T6 MQF(2013) Flashcards
The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed wing) or _________ minutes, whichever is greater.
C. 20
When computing required fuel reserves, turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide:
D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL
An aircraft established on final approach has the right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land. In this case:
C. the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other.
When given clearance to taxi by ATC, pilots
D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross.
Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go or low approach unless:
A. at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation.
B. at a safe airspeed
C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a local procedure.
D. past the end of the runway (if visible)
*E. all of the above.
The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility.
B. 1,500, 3.
USAF fixed-wing aircraft must fly under IFR when:
A. operating in Class A airspace.
B. operating in excess of 180 KTAS within a federal airway.
C. operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.
*D. all of the above.
If the GPS database has expired, the PIC
A. May continue a mission with an expired database if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP
B. Will not fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy (i.e. terminal or approach)
*C. Both a and b
If a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP:
B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach
In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is trying to tell you:
A. Descend to lower altitude.
A visor must be worn during all phases of flight (including at night).
A. True
While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly.
A. He or she wants to land immediately.
The formation signal for attention in the air is to:
B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
G-suits are required on all sorties when planning to exceed 2 G’s during any portion of a sortie.
A. True
Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail.
D. 75, 150
Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is the higher of what is established locally or ____ pounds:
B. 200
Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is ____ feet:
C. 4000
When conducting OCF recoveries over clouds, plan to complete all OCF recoveries (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds.
B. 3000
Which of the following maneuvers is prohibited at night:
A. aerobatics
B. stalls
C. practicing the visual circling maneuver portion of an instrument approach
*D. All of the above
Flying formation at night is prohibited.
A. True
The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots.
C. 15
When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs.
A. True
Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ___ knots.
B. 10
The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft.
D. 75
Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____feet and on the taxiway centerline at night.
C. 300
Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ____ knots.
A. 35
After beginning a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher.
A. True
In fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to _________ knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs.
D. 120
Planned formation low approaches will________.
A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL
Minimum fuel is _____ pounds (_____ pounds on all solo student syllabus sorties).
C. 150, 200
The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is _________ feet AGL.
B. 3000
Do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival (plus or minus 1 hour) is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater.
A. True
Limit close trail maneuvering to turns and modified lazy eights, using _______knots minimum airspeed, approximately_______ degrees of bank, and _______ Gs.
A. 120, 90, 2 to 3
The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS.
A. 150
Over-water training flights will not be permitted when forecast or actual wave heights exceed ____ ft or surface winds exceed _____ knots in training or operating areas.
B. 10, 25
Minimum altitude to fly extended trail, aerobatics, stalls, or slow flight is _______.
B. 6,000’ AGL
Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
A. full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information
B. immediately discernable attitude recognition capability
C. unusual attitude recovery capability
D. complete fault indications
*E. all of the above.
The localizer course may be flown outside of the 18 NM flight-check distance if:
B. the instrument procedure depicts a distance greater than 18 NM
C. radar service is provided
*D. b and c only
The glide slope signal is usable to a range of _____ NM.
B. 10
On IAPs with dead reckoning (DR) courses, pilots are expected to fly the depicted ground track by correcting for wind.
A. True
ATC should issue holding instructions at least ______ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Pilots are expected to start a speed reduction when an aircraft is ______ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below __________.
C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed
Before taxi, crews should set their altimeters to the airport QNH. Both primary altimeters must agree within _________ feet of field elevation.
B. 75
The Defense Internet NOTAM System (DINS) includes all military airfields and virtually all domestic, international, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs. If an airfield does not transmit NOTAM data to the US NOTAM System:
A. a plain language notice in red font is displayed advising the user of that fact
B. pilots must contact the airfield manager or associated FSS directly for NOTAM information
*D. a and b
An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within _____ NM of the facility.
D. 1,000, (2,000), 100.
Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing surface.
D. 3,000
The VDP is normally identified by DME and is computed for the ____________ on the IAP.
D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA.
When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees.
B. +/- 4
A standard holding pattern consists of ________ turns. The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg is _________ at or below 14,000 feet MSL and __________ above 14,000 feet MSL:
C. right, 1 minute, 1 ½ minutes
When determining bank angle for holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at ___________ , whichever requires the least bank angle.
A. 3 degrees per second
B. 30 degree bank angle
C. bank angle commanded by the flight director system
*D. all of the above
If the inbound holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):
B. turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
C. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, either parallel or attempt to intercept the holding course.
*E. both b and c above.
Pilots shall perform the missed approach when the missed approach point, decision height (DH), or decision altitude (DA) is reached and any of the following conditions exist:
A. runway environment is not in sight
B. unable to make a safe landing
C. directed to execute missed approach by the controlling agency
*D. all of the above
Before reaching the IAF, pilots must:
A. recheck the weather (if appropriate). B. review the IAP. C. check the heading and attitude systems. D. obtain clearance for the approach. E. all of the above.
While being vectored, pilots will repeat all:
A. headings.
B. altitudes (departing and assigned).
C. altimeter settings.
*D. all of the above.
The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from the__________ unless the IAP specifies otherwise:
A. the procedure turn fix.
The localizer signal typically has a usable range of at least 18 miles within _______ degrees of the course centerline.
A. 10.
When the final approach fix is the NAVAID for an approach, a course change of up to _______ degrees may be required and the approach still be considered a straight-in approach.
B. 30.
If you are more than one dot (half-scale) below or two dots (full-scale) above glide slope on an ILS:
A. do not descend below localizer minimums.
C. a descent to DA/DH may be continued if the glide slope is recaptured.
*D. either a or c above.
Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for:
A. 1 minute while being vectored to final.
B. 15 seconds on final for an ASR.
C. 5 seconds on final for a PAR.
D. all of the above
When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with___________. The controller will then issue the circling MDA:
B. your aircraft category.
When issued a departure clearance instructing you to “fly runway heading” by ATC:
B. do not apply wind drift corrections.
When reported weather conditions are less than ___________ , ATC will not authorize aircraft or vehicles to operate inside the ILS critical area while an aircraft is the between the ILS FAF and touchdown.
A. 800 foot ceiling and/or visibility is less than 2 statute miles
Pilots may circle out a precision approach, but must use extreme caution to ensure their aircraft is within the appropriate circling radius before abandoning the precision glideslope.
A. True
In a low altitude approach, a maximum ____________ descent is normally planned.
C. 400 feet per nautical mile
Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front or back course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately.
A. 35
In order to use GPS for the terminal area, all procedures (DPs, STARs, IAPs) must be retrieved in their entirety from a current, approved navigation database.
A. True
Terminal CDI scaling during a GPS approach is _____ nm; approach sensitivity (within 2NM of the FAWP) is ____ nm.
B. 1, .3
The aircraft commander (AC) of a single-ship mission or the flight lead (FL) of a formation may adjust joker or bingo fuels during flight to accommodate mission conditions.
A. True
Bingo fuel is established and briefed _____________.
D. for every mission
An emergency route abort altitude (ERAA) for the planned portion of a low level route should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within ____ nautical miles either side of the route.
B. 1,000; 2,000; 25
Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL, or per local directives, before the first turn after takeoff. The 400 foot restriction does not apply to the VFR pattern.
A. True
Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ______ knots.
C. 90-95
Perform a G-awareness exercise or AGSM demonstration before accomplishing any maneuver that may require 3 Gs or more.
A. True
In a typical MOA, optimum energy for aerobatic maneuvering is ______ KIAS at _________:
D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits
A visual reference for proper no-wind spacing (0.7 to 1.0 NM) on inside downwind (Flaps TO), is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the _______ and the ________.
B. fuel filler cap, wingtip
On an ELP, the following conditions describe the target low key position:
A. 120 KIAS minimum
B. 1500’ AGL
C. abeam intended landing aimpoint
*D. all of the above
_______________________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation.
B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
Applying ORM 3-2-1 guidance in a forced landing (FL) engine-out situation, pilots will not descend below the minimum controlled ejection altitude of 2,000’ AGL unless the aircraft is:
A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land
During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, both number 1 and number 2 will call:
C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes.
Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ___ KIAS.
A. 150
When preparing a chart for low-level navigation, choose an initial point (IP) about _____ minutes from the target.
A. 1-3
The AGSM cycle should last from 10 to 15 seconds with at least 4 to 5 breathing cycles.
A. True
P-Factor is caused by:
B. AOA being higher on the downward moving propeller blade than on the upward moving propeller blade.
Maximum abort speed calculations allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected. Speed may increase up to _____ knots during this period.
D. 3, 3, 20
Add _______feet to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ______% torque.
A. 1000, 85
Critical altitude is defined as ________. This occurs at approximately _________ feet MSL on a standard day with the PCL at MAX.
B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000
If the PCL is placed in cutoff with the PMU in OFF and the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled, the propeller will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing.
A. True
Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated for ___ seconds following PCL movement to the Auto Start range may result in engine damage from the start being conducted in manual mode.
B. 3
The engine data manager (EDM) monitors engine operating parameters and____________.
B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary
The engine has been flat-rated to produce ______ shaft horsepower.
B. 1100
Oil cooling is accomplished by routing scavenged oil through an oil cooler located ________ before returning to the oil tank.
A. in the lower aft cowl assembly
If the rate of change of propeller RPM exceeds the PMU sensor validity check limit, the PMU will assume a sensor failure has occurred, and dashes will be displayed for Np and Torque. If the dashes were caused by a propeller RPM rate limit exceedence:
C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays
Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically:
B. engages the starter
C. energizes the ignition system
*D. both b and c
During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ______, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required.
B. NORM
When the ignition switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated.
A. True
The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB.
A. True
The PCLs are interconnected with a push-pull rod so that movement of one PCL moves the other.
A. True
The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions.
C. 2000
The PCL in each cockpit contains switches for activating which of the following components:
A. rudder trim
B. speed brake
C. UHF communications
*D. all of the above
When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind.
C. straight into
Propeller feather may be selected to minimize drag during engine failure by placing the ______ to ______.
A. PCL, OFF
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____ percent.
C. 106
Power for the engine/systems/NACWS display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the _________ bus.
B. generator
In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ______% and in the flight mode, idle is approximately _____%.
B. 60-61, 67
Power setting is linear with PCL position throughout the operating envelope of the aircraft.
A. True
Engine starts are NOT recommended with the PMU in the manual mode.
A. True
If faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or the pilot switches the PMU OFF, the system will revert to the manual mode.
A. True
During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can automatically abort the start if necessary to avoid a hung/hot start or if any engine start parameter is exceeded.
A. True
If the auto fuel balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to _______ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ______ minutes to balance the fuel load.
C. 30, 2
During an normal (auto) engine start, the PMU:
A. activates the starter B. activates the boost pump C. activates the igniters D. adds fuel at the proper N1 E. all of the above
The PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______.
A. 60%
After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start.
A. True
The start may be manually aborted by:
A. placing the PCL back to OFF
B. reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate)
*D. either a or b above
If a start attempt is automatically or manually aborted:
D. perform the Abort Start Procedure
Illumination of the fire warning light accompanied by one or more of the following indications is confirmation of an engine fire:
A. smoke B. engine vibration C. unusual sounds D. fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure E. all of the above
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation.
B. False
During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _______ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.
B. a minimum 15 seconds
The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances:
C. as displayed on the fuel gauge
Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will:
D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.
The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power:
A. all equipment on the generator bus
B. the battery bus equipment
C. charge the battery
D. all the above
If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set to on in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON:
B. it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF
C. generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON
*E. b and c above
While the PMU should normally abort a hot/hung/no start, the pilot should manually abort a start in the following situations:
A. Normal N1 increase is halted
B. No rise of ITT is evident within 10sec after fuel flow indications
C. BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence
D. PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence
*E. All of the above
Preflight testing of the auxiliary battery power level is accomplished:
A. prior to application of battery power
C. using the AUX BAT test switch and light
*E. both a and c above
In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire warning system for approximately ________.
C. 30 minutes
