds, plan to complete all OCF recoveries (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds.
A
B. 3000
19
Q
Which of the following maneuvers is prohibited at night:
A
A. aerobatics
B. stalls
C. practicing the visual circling maneuver portion of an instrument approach
*D. All of the above
20
Q
Flying formation at night is prohibited.
A
A. True
21
Q
The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots.
A
C. 15
22
Q
When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs.
A
A. True
23
Q
Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ___ knots.
A
B. 10
24
Q
The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft.
A
D. 75
25
Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____feet and on the taxiway centerline at night.
C. 300
26
Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ____ knots.
A. 35
27
After beginning a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher.
A. True
28
In fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to _________ knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs.
D. 120
29
Planned formation low approaches will________.
A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL
30
Minimum fuel is _____ pounds (_____ pounds on all solo student syllabus sorties).
C. 150, 200
31
The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is _________ feet AGL.
B. 3000
32
Do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival (plus or minus 1 hour) is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater.
A. True
33
Limit close trail maneuvering to turns and modified lazy eights, using _______knots minimum airspeed, approximately_______ degrees of bank, and _______ Gs.
A. 120, 90, 2 to 3
34
The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS.
A. 150
35
Over-water training flights will not be permitted when forecast or actual wave heights exceed ____ ft or surface winds exceed _____ knots in training or operating areas.
B. 10, 25
36
Minimum altitude to fly extended trail, aerobatics, stalls, or slow flight is _______.
B. 6,000' AGL
37
Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
A. full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information
B. immediately discernable attitude recognition capability
C. unusual attitude recovery capability
D. complete fault indications
*E. all of the above.
38
The localizer course may be flown outside of the 18 NM flight-check distance if:
B. the instrument procedure depicts a distance greater than 18 NM
C. radar service is provided
*D. b and c only
39
The glide slope signal is usable to a range of _____ NM.
B. 10
40
On IAPs with dead reckoning (DR) courses, pilots are expected to fly the depicted ground track by correcting for wind.
A. True
41
ATC should issue holding instructions at least ______ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Pilots are expected to start a speed reduction when an aircraft is ______ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below __________.
C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed
42
Before taxi, crews should set their altimeters to the airport QNH. Both primary altimeters must agree within _________ feet of field elevation.
B. 75
43
The Defense Internet NOTAM System (DINS) includes all military airfields and virtually all domestic, international, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs. If an airfield does not transmit NOTAM data to the US NOTAM System:
A. a plain language notice in red font is displayed advising the user of that fact
B. pilots must contact the airfield manager or associated FSS directly for NOTAM information
*D. a and b
44
An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within _____ NM of the facility.
D. 1,000, (2,000), 100.
45
Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing surface.
D. 3,000
46
The VDP is normally identified by DME and is computed for the ____________ on the IAP.
D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA.
47
When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees.
B. +/- 4
48
A standard holding pattern consists of ________ turns. The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg is _________ at or below 14,000 feet MSL and __________ above 14,000 feet MSL:
C. right, 1 minute, 1 ½ minutes
49
When determining bank angle for holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at ___________ , whichever requires the least bank angle.
A. 3 degrees per second
B. 30 degree bank angle
C. bank angle commanded by the flight director system
*D. all of the above
50
If the inbound holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):
B. turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
C. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, either parallel or attempt to intercept the holding course.
*E. both b and c above.
51
Pilots shall perform the missed approach when the missed approach point, decision height (DH), or decision altitude (DA) is reached and any of the following conditions exist:
A. runway environment is not in sight
B. unable to make a safe landing
C. directed to execute missed approach by the controlling agency
*D. all of the above
52
Before reaching the IAF, pilots must:
```
A. recheck the weather (if appropriate).
B. review the IAP.
C. check the heading and attitude systems.
D. obtain clearance for the approach.
E. all of the above.
```
53
While being vectored, pilots will repeat all:
A. headings.
B. altitudes (departing and assigned).
C. altimeter settings.
*D. all of the above.
54
The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from the__________ unless the IAP specifies otherwise:
A. the procedure turn fix.
55
The localizer signal typically has a usable range of at least 18 miles within _______ degrees of the course centerline.
A. 10.
56
When the final approach fix is the NAVAID for an approach, a course change of up to _______ degrees may be required and the approach still be considered a straight-in approach.
B. 30.
57
If you are more than one dot (half-scale) below or two dots (full-scale) above glide slope on an ILS:
A. do not descend below localizer minimums.
C. a descent to DA/DH may be continued if the glide slope is recaptured.
*D. either a or c above.
58
Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for:
A. 1 minute while being vectored to final.
B. 15 seconds on final for an ASR.
C. 5 seconds on final for a PAR.
D. all of the above
59
When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with___________. The controller will then issue the circling MDA:
B. your aircraft category.
60
When issued a departure clearance instructing you to “fly runway heading” by ATC:
B. do not apply wind drift corrections.
61
When reported weather conditions are less than ___________ , ATC will not authorize aircraft or vehicles to operate inside the ILS critical area while an aircraft is the between the ILS FAF and touchdown.
A. 800 foot ceiling and/or visibility is less than 2 statute miles
62
Pilots may circle out a precision approach, but must use extreme caution to ensure their aircraft is within the appropriate circling radius before abandoning the precision glideslope.
A. True
63
In a low altitude approach, a maximum ____________ descent is normally planned.
C. 400 feet per nautical mile
64
Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front or back course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately.
A. 35
65
In order to use GPS for the terminal area, all procedures (DPs, STARs, IAPs) must be retrieved in their entirety from a current, approved navigation database.
A. True
66
Terminal CDI scaling during a GPS approach is _____ nm; approach sensitivity (within 2NM of the FAWP) is ____ nm.
B. 1, .3
67
The aircraft commander (AC) of a single-ship mission or the flight lead (FL) of a formation may adjust joker or bingo fuels during flight to accommodate mission conditions.
A. True
68
Bingo fuel is established and briefed _____________.
D. for every mission
69
An emergency route abort altitude (ERAA) for the planned portion of a low level route should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within ____ nautical miles either side of the route.
B. 1,000; 2,000; 25
70
Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL, or per local directives, before the first turn after takeoff. The 400 foot restriction does not apply to the VFR pattern.
A. True
71
Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ______ knots.
C. 90-95
72
Perform a G-awareness exercise or AGSM demonstration before accomplishing any maneuver that may require 3 Gs or more.
A. True
73
In a typical MOA, optimum energy for aerobatic maneuvering is ______ KIAS at _________:
D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits
74
A visual reference for proper no-wind spacing (0.7 to 1.0 NM) on inside downwind (Flaps TO), is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the _______ and the ________.
B. fuel filler cap, wingtip
75
On an ELP, the following conditions describe the target low key position:
A. 120 KIAS minimum
B. 1500’ AGL
C. abeam intended landing aimpoint
*D. all of the above
76
_______________________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation.
B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
77
Applying ORM 3-2-1 guidance in a forced landing (FL) engine-out situation, pilots will not descend below the minimum controlled ejection altitude of 2,000’ AGL unless the aircraft is:
A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land
78
During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, both number 1 and number 2 will call:
C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes.
79
Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ___ KIAS.
A. 150
80
When preparing a chart for low-level navigation, choose an initial point (IP) about _____ minutes from the target.
A. 1-3
81
The AGSM cycle should last from 10 to 15 seconds with at least 4 to 5 breathing cycles.
A. True
82
P-Factor is caused by:
B. AOA being higher on the downward moving propeller blade than on the upward moving propeller blade.
83
Maximum abort speed calculations allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected. Speed may increase up to _____ knots during this period.
D. 3, 3, 20
84
Add _______feet to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ______% torque.
A. 1000, 85
85
Critical altitude is defined as ________. This occurs at approximately _________ feet MSL on a standard day with the PCL at MAX.
B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000
86
If the PCL is placed in cutoff with the PMU in OFF and the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled, the propeller will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing.
A. True
87
Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated for ___ seconds following PCL movement to the Auto Start range may result in engine damage from the start being conducted in manual mode.
B. 3
88
The engine data manager (EDM) monitors engine operating parameters and____________.
B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary
89
The engine has been flat-rated to produce ______ shaft horsepower.
B. 1100
90
Oil cooling is accomplished by routing scavenged oil through an oil cooler located ________ before returning to the oil tank.
A. in the lower aft cowl assembly
91
If the rate of change of propeller RPM exceeds the PMU sensor validity check limit, the PMU will assume a sensor failure has occurred, and dashes will be displayed for Np and Torque. If the dashes were caused by a propeller RPM rate limit exceedence:
C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays
92
Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically:
B. engages the starter
C. energizes the ignition system
*D. both b and c
93
During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ______, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required.
B. NORM
94
When the ignition switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated.
A. True
95
The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB.
A. True
96
The PCLs are interconnected with a push-pull rod so that movement of one PCL moves the other.
A. True
97
The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions.
C. 2000
98
The PCL in each cockpit contains switches for activating which of the following components:
A. rudder trim
B. speed brake
C. UHF communications
*D. all of the above
99
When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind.
C. straight into
100
Propeller feather may be selected to minimize drag during engine failure by placing the ______ to ______.
A. PCL, OFF
101
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____ percent.
C. 106
102
Power for the engine/systems/NACWS display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the _________ bus.
B. generator
103
In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ______% and in the flight mode, idle is approximately _____%.
B. 60-61, 67
104
Power setting is linear with PCL position throughout the operating envelope of the aircraft.
A. True
105
Engine starts are NOT recommended with the PMU in the manual mode.
A. True
106
If faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or the pilot switches the PMU OFF, the system will revert to the manual mode.
A. True
107
During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can automatically abort the start if necessary to avoid a hung/hot start or if any engine start parameter is exceeded.
A. True
108
If the auto fuel balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to _______ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ______ minutes to balance the fuel load.
C. 30, 2
109
During an normal (auto) engine start, the PMU:
```
A. activates the starter
B. activates the boost pump
C. activates the igniters
D. adds fuel at the proper N1
E. all of the above
```
110
The PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______.
A. 60%
111
After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start.
A. True
112
The start may be manually aborted by:
A. placing the PCL back to OFF
B. reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate)
*D. either a or b above
113
If a start attempt is automatically or manually aborted:
D. perform the Abort Start Procedure
114
Illumination of the fire warning light accompanied by one or more of the following indications is confirmation of an engine fire:
```
A. smoke
B. engine vibration
C. unusual sounds
D. fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure
E. all of the above
```
115
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation.
B. False
116
During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _______ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.
B. a minimum 15 seconds
117
The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances:
C. as displayed on the fuel gauge
118
Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will:
D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.
119
The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power:
A. all equipment on the generator bus
B. the battery bus equipment
C. charge the battery
D. all the above
120
If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set to on in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON:
B. it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF
C. generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON
*E. b and c above
121
While the PMU should normally abort a hot/hung/no start, the pilot should manually abort a start in the following situations:
A. Normal N1 increase is halted
B. No rise of ITT is evident within 10sec after fuel flow indications
C. BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence
D. PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence
*E. All of the above
122
Preflight testing of the auxiliary battery power level is accomplished:
A. prior to application of battery power
C. using the AUX BAT test switch and light
*E. both a and c above
123
In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire warning system for approximately ________.
C. 30 minutes
124
The hydraulic system consists of one engine-driven pump with approximately a ________ capacity. The hydraulic pump pressurizes the normal system and emergency accumulator to ________ psi.
B. 5 quart, 3000 +/- 120
125
A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ______ seconds.
B. 6
126
The wheel brake system ______ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.
B. is not
127
The pilot applying the most wheel brake pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.
A. True
128
Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked:
A. UP, TO, LDG
129
Normal flap operation and indications are NOT available whenever:
A. the battery bus has failed
B. when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power
*D. either a or b above
130
Emergency flap extension is enabled:
B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle is operated
131
During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves:
D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion
132
The speed brake ______ be stopped at an intermediate deflection.
B. may not
133
If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not extend.
A. True
134
Pressing and holding the trim interrupt button:
D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.
135
Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will:
D. all of the above
136
_________ provides indication of takeoff trim setting.
A. a green band on each trim indicator
137
The aileron trim actuator moves the:
C. entire aileron
138
The pitch trim actuator moves:
A. the pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator
139
The ______ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
D. trim aid device (TAD)
140
The standby instruments are normally powered by the battery bus. In the event of a battery bus failure, the standby instruments are powered by the ____________.
B. auxiliary battery
141
The ________ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start.
C. TAD automatically
142
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until:
B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
C. there is no weight on the wheels
*E. b and c above
143
The ______ pitot system probe near the ______ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air data computer.
A. primary, right
144
The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above:
B. 14,000 MSL
145
The following fuels have been approved for use in the PT6A-68 engine: JP-4, JP-5, JP-8, JP-8+100 (USAF only), JET A, JET A+100 (USAF Only), JET A-1, and JET B. Fuel must contain a fuel system icing inhibitor.
A. True
146
As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately _____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ________, (15-16 units) providing stall warning.
D. 18, stick shaker
147
If an inverted or power-on departure from controlled flight is encountered, land as soon as conditions permit. The pilot should suspect:
A. possible engine damage
148
If HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates and hydraulic pressure indicates 0 psi, check the HYD SYS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel (left front console). If the circuit breaker is open, it may be reset.
A. True
149
Engine bleed air is used for:
B. environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system
150
If the PMU is activated with the IOAT at/above ___° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer) and EDM FAIL will be displayed in the bottom of the primary engine data display.
A. 96
151
With the PMU off (manual mode), the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU and the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded.
A. True
152
The fuel system provides approximately_____ pounds of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. Approximately _______ pounds of additional fuel is available if manually filled to the base of the filler neck in each wing tank using over-the-wing/gravity refueling.
B. 1100, 100
153
Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below _______ psi:
C. 1800
154
Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports.
B. False
155
A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended.
A. True
156
The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled:
D. Probes Anti Ice
157
For high altitude ejections, an altitude sensing device and G-limiting device delay seat/pilot separation and parachute deployment until the seat and pilot are between _______ and _______ ft MSL and a safe parachute deployment speed.
D. 14,000 to 16,000
158
Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate:
A. upper and lower harness locks
B. upper and lower bridle locks
C. the headbox deployment unit
*D. all of the above
159
Execute the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground checklist for the following:
```
A. engine fire
B. prop strike
C. if the aircraft appears likely to depart the prepared surface
D. any other serious ground emergency
*E. all of the above
```
160
Approximately _______ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS. Approximately _______ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence.
C. 1200, 40
161
Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory ___ minutes after the GPS is turned off.
B. 5
162
When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately ___ minutes, during which time the OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited.
C. 3
163
When receiving radar vectors to final for a GPS approach, select OBS mode and set the FAF as the active waypoint. Select the inbound course to the FAF in the EHSI.
A. True
164
Due to the sensitivity of the signal conditioning unit, a single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction.
A. True
165
When testing the cockpit lamps using the lamp test switch, the landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated only in the cockpit that activates the lamp test switch.
A. True
166
Essential steps or items which are to be checked in both cockpits, if occupied, are indicated by _______ following the step
C. (BOTH)
167
With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled:
B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
168
If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:
C. the system is fully serviced
169
The emergency oxygen cylinder will be charged to _______ psi minimum at 70deg F. However, indicated pressure is affected by temperature changes. To approximate acceptable bottle pressure, add or subtract _______ psi for each degree the outside temperature is above or below 70deg F.
B. 1800, 3.5
170
When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to:
A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
171
During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning correctly, it will be _________ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply.
B. possible
172
When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good (all four bulbs) in both cockpits (if occupied).
A. True
173
Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated:
A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM
174
To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ________ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking.
A. disengage
175
Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below _______ volts. Connecting external power in this case could cause damage to the aircraft battery
A. 22.0
176
Any fault discovered during the ________ check is reason for a ground abort.
B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR
177
If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of _____ KIAS using normal procedures.
C. 15, 140
178
If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn:
C. will sound and cannot be cancelled
179
If Delta P readings other than _____ psi are encountered at or above 18,069 feet, notify maintenance.
D. 3.6 +/- .2
180
Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than ____ pounds.
C. 50
181
During a missed approach, smoothly advance the PCL to MAX power and retract the speed brake (if extended). Set attitude to ____________ nose high and execute the missed approach procedure.
D. 10-15 degrees
182
When landing with a crosswind:
A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare
183
During the COCKPIT (ALL FLIGHTS) interior preflight checklist, the parking brake must always be reset.
A. True
184
For most accurate results, check oil level ___to___ minutes after engine shutdown.
B. 15, 20
185
During a normal takeoff, initiate rotation to ______ degrees nose high at rotation speed.
A. 7-10
186
N1 will automatically reduce from flight idle (67%) to ground idle (60-61%) approximately _____ seconds after touchdown:
D. 4
187
In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run.
C. 20
188
During gusty wind conditions, increase landing threshold and touchdown speeds by 50% of the gust increment up to a maximum increase of _______ knots.
B. 10
189
Airstart attempts are not recommended below ______ AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft.
C. 2000
190
If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least _____ minutes.
B. 9
191
If the battery fails, OBOGS will be inoperative. Emergency oxygen is recommended above 10,000 feet cabin altitude.
A. True
192
Maximum airspeed for flight with a shattered/damaged/unlocked canopy is:
C. 150 KIAS
193
If safe gear-down indications are obtained at any point during LANDING GEAR MALFUNCTION checklist:
A. discontinue the checklist and land as soon as practical
194
Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that bleed air temperature in the environmental systems duct (at anytime) or in the defog duct (defog on) has exceeded _____ deg F.
C. 300
195
During a trim system malfunction, if the rudder trim circuit breaker is pulled, automatic TAD correction inputs for power and configuration changes will be unavailable.
A. True
196
Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _____ feet AGL for controlled ejection, and _____ feet AGL for uncontrolled ejection.
B. 2,000; 6,000
197
For an engine failure, depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __ seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized.
B. 5
198
Full rudder deflection above ________ KIAS will exceed the limits for the rudder control system.
A. 150
199
Holding a zero-G loading for over ______ seconds can cause engine damage and possible engine failure, regardless of oil pressure indications.
B. 5
200
Engine operation with high pressure pump suction feeding is limited to ___ hours.
D. 10
201
You should attempt to manually balance a fuel load when the alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL.
B. False
202
Which system operates independently from the primary hydraulic system:
D. Wheel brakes
203
Cabin pressurization will bleed out through the ________ when the inflow switch is set to OFF.
C. cabin pressurization outflow valves
204
The extra drag during an airstart attempt will cause a descent rate greater than 1350-1500 feet/min.
A. True
205
Increase approach speed by _______ KIAS when landing with ice accumulation.
B. 10
206
At idle power during aerobatics or spins, allowable transient oil pressure is _____ psi for a maximum of _____ seconds.
B. 15-40, 5
207
Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi.
D. 200
208
Oil temperatures up to _____ deg C are acceptable for ground operations at and below 20% torque:
B. 110
209
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below _____ volts.
B. 23.5
210
Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ______ KIAS. The recommended airspeed in turbulent air is ______ KIAS.
B. 195, 180
211
Airstart attempts outside of the airstart envelope may be unsuccessful or result in engine overtemperature. The airstart envelope is defined as:
A. 125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000’
B. 135-200 KIAS for 15,001 to 20,000’
*D. A & B only
212
All of the following are prohibited maneuvers except:
D. Intentional spins with landing gear and flaps retracted
213
For a clean aircraft, asymmetric (rolling Gs) acceleration limits are:
C. +4.7 to -1.0
214
Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing.
A. True
215
The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is ____ knots.
A. 10
216
Aerobatic operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below _____ pounds per side (yellow arc on gage).
B. 150
217
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____ knots.
C. 40
218
Ejection seats may be operated with the canopy open without injuring the user.
B. False
219
Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is________ PSI.
D. 90-120
220
Spins above ________ feet pressure altitude are prohibited:
C. 22,000
221
Maximum ITT for starting is _____ degrees C (5 sec).
C. 1000
222
Allowable torque range with Np stabilized and PCL at IDLE:
B. 3 to 8%
223
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is _____ knots.
B. 10
224
Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements in one axis can result in structural damage to the aircraft. Vo is ___ KIAS.
C. 227
225
Aural tones are inaudible during engine start until the engine’s gas generator (N1) is above:
D. 50%
226
The T-6 is permitted to transit through a _______ foot band of _______ icing.
D. 5000, light rime
227
Illumination of the L or R FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately _______ pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank:
C. 110
228
If the flaps are set to any position other than UP, the speed brake will:
B. retract if already extended
C. remain retracted if the pilot attempts to extend it after the flaps are extended
*D. b and c above
229
Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately _____ knots before the stall during unaccelerated, power-off stalls in all configurations.
B. 3
230
With power-off, lateral roll during a wings level stall is typically to the _____, and occurs near full _____ stick.
D. right, aft
231
In general, out-of-control flight (OCF) can be divided into three categories:
B. Post-stall Gyrations, Incipient spin, Steady-State Spin
232
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady state in that airspeed is increasing through ________ KIAS and motions are oscillatory.
C. 160
233
The best response to a spiral is to reduce the power to IDLE and _______________ controls until motion stops.
C. neutralize the
234
Spin entry at attitudes greater than __________ degrees nose high may result in low oil pressure and engine damage.
C. 50
235
In a steady-state spin, rotation rates will stabilize between _____ to ____ seconds per turn, with altitude loss of _____ to ____ feet per turn.
D. 2, 3, 400, 500
236
Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics.
A. True
237
With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory.
A. True
238
An aggravated spin is caused by maintaining ____ -spin rudder while moving the control stick _____ of the neutral position.
B. pro, forward
239
Assuming the first 3 (boldface) steps of the IMMEDIATE AIRSTART (PMU NORM) checklist resulted in a restart, moving the PCL above IDLE before N1 stabilizes at approximately 67% will cause an increase in fuel flow which may cause engine failure due to a severe ITT overtemperature.
A. True
240
When taking off in areas of suspected windshear, use the longest suitable runway, and delay rotation to Vrot plus up to _________ knots.
D. 10
241
The aircraft should recover from erect spins with controls free and the PCL at IDLE. However, the number of additional turns required for spin rotation to cease after releasing controls may increase significantly.
A. True
242
A gear-up landing to a suitable landing area is preferred if any gear is confirmed UNSAFE. Fly a flat, power-on, straight-in approach while maintaining directional control with rudder.
A. True
243
Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by four independent factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors?
```
A. Angle of dive
B. Altitude at start of pullout
C. Airspeed at start of pullout
D Acceleration maintained during pullout
*E. All of the above are pertinent factors
```
244
If attempting an airstart or positioning to land after an engine failure, the following procedures should be followed. Above 150 KIAS, initiate a zoom climb using a ______ pull up to a _____ climb angle until approaching the desired glide airspeed (us approximately _______ lead point).
A. 2G, 20⁰, 20 KIAS
245
If a precautionary emergency landing (PEL) is being performed with IDLE power, add _______ feet to high, low, and base key altitudes to compensate for drag of unfeathered propeller.
C. 500
246
If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute _____________.
B. a go around/waveoff
247
When flying a windshear-precautions approach, set takeoff flaps and fly approach up to _____ knots faster than normal.
B. 10
248
The potential for lightning strikes increases near the ______.
D. freezing level
249
The brakes will hold the aircraft on snow-covered or icy runways with the PCL at MAX.
B. False
250
Hydroplaning can occur above _____ knots for the nose tire and above _____ knots for the main tires when inflated to nominal tire pressures.
B. 85, 115
251
Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to 45 degrees of bank and 0-2G’s normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation.
B. False
252
For best cockpit cooling below 7,500 feet MSL, set RAM AIR switch to ______ Set temperature controller as required.
C. OFF
253
During hot weather operations, higher than normal oil temperatures may be encountered during taxi.
A. True
254
During takeoff in hot weather, the aircraft will accelerate _____ than normal and ground run will be _____ because the air is less dense.
A. slower, longer
255
During high temperature operations, radiant heat from the engine may heat soak the IOAT sensor, raising IOAT beyond ambient temperatures. To preclude start malfunctions, consider parking the aircraft into the wind and___________________.
A. opening the left and right engine cowling doors to facilitate engine and IOAT sensor cooling
256
Authorized GPS approaches must be retrievable from the aircraft database and must include “or GPS”, “GPS”, or “RNAV (GPS)” in the title of the procedure. This does not prevent using the GPS for situational awareness on approaches that cannot be flown GPS-only.
A. True
257
Pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the appropriate controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the minimum/emergency fuel reserve.
A. True
258
During night flight, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight.
A. True
259
When determining the suitability of an alternate, ensure that the worst weather forecasted (except TEMPO conditions for thunderstorms and snow/rain showers) meets or exceeds:
B. a ceiling of at least 500 ft above the lowest compatible approach minimums
C. a visibility of at least 2 SM or published visibility minimums, whichever is greater
*E. b and c only
260
The PIC's signature on a flight plan, or act of filing a flight plan by means that precludes an actual signature (phone, radio, computer, etc), indicates:
A. The flight was properly ordered, authorized, and released IAW AFI 11-401
B. Current NOTAMs, weather and other pertinent flight data were obtained
C. The Formation Lead ensured each member of the formation was briefed
D. The fight plan was reviewed for completeness and accuracy
*E. All of the above
261
Pilots may file to and land at US military and Joint-Use fields unless restricted by the MAJCOM. A joint use airport is defined as a military airport that authorizes civilian use (e.g., Charleston AFB). A joint use airport is not by definition a civil P airport. A civil airport with a military tenant is a civil P airport, not a joint use airport.
A. True
262
VFR flight plans are not automatically closed. USAF pilots will notify ATC by any means available to ensure their VFR flight plan is closed. Failure to ensure a VFR flight plan is closed within ______ of the ETA will cause initiation of search and rescue efforts.
B. ½ hour
263
Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by Air Traffic Control.
B. False
264
A person must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while suffering from the after effects of alcohol.
A. True
265
Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are always responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles.
A. True
266
Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
A. True
267
If cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 MSL following the unintended loss of cabin pressure, aircrew and passengers must be evaluated by a flight surgeon or other competent aviation medical authority prior to further flight.
A. True
268
When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's _______ has the right-of-way.
A. right
269
An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.
A. True
270
If suitably equipped, aircrews will monitor at least one emergency frequency (GUARD) at all times as mission and operational conditions permit Immediately report distress or ELT transmissions to ATC.
A. True
271
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ KIAS below 10,000 ft. MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed.
B. 250
272
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
A. 200
273
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B airspace area or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area, unless required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
B. 200
274
Air Force pilots may operate their aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL, within US airspace, in excess of 250 KIAS within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs).
A. True
275
Authorized IFR departure methods include:
```
A. Published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
B. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
C. Specific ATC Departure Instructions
D. Diverse Departures
*E. All of the above
```
276
USAF pilots are prohibited from accepting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances. Pilots of USAF aircraft may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance.)
A. True
277
Regardless of authorized Flight Duty Period (FDP), the PIC will restrict duty time, extend crew rest periods or terminate a mission/mission leg if safety may be compromised by fatigue factors.
A. True
278
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas (i.e., cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ______ ft. above the highest obstacle within a ______ ft. radius of the aircraft.
C. 1,000, 2,000
279
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than _____ ft. AGL except over open water, in special use airspace, or in sparsely populated areas.
A. 500
280
Do not operate aircraft within a designated disaster area unless the aircraft:
A. is aiding the area
B. is specifically cleared by ATC
C. can fly to or from an airport in the area without hampering or endangering relief activities
*D. all of the above
281
If equipped, anticollision lights must be on from takeoff to landing.
A. True
282
Pilots will not takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts.
A. True
283
Immediately report a windshear or microburst encounter on takeoff, approach, or landing to the most appropriate agency (e.g., control tower, approach control, etc.) and, if possible, include:
```
A. Altitude of encounter
B. Loss or gain in airspeed or altitude
C. Type of aircraft
D. Location of occurrence
*E. All of the above
```
284
When flying VFR, the PIC will utilize radar advisory, monitoring or control services when practical, and should ensure flight following by any means available (i.e., FSS or C2 agency).
A. True
285
The maximum total flying time allowed in the T-6 during a 12-hour Flight Duty Period is 10 hours.
B. False
286
For fixed-wing aircraft filing IFR, the weather for the ETA (+/-1 hour) at destination or recovery base must be at or above:
D. the lowest compatible published landing minimums (or PWC minimums, whichever is higher)
287
An ATC clearance is not authority to deviate from the instructions in AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1. A PIC may only deviate from any flight rule or ATC clearance to protect life, for safety of flight, or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action.
A. True
288
The destination weather requirements for fixed-wing aircraft filing VFR:
A. 1500/3
289
Tire wear limits are a maximum of ___ cords out and back, and ___ cords cross-country:
D. 3, 2
290
Do not climb above 4300 MSL during any part of a practice PEL or SFL at Kegelman or Vance.
A. True
291
The high pattern at Eastside/Dogface requires weather minimums of ____ MSL and ___miles.
A. 4500’/3
292
During a SOF directed recall:
A. Monitor area control frequency
B. Hold in the area at the top of the block at max endurance
*D. A and B
293
At Dogface, when proceeding direct to high key from departure leg climb ___.
B. To the west
294
Aircrew must adhere to the EP matrix in the IFG.
B. False
295
When cleared a late break:
B. Acknowledge with callsign, and delay break until clear of traffic on downwind
296
To avoid Woodring Class D airspace do not fly at or below:
C. 3800’ MSL within 5.8 nautical miles
297
If cleared “DLLTA” but significant maneuvering is necessary, it is automatically approved now because you’re VFR.
B. False
298
Descent to pattern altitude from ECKHO/FOXTR must occur prior to:
B. Crossing Hwy 81
299
Shortly after an aircraft reports initial you may request closed if between midfield and the departure end of the runway and can do so immediately.
B. False
300
It is acceptable to break with and aircraft orbiting high key if he is half-way or less through the orbit.
B. False
301
When the pattern status is “Restricted” at Vance:
D. Aircrew will request a contact approach and not deviate from IFG published ground track.
302
When answering a fuel check, reply with “2 same” when fuel is ______.
C. Within 50 lbs of #1
303
Aircrews will not request direct High Key with more than __ total aircraft in the pattern?
B. 3
304
The visual signal for wingman ready to taxi is:
A. Thumbs up
305
Weather required for a restricted pattern at Dogface is:
B. 3500’ MSL/3
306
Hearing protection must be worn on the ramp when aircraft engines are running.
A. True
307
SR sorties on the same route will be scheduled with a minimum of:
D. 10 min intervals and arrive within 3 minutes of entry time.
308
Remain how far away from aircraft being serviced with oxygen or fuel?
B. 50’
