Targeted Therapy Flashcards

(298 cards)

1
Q

What is the definition of targeted therapy in oncology?

A
  • Treatment that interferes with specific molecular targets involved in cancer growth and progression
  • Designed to block proliferation, angiogenesis, or survival signals
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2
Q

What are the two major categories of targeted therapies?

A
  • Small molecule inhibitors
  • Monoclonal antibodies (including ADCs)
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3
Q

How do small molecule inhibitors work?

A
  • Typically enter cells and inhibit intracellular signaling proteins like kinases
  • Block downstream oncogenic pathways
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4
Q

How do monoclonal antibodies exert anti-cancer effects?

A
  • Bind extracellular receptors or ligands
  • May trigger immune responses (ADCC, CDC)
  • Can be conjugated with cytotoxic agents
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5
Q

What is an antibody-drug conjugate (ADC)?

A
  • Monoclonal antibody linked to cytotoxic agent
  • Delivers chemotherapy selectively to tumor cells
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6
Q

What are examples of key intracellular pathways targeted by small molecule inhibitors?

A
  • EGFR
  • BRAF/MEK
  • PI3K/AKT/mTOR
  • ALK
  • FLT3
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7
Q

What types of resistance can develop with targeted therapies?

A
  • Primary (intrinsic) resistance
  • Secondary (acquired) resistance due to mutations or pathway activation
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8
Q

What is EGFR and its role in cancer?

A
  • Epidermal growth factor receptor, a tyrosine kinase
  • Promotes proliferation, survival, and metastasis in many solid tumors
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9
Q

Name 3 EGFR inhibitors used in cancer therapy.

A
  • Erlotinib
  • Afatinib
  • Osimertinib
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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of erlotinib?

A
  • Reversible EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor (1st generation)
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11
Q

What distinguishes afatinib from erlotinib?

A
  • Afatinib is an irreversible pan-ErbB inhibitor (2nd gen)
  • Also inhibits HER2 and HER4
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12
Q

What is osimertinib’s key clinical niche?

A
  • Targets EGFR T790M mutation in NSCLC
  • 3rd-generation irreversible inhibitor with CNS penetration
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13
Q

What are common adverse effects of EGFR TKIs?

A
  • Rash
  • Diarrhea
  • Nail changes
  • Interstitial lung disease (ILD)
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14
Q

How is EGFR rash managed?

A
  • Topical steroids
  • Doxycycline or minocycline
  • Dose modification if severe
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15
Q

Which EGFR inhibitor is most associated with QTc prolongation?

A
  • Osimertinib
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16
Q

What type of mutation predicts response to EGFR TKIs?

A
  • Exon 19 deletion or L858R mutation in exon 21
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17
Q

Which mutation causes resistance to 1st and 2nd generation EGFR inhibitors?

A
  • T790M
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18
Q

What diagnostic test is used to detect EGFR mutations?

A
  • PCR or NGS on tumor tissue
  • Liquid biopsy (ctDNA)
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19
Q

What is HER2 and its role in cancer?

A
  • Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
  • Overexpressed in some breast, gastric, and lung cancers
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20
Q

What are examples of HER2-targeted agents?

A
  • Trastuzumab
  • Pertuzumab
  • Lapatinib
  • Tucatinib
  • Trastuzumab deruxtecan
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21
Q

What is trastuzumab’s mechanism of action?

A
  • Binds HER2 extracellular domain
  • Inhibits signaling
  • Activates ADCC
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22
Q

What is pertuzumab’s unique mechanism?

A
  • Binds HER2 at different domain than trastuzumab
  • Blocks HER2 dimerization with HER3
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23
Q

What is lapatinib’s mechanism of action?

A
  • Oral small molecule TKI that inhibits HER2 and EGFR
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24
Q

What is tucatinib’s selectivity advantage?

A
  • More selective for HER2
  • Less EGFR inhibition → fewer skin/GI side effects
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25
What is trastuzumab deruxtecan?
- HER2-directed antibody-drug conjugate - Contains topoisomerase I payload - For HER2+ and HER2-low tumors
26
What serious toxicity is associated with trastuzumab deruxtecan?
- Interstitial lung disease (ILD)
27
What is the standard monitoring strategy for HER2 cardiotoxicity?
- Baseline and periodic LVEF (e.g., every 3 months)
28
What is a unique toxicity of lapatinib compared to trastuzumab?
- Diarrhea - Hand-foot syndrome
29
When should HER2-targeted therapy be discontinued due to cardiotoxicity?
- LVEF drop ≥16% from baseline - LVEF <50% with symptoms
30
What is HER2-low breast cancer?
- IHC 1+ or 2+ with negative ISH - Not classically HER2+ but can respond to trastuzumab deruxtecan
31
What distinguishes reversible from irreversible TKIs?
- Reversible: bind non-covalently (e.g., erlotinib) - Irreversible: form covalent bonds (e.g., afatinib, osimertinib)
32
What are class-wide toxicities of HER2-targeted mAbs?
- Infusion reactions - Cardiotoxicity - Rare ILD
33
What is the clinical significance of HER3 in cancer?
- Dimerizes with HER2 - Potent activation of downstream pathways
34
What is the function of HER2 dimerization inhibitors?
- Prevent HER2 from pairing with other HER family receptors (e.g., pertuzumab)
35
How do tyrosine kinase domain mutations impact drug selection?
- Alter drug binding - Guide selection of 1st, 2nd, or 3rd-gen TKIs
36
Which HER2-targeted therapy is preferred for CNS disease?
- Tucatinib (good CNS penetration)
37
What is the backbone regimen for metastatic HER2+ breast cancer?
- Trastuzumab + pertuzumab + docetaxel (CLEOPATRA trial)
38
What trial led to the approval of trastuzumab deruxtecan in HER2-low disease?
- DESTINY-Breast04
39
What is the dosing schedule for trastuzumab deruxtecan?
- IV infusion every 3 weeks (q3w)
40
What are signs of early ILD with HER2 ADCs?
- Cough - Dyspnea - Radiographic infiltrates without infection
41
What is the preferred first-line TKI in EGFR-mutant NSCLC?
- Osimertinib
42
Which EGFR TKI is most effective against brain metastases?
- Osimertinib
43
What are strategies to overcome EGFR TKI resistance?
- Switch to later-gen TKI - Combine with MET inhibitors - Use chemotherapy
44
What mutation causes resistance to osimertinib?
- EGFR C797S mutation
45
What is the mechanism of EGFR C797S resistance?
- Prevents covalent binding of osimertinib
46
How are EGFR inhibitors metabolized?
- Primarily CYP3A4 - Watch for drug interactions
47
What drugs can reduce efficacy of osimertinib?
- Strong CYP3A inducers (e.g., phenytoin, rifampin)
48
What supportive care is needed with EGFR inhibitors?
- Rash prophylaxis - Diarrhea management - LFT monitoring
49
What class of drugs often causes acneiform rash?
- EGFR inhibitors
50
What patient counseling points are important for EGFR TKIs?
- Rash and diarrhea are common - Report new respiratory symptoms - Adherence is key to efficacy
51
What is ALK and in which cancer is it commonly mutated?
- Anaplastic lymphoma kinase - Mutated/rearranged in NSCLC, ALCL, and other tumors
52
What is the mechanism of action of crizotinib?
- ALK and ROS1 tyrosine kinase inhibitor - Also inhibits MET
53
What are common toxicities of crizotinib?
- Visual disturbances - QTc prolongation - GI symptoms
54
What distinguishes alectinib from crizotinib?
- More potent and CNS-penetrant - First-line agent for ALK+ NSCLC
55
What is the typical dosing of alectinib?
- 600 mg PO BID with food
56
What ALK inhibitor is associated with elevated CPK and myalgias?
- Alectinib
57
What monitoring is needed for alectinib?
- CPK - LFTs - Pulmonary symptoms
58
What ALK inhibitor is used after resistance to alectinib?
- Lorlatinib
59
What are unique side effects of lorlatinib?
- CNS effects (mood, memory) - Hypercholesterolemia - Hypertriglyceridemia
60
What is ROS1 and its clinical relevance?
- Receptor tyrosine kinase similar to ALK - Rearrangements seen in NSCLC
61
What drugs are used for ROS1+ NSCLC?
- Crizotinib - Entrectinib - Lorlatinib (off-label)
62
What is the mechanism of action of entrectinib?
- Inhibits ROS1, NTRK, ALK
63
What is RET and its relevance in cancer?
- Receptor tyrosine kinase - Mutated or rearranged in thyroid and NSCLC
64
What are selective RET inhibitors?
- Selpercatinib - Pralsetinib
65
What are adverse effects of selpercatinib?
- Hypertension - Hepatotoxicity - QT prolongation
66
What are common indications for RET inhibitors?
- RET fusion+ NSCLC - RET-mutant medullary thyroid cancer (MTC)
67
What is BRAF and where is V600E mutation seen?
- Kinase in MAPK pathway - Melanoma, colon, thyroid cancers
68
What are approved BRAF inhibitors?
- Vemurafenib - Dabrafenib - Encorafenib
69
What is a major toxicity of BRAF inhibitors?
- Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma - Arthralgia - Photosensitivity
70
Why are BRAF and MEK inhibitors used together?
- Reduces resistance - Lowers skin toxicity - Improves efficacy
71
What are MEK inhibitors approved for use with BRAF agents?
- Trametinib (with dabrafenib) - Binimetinib (with encorafenib)
72
What are MEK inhibitor side effects?
- Rash - Diarrhea - Cardiotoxicity - Retinal toxicity
73
What monitoring is needed for MEK inhibitors?
- LVEF (echocardiogram) - Ophthalmologic exams
74
What is NTRK and in what cancers is it altered?
- Neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase - Fusions seen in rare solid tumors across histologies
75
What are TRK inhibitors approved for NTRK+ tumors?
- Larotrectinib - Entrectinib
76
What is the mechanism of action of larotrectinib?
- Selective TRK inhibitor - Blocks fusion-driven tumor signaling
77
What are side effects of TRK inhibitors?
- Fatigue - Dizziness - Weight gain - Transaminitis
78
What is the benefit of TRK inhibitors in pediatric cancers?
- High response rate - Favorable safety profile
79
How are patients selected for TRK inhibitor therapy?
- NGS or fusion panel testing - Pan-cancer biomarker detection
80
What defines tumor-agnostic approval?
- FDA approval based on biomarker, not tumor type - Example: NTRK fusion + → TRK inhibitors
81
What is the difference between selective and multikinase inhibitors?
- Selective: target a single kinase (e.g., selpercatinib) - Multikinase: target multiple kinases (e.g., cabozantinib)
82
Which kinase inhibitors require thyroid function monitoring?
- RET inhibitors - Multikinase inhibitors (e.g., sunitinib)
83
What targeted therapies commonly cause hypertension?
- RET inhibitors - VEGF inhibitors - BRAF/MEK combos
84
What drug class is associated with ocular side effects like blurred vision or retinal detachment?
- MEK inhibitors
85
What baseline tests should precede MEK inhibitor therapy?
- LVEF assessment - Eye exam
86
What is the advantage of entrectinib over larotrectinib?
- Covers ROS1 and ALK in addition to NTRK - Greater CNS penetration
87
What unique side effect may occur with lorlatinib but not with alectinib?
- Cognitive/mood disturbances
88
What counseling is important for patients on BRAF inhibitors?
- Sun protection - Report new skin lesions - Joint pain management
89
Which pathway do BRAF and MEK inhibitors target?
- MAPK (RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK) pathway
90
What is the benefit of combination BRAF/MEK inhibition in melanoma?
- Improves OS and PFS - Reduces cutaneous toxicity
91
What labs should be monitored during TRK inhibitor therapy?
- LFTs - Glucose - Weight
92
Which cancers most often carry NTRK fusions?
- Infantile fibrosarcoma - Secretory breast carcinoma - Some thyroid, colon cancers
93
What is the duration of response to TRK inhibitors?
- Often long-lasting, even in advanced disease
94
How does resistance to TRK inhibitors develop?
- Kinase domain mutations - Bypass signaling activation
95
What is selitrectinib?
- Next-gen TRK inhibitor for TRK resistance mutations
96
What defines next-generation kinase inhibitors?
- Designed to overcome resistance mutations - Improved selectivity and CNS penetration
97
What is the mechanism of acquired resistance to ALK inhibitors?
- ALK mutations (e.g., G1202R) - Activation of bypass pathways
98
What RET mutation is associated with medullary thyroid cancer?
- RET M918T
99
What is the main adverse effect to monitor in ROS1 inhibitors?
- CNS toxicity (especially dizziness, ataxia)
100
What is a key pharmacologic feature of newer ALK inhibitors?
- CNS penetration - Activity against resistance mutations
101
What is the role of VEGF in cancer?
- Stimulates new blood vessel growth (angiogenesis) - Supports tumor oxygenation and nutrient supply
102
What is the mechanism of action of bevacizumab?
- Monoclonal antibody against VEGF-A - Prevents VEGF from binding its receptor
103
What cancers use bevacizumab in treatment?
- Colorectal, lung, renal, ovarian, glioblastoma
104
What are common toxicities of bevacizumab?
- Hypertension - Proteinuria - Delayed wound healing - GI perforation
105
What monitoring is needed for bevacizumab?
- BP - Urinalysis for protein - Monitor for bleeding/perforation
106
When should bevacizumab be held around surgery?
- Stop ≥28 days pre-op - Resume ≥28 days post-op and after wound healing
107
What is ramucirumab and its target?
- VEGFR2 monoclonal antibody - Blocks VEGF receptor, not ligand
108
What is ziv-aflibercept?
- Recombinant fusion protein - Acts as decoy receptor for VEGF-A, B, and PlGF
109
What are TKIs that target VEGF receptors?
- Sorafenib - Sunitinib - Axitinib - Cabozantinib - Lenvatinib
110
What toxicities are associated with VEGFR TKIs?
- Hand-foot syndrome - Hypertension - Diarrhea - Fatigue
111
How are VEGFR TKIs metabolized?
- Mostly via CYP3A4 - Watch for DDIs
112
Which VEGFR TKI is most associated with thyroid dysfunction?
- Sunitinib
113
What drug causes hair depigmentation (hair turns white)?
- Pazopanib or sunitinib
114
Which VEGFR TKI requires fasting administration?
- Pazopanib (empty stomach)
115
What is cabozantinib's unique toxicity?
- Palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia - Fistula/hemorrhage risk
116
What is the mTOR pathway's role in cancer?
- Controls cell growth, proliferation, metabolism
117
What is everolimus’s mechanism of action?
- Binds FKBP-12 → inhibits mTORC1
118
What cancers is everolimus approved for?
- Breast (HR+), renal cell, neuroendocrine tumors
119
What is a common toxicity of everolimus?
- Stomatitis
120
What is used to prevent everolimus-associated stomatitis?
- Dexamethasone mouthwash
121
What are other adverse effects of everolimus?
- Hyperglycemia - Hyperlipidemia - Pneumonitis - Rash
122
What monitoring is needed for everolimus?
- Fasting glucose, lipids - CBC - Pulmonary symptoms
123
What is temsirolimus?
- IV mTOR inhibitor - Approved for poor-risk advanced RCC
124
What limits the use of temsirolimus?
- IV administration - Higher risk of hypersensitivity
125
What is the PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway responsible for?
- Regulates cell survival and growth - Frequently altered in cancer
126
What is alpelisib and its target?
- Oral PI3K-alpha inhibitor - Targets PIK3CA-mutated HR+ breast cancer
127
What are common side effects of alpelisib?
- Hyperglycemia - Rash - Diarrhea
128
What monitoring is important with alpelisib?
- Fasting glucose - A1c - Skin exams
129
What prophylaxis can reduce rash risk with alpelisib?
- Antihistamines (e.g., cetirizine)
130
What companion diagnostic is needed for alpelisib?
- PIK3CA mutation testing (tumor or ctDNA)
131
What is capivasertib and its target?
- Oral AKT inhibitor - Used in HR+/HER2− breast cancer
132
What trial supports capivasertib + fulvestrant use?
- CAPItello-291
133
What are side effects of capivasertib?
- Diarrhea - Rash - Hyperglycemia
134
How is PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway activated?
- PIK3CA mutation - PTEN loss - AKT1 mutation
135
What is ipatasertib and what does it inhibit?
- AKT inhibitor under investigation - Targets tumors with PTEN loss
136
What drugs inhibit mTOR and may cause pneumonitis?
- Everolimus - Temsirolimus
137
What is a management strategy for immune-related pneumonitis?
- Hold drug - Corticosteroids if symptomatic
138
What is the most common metabolic abnormality with PI3K inhibitors?
- Hyperglycemia
139
What are signs of serious stomatitis vs. mucositis?
- Stomatitis: aphthous ulcers, limited to mouth - Mucositis: more diffuse, painful, affects entire GI tract
140
What are oral agents targeting the PI3K pathway?
- Alpelisib - Copanlisib (IV for lymphoma)
141
What are class-wide adverse effects of mTOR inhibitors?
- Metabolic (glucose, lipids) - Rash - Pneumonitis - Stomatitis
142
Why are combination regimens with mTOR inhibitors challenging?
- Overlapping toxicities - Limited tolerability
143
What is the role of PI3K/AKT inhibitors in endocrine resistance?
- Block compensatory survival signaling - Restore endocrine sensitivity
144
What is the rationale for combining fulvestrant with PI3K/AKT inhibitors?
- Dual pathway inhibition - Targets ER and survival signaling
145
What baseline labs are needed before PI3K/AKT inhibitors?
- Fasting glucose - Lipids - Liver function tests
146
Which PI3K inhibitor is approved for hematologic malignancies?
- Idelalisib (for CLL, FL)
147
What black box warning is associated with idelalisib?
- Hepatotoxicity - Diarrhea/colitis - Pneumonitis - Infections
148
What counseling is important for patients on mTOR inhibitors?
- Report cough, mouth sores - Monitor blood sugars - Take with or without food consistently
149
How should everolimus be taken with respect to food?
- Consistently with or without food daily
150
What is the benefit of identifying PI3K/AKT/mTOR mutations in solid tumors?
- Enables targeted therapy selection - May predict resistance to standard treatments
151
What is the mechanism of action of PARP inhibitors?
- Inhibit PARP enzymes involved in single-strand DNA repair - Cause synthetic lethality in BRCA-deficient cells
152
Name FDA-approved PARP inhibitors.
- Olaparib - Rucaparib - Niraparib - Talazoparib
153
What cancers are PARP inhibitors approved for?
- Breast (gBRCA) - Ovarian - Pancreatic - Prostate
154
What is the key biomarker for PARP inhibitor therapy?
- BRCA1/2 mutations (germline or somatic)
155
What are class-wide toxicities of PARP inhibitors?
- Nausea - Fatigue - Anemia - Thrombocytopenia
156
Which PARP inhibitor has the highest risk of hematologic toxicity?
- Talazoparib
157
What lab monitoring is required with PARP inhibitors?
- CBC every 2–4 weeks - Renal and hepatic function
158
What is synthetic lethality?
- Cell death caused by simultaneous defects in two pathways (e.g., BRCA mutation + PARP inhibition)
159
Which PARP inhibitors are used for maintenance therapy in ovarian cancer?
- Olaparib - Niraparib
160
What is a notable rare side effect of PARP inhibitors?
- MDS/AML
161
What companion diagnostic is required for olaparib in prostate cancer?
- HRR gene mutation panel (BRCA1/2, ATM, etc.)
162
Which PARP inhibitor does not require BRCA mutation for use in ovarian cancer?
- Niraparib (maintenance regardless of BRCA status)
163
What is the mechanism of CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- Inhibit cyclin-dependent kinases 4 and 6 - Prevent phosphorylation of Rb - Halt cell cycle at G1 phase
164
Name the 3 main CDK4/6 inhibitors.
- Palbociclib - Ribociclib - Abemaciclib
165
Which CDK4/6 inhibitor has the highest rate of diarrhea?
- Abemaciclib
166
Which CDK4/6 inhibitor causes the most neutropenia?
- Palbociclib
167
Which CDK4/6 inhibitor is dosed continuously?
- Abemaciclib
168
Which CDK4/6 inhibitor is associated with QTc prolongation?
- Ribociclib
169
What trial led to approval of ribociclib in early breast cancer?
- NATALEE
170
What is the typical dosing schedule of palbociclib?
- 21 days on, 7 days off (28-day cycle)
171
What labs must be monitored with CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- CBC (esp. ANC) - LFTs - ECG for ribociclib
172
What are common side effects of CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- Neutropenia - Diarrhea - Fatigue - Elevated LFTs
173
What is the role of CDK4/6 inhibitors in HR+/HER2− breast cancer?
- First-line therapy with endocrine therapy - Improves OS and PFS
174
What is the recommended contraceptive counseling with CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- Use effective contraception during and for weeks after treatment
175
What are notable drug interactions with CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- CYP3A4 inhibitors/inducers
176
What is the mechanism of resistance to CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- Rb loss - Cyclin E amplification - Bypass of G1/S checkpoint
177
What is the importance of retinoblastoma (Rb) protein in CDK4/6 inhibition?
- CDK4/6 phosphorylates Rb - Inhibition leads to G1 arrest
178
What defines a functional companion diagnostic?
- Required biomarker test to prescribe a specific therapy
179
What drugs require BRCA testing before use?
- PARP inhibitors: olaparib, talazoparib, etc.
180
What companion diagnostic is used for HER2-targeted therapies?
- IHC and ISH testing for HER2 overexpression or amplification
181
Which targeted therapies require PD-L1 testing?
- Immunotherapies (e.g., atezolizumab in TNBC)
182
How does pharmacogenomics affect targeted therapy?
- Affects drug metabolism (e.g., CYP2D6 & tamoxifen) - Predicts efficacy/toxicity
183
What is the impact of CYP3A4 inhibitors on TKIs?
- Increases drug exposure - Risk of toxicity
184
What drugs are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors?
- Ketoconazole - Itraconazole - Clarithromycin
185
What drugs are strong CYP3A4 inducers?
- Rifampin - Carbamazepine - Phenytoin
186
What are examples of food–drug interactions in targeted therapy?
- Grapefruit juice with TKIs - Fatty meals increasing bioavailability
187
What is the effect of acid-reducing agents on TKI absorption?
- Can reduce absorption of pH-dependent TKIs (e.g., erlotinib, pazopanib)
188
Which TKIs require acidic environments for absorption?
- Erlotinib - Pazopanib - Dasatinib
189
How should acid reducers be managed with pH-dependent TKIs?
- Avoid PPIs - Space H2 blockers/antacids
190
What are key counseling points for PARP inhibitors?
- Take with/without food per agent - Monitor fatigue, nausea - Contraceptive use advised
191
What are key counseling points for CDK4/6 inhibitors?
- Monitor CBC - Report diarrhea (especially abemaciclib) - Discuss contraceptive needs
192
How should ribociclib be administered?
- With or without food - Avoid CYP3A4 interactions
193
What educational point is key for palbociclib?
- Emphasize importance of treatment breaks (7-day off)
194
Which CDK4/6 inhibitor can be used with letrozole or fulvestrant?
- All: palbociclib, ribociclib, abemaciclib
195
What is the major benefit of adding CDK4/6 inhibitors to endocrine therapy?
- Improved progression-free and overall survival
196
What supportive measures are recommended for CDK4/6-induced diarrhea?
- Loperamide - Hydration - Dose adjustment if severe
197
What is the half-life of talazoparib?
- Approximately 90 hours
198
Which PARP inhibitor is renally cleared and needs dose adjustments?
- Olaparib
199
What is the mechanism of action of antibody-drug conjugates (ADCs)?
- Monoclonal antibody targets tumor antigen - Cytotoxic payload is internalized and released inside cancer cell - Combines specificity of antibody with potency of chemotherapy
200
Name 3 FDA-approved ADCs and their targets.
- Trastuzumab deruxtecan – HER2 - Sacituzumab govitecan – Trop-2 - Brentuximab vedotin – CD30
201
What is the payload in trastuzumab deruxtecan?
- Topoisomerase I inhibitor (deruxtecan)
202
What toxicity is a black box warning for trastuzumab deruxtecan?
- Interstitial lung disease (ILD)
203
What is the mechanism of resistance to ADCs?
- Downregulation or mutation of antigen - Impaired internalization - Increased efflux of payload
204
What is sacituzumab govitecan and its target?
- ADC targeting Trop-2 - Contains SN-38 (irinotecan active metabolite) as payload
205
What cancers use sacituzumab govitecan?
- Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC) - HR+/HER2– breast cancer - Bladder cancer
206
What are common toxicities of sacituzumab govitecan?
- Diarrhea - Neutropenia - Alopecia - Fatigue
207
What ADC targets CD30 and is used in Hodgkin lymphoma?
- Brentuximab vedotin
208
What is the payload of brentuximab vedotin?
- MMAE (microtubule inhibitor)
209
What are class-wide toxicities of ADCs?
- Infusion reactions - Cytopenias - Peripheral neuropathy (especially MMAE-containing ADCs)
210
What is the mechanism of resistance to small molecule TKIs?
- Target mutations (e.g., EGFR T790M) - Bypass pathway activation - Drug efflux or metabolic changes
211
What is the T790M mutation and its significance?
- EGFR mutation causing resistance to 1st/2nd-gen TKIs - Targeted by osimertinib
212
How can resistance to CDK4/6 inhibitors develop?
- Rb loss - Cyclin E amplification - Upregulation of CDK2
213
What strategies are used to overcome targeted therapy resistance?
- Use of next-gen inhibitors - Combination therapies - Targeting alternative pathways
214
Why is CNS penetration important for some targeted therapies?
- Many cancers metastasize to brain (e.g., NSCLC, HER2+ breast cancer) - Requires drugs that cross blood-brain barrier (e.g., osimertinib, tucatinib)
215
Which targeted therapies have good CNS activity?
- Osimertinib - Tucatinib - Alectinib - Lorlatinib
216
What are special considerations for targeted therapy in the elderly?
- Adjust based on renal/hepatic function - Polypharmacy and drug interactions - Monitor for fatigue, cytopenias
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What are renal dose adjustments required for?
- Olaparib - Niraparib - Talazoparib - Crizotinib
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What targeted agents require hepatic dose adjustments?
- Lenvatinib - Abemaciclib - Osimertinib
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What is the main concern with combining targeted therapy and radiation?
- Overlapping toxicity (e.g., pneumonitis, skin reactions) - Increased risk of organ damage
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What is tumor lysis syndrome and which targeted agents can cause it?
- Rapid cell death → electrolyte imbalances - Seen with venetoclax, BTK inhibitors
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How is tumor lysis syndrome managed?
- Hydration - Allopurinol or rasburicase - Monitor electrolytes and renal function
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What is cytokine release syndrome (CRS)?
- Immune overactivation causing fever, hypotension, organ dysfunction - Seen with CAR-T and some bispecific antibodies
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What are signs and management of CRS?
- Signs: fever, hypoxia, hypotension - Management: hold drug, give tocilizumab, steroids if needed
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What is the importance of patient education in targeted therapy?
- Encourages adherence - Helps recognize early toxicity - Improves outcomes and safety
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What counseling is needed regarding contraception in targeted therapy?
- Use effective contraception during and after therapy - Some drugs are teratogenic (e.g., lenvatinib, palbociclib)
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What are financial barriers to targeted therapy use?
- High cost - Insurance approval delays - Need for financial navigation and assistance
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How can pharmacists support targeted therapy adherence?
- Medication synchronization - Side effect counseling - Refill reminders
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What is the pharmacist's role in managing DDIs in targeted therapy?
- Review CYP interactions - Adjust doses or recommend alternatives - Educate on timing with acid suppressants
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What should be monitored monthly with many oral TKIs?
- CBC - LFTs - Renal function - ECG (for QTc-risk agents)
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What tools can be used to manage targeted therapy side effects?
- Symptom diaries - Digital adherence tools - Structured toxicity checklists
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What resource provides guidelines on targeted therapies?
- NCCN (National Comprehensive Cancer Network)
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What are key toxicities of MMAE-containing ADCs?
- Neuropathy - Neutropenia - Fatigue
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What is the difference between Trop-2 expression and HER2-low status?
- Trop-2: surface glycoprotein overexpressed in many epithelial cancers - HER2-low: IHC 1+ or 2+ with negative ISH; eligible for certain HER2 ADCs
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Why is HER2-low considered a new therapeutic category?
- Opens ADC use to a broader population - Represents a paradigm shift in HER2 targeting
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What is the 'bystander effect' in ADCs?
- Payload diffuses to nearby cells - Kills both target-positive and adjacent target-negative cells
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What type of linker affects the bystander effect in ADCs?
- Cleavable linkers enable diffusion - Non-cleavable restrict to target cell only
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What are examples of non-cleavable ADCs?
- Trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1)
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What are examples of cleavable ADCs?
- Trastuzumab deruxtecan - Sacituzumab govitecan
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What is the purpose of linker technology in ADCs?
- Controls drug release - Impacts efficacy and toxicity profile
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What are challenges in ADC development?
- Target selection - Toxicity management - Drug stability and delivery
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What class of drug is enfortumab vedotin?
- ADC targeting Nectin-4 - Approved for bladder cancer
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What toxicity is unique to enfortumab vedotin?
- Rash (including SJS) - Hyperglycemia
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What are two common ADC payload classes?
- Microtubule inhibitors (e.g., MMAE) - Topoisomerase I inhibitors (e.g., deruxtecan)
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Why is close monitoring needed with ADCs in lung disease?
- Risk of ILD, especially with HER2-targeted ADCs
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What is the function of Trop-2 in cancer biology?
- Promotes tumor growth, migration, and survival - Overexpressed in many epithelial tumors
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What patient population benefits from Trop-2 targeting?
- Triple-negative and HR+/HER2– breast cancer - Urothelial carcinoma
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Why is infusion reaction prophylaxis used with some ADCs?
- Premedication reduces risk of reactions (e.g., steroids, antihistamines)
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What is a best practice for ADC dosing and safety?
- Monitor for organ dysfunction - Educate on delayed toxicities - Adjust for renal/hepatic function if applicable
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What are bispecific antibodies in oncology?
- Engineered antibodies with two binding domains - Bind both a tumor antigen and an immune effector (e.g., CD3 on T-cells)
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What is the mechanism of bispecific T-cell engagers (BiTEs)?
- Bring T-cells into close proximity to tumor cells - Trigger T-cell–mediated killing independent of MHC
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Name a bispecific antibody approved in hematologic malignancies.
- Blinatumomab (CD19/CD3) for B-ALL
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What is teclistamab and its target?
- Bispecific antibody for multiple myeloma - Targets BCMA on myeloma cells and CD3 on T-cells
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What is the major adverse effect of bispecific T-cell engagers?
- Cytokine release syndrome (CRS)
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What is immune resistance in cancer?
- Tumor evasion of immune detection or destruction - Involves antigen loss, immune checkpoint upregulation, TME changes
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What role do targeted therapies play in modulating the immune microenvironment?
- May increase tumor immunogenicity - Alter cytokine signaling and T-cell infiltration
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How can VEGF inhibitors affect the immune environment?
- Reduce immunosuppressive cells - Promote T-cell infiltration
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What are examples of synergistic combinations of targeted and immunotherapy?
- Atezolizumab + bevacizumab in HCC - Lenvatinib + pembrolizumab in endometrial cancer
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What is the rationale for combining VEGF blockade with PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors?
- VEGF inhibition normalizes vasculature and TME - Enhances immune cell access and function
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What are mechanisms of resistance to immune checkpoint inhibitors?
- Loss of tumor antigen presentation (e.g., B2M loss) - Upregulation of alternate checkpoints (e.g., TIM-3, LAG-3) - Immunosuppressive TME
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What targeted therapy combinations are being explored with immunotherapy?
- MEK inhibitors + anti-PD-1 - PARP inhibitors + anti-PD-L1 - VEGF TKIs + immune checkpoint inhibitors
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What is the impact of MEK inhibitors on the immune response?
- May enhance antigen presentation - Reduce regulatory T cells - Can improve response to immunotherapy
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What are limitations of combining targeted therapy and immunotherapy?
- Increased toxicity - Limited benefit in some tumor types - Need for biomarker selection
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What is the mechanism of lenvatinib + pembrolizumab synergy?
- Lenvatinib inhibits VEGFR, FGFR → alters TME - Enhances T-cell activity of pembrolizumab
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In what cancer is the combo of atezolizumab + bevacizumab approved?
- Unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
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What is the IMbrave150 trial?
- Study supporting atezolizumab + bevacizumab in HCC - Showed OS and PFS benefit
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What is the clinical significance of LAG-3?
- Alternate immune checkpoint - Targeted by relatlimab in melanoma
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What is the significance of tumor mutational burden (TMB)?
- Higher TMB → more neoantigens → increased immunotherapy response
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What defines microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) tumors?
- Defective DNA mismatch repair - Predictive of immunotherapy benefit
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Which solid tumors are routinely tested for MSI-H?
- Colorectal - Endometrial - Gastric - Prostate
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What is the relationship between DDR mutations and immune response?
- DDR mutations increase genomic instability → more neoantigens → enhanced immune response
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Which drug classes may induce immunogenic cell death?
- PARP inhibitors - Some chemotherapy agents - Radiation
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What is the role of dendritic cells in immune activation?
- Present antigens to T-cells - Critical for priming effective antitumor immunity
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What is the significance of the tumor microenvironment (TME)?
- Influences immune cell function, drug access, resistance - Can be immunosuppressive or immunostimulatory
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What are hot vs. cold tumors?
- Hot: inflamed, T-cell infiltrated, immunotherapy-responsive - Cold: non-inflamed, poor immune response, low PD-L1
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How can targeted therapies turn cold tumors hot?
- Enhance antigen presentation - Normalize vasculature - Reduce Tregs and MDSCs
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What is the function of MDSCs in cancer?
- Suppress T-cell activity - Promote tumor growth and immune evasion
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What is the rationale for combining PI3K inhibition and immunotherapy?
- PI3K pathway involved in Treg survival - Inhibition may promote antitumor immunity
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What cancer types commonly use PD-L1 testing for treatment decisions?
- NSCLC - Bladder cancer - Triple-negative breast cancer
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What does a Combined Positive Score (CPS) measure?
- PD-L1 expression on tumor and immune cells - Used for selecting anti-PD-1/PD-L1 therapy
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What is the role of interferon-gamma in immune activation?
- Increases MHC expression - Promotes antigen presentation and T-cell recruitment
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What is the tumor immune cycle?
- Antigen release → presentation → T-cell activation → trafficking → tumor killing → repeat
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What checkpoint inhibitors target PD-1?
- Nivolumab - Pembrolizumab
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What checkpoint inhibitors target PD-L1?
- Atezolizumab - Durvalumab - Avelumab
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What is the function of CTLA-4 in immune regulation?
- Inhibits early T-cell activation in lymph nodes
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What is ipilimumab’s mechanism of action?
- CTLA-4 inhibitor - Promotes T-cell priming and expansion
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What is the significance of dual checkpoint blockade?
- Targets both priming and effector phases of immunity - Increases response but also toxicity
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What are common irAEs (immune-related adverse events)?
- Colitis - Pneumonitis - Hepatitis - Endocrinopathies
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How are irAEs managed?
- Corticosteroids - Hold or discontinue immunotherapy - Endocrine replacement if needed
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How does immunotherapy differ from targeted therapy in onset of action?
- Immunotherapy may take weeks to months - Targeted therapy usually has rapid onset
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What is pseudoprogression?
- Apparent tumor growth on imaging due to immune infiltration - Follow-up imaging may show regression
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How is pseudoprogression managed?
- Monitor symptoms - Continue therapy unless clinical deterioration
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What are key considerations when sequencing immunotherapy and targeted therapy?
- Monitor overlapping toxicities - Time interval between treatments may be necessary
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Why must caution be used combining BRAF/MEK and immunotherapy?
- Risk of hepatotoxicity - Possible additive immune toxicity
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What is the significance of CD8+ TILs in tumor prognosis?
- High CD8+ TILs correlate with better response to immunotherapy
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What is the role of LAG-3 in immune suppression?
- Inhibitory receptor on T-cells - New target for immunotherapy
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What is relatlimab and how is it used?
- LAG-3 inhibitor - Combined with nivolumab in melanoma
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What is the primary challenge with bispecific antibodies?
- CRS and neurotoxicity - Complex administration and monitoring
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What is the future direction of immuno-targeted therapy combinations?
- Biomarker-driven selection - Triple therapies - Personalized TME modulation