TB Ch: 31 - Health Assessment Flashcards
(43 cards)
A nurse is a preceptor for a nurse who just graduated from nursing school. When caring for a patient, the new graduate nurse begins to explain to the patient the purpose of completing a physical assessment. Which statement made by the new graduate nurse requires the preceptor to intervene?
a. “I will use the information from my assessment to figure out if your antihypertensive medication is working effectively.”
b. “Nursing assessment data are used only to provide information about the effectiveness of your medical care.”
c. “Nurses use data from their patient’s physical assessment to determine a patient’s educational needs.”
d. “Information gained from physical assessment helps nurses better understand their patients’ emotional needs.”
ANS:B
Nursing assessment data are used to evaluate the effectiveness of all aspects of a patient’s care, not just the patient’s medical care. Assessment data help to evaluate the effectiveness of medications and to determine a patient’s health care needs, including the need for patient education. Nurses also use assessment data to identify patients’ psychosocial and cultural needs.
Having misplaced a stethoscope, a nurse borrows a colleague’s stethoscope. The nurse next enters the patient’s room and identifies self, washes hands with soap, and states the purpose of the visit. The nurse performs proper identification of the patient before auscultating the patient’s lungs. Which critical health assessment step should the nurse have performed?
a. Running warm water over stethoscope
b. Draping stethoscope around the neck
c. Rubbing stethoscope with betadine
d. Cleaning stethoscope with alcohol
ANS: D
Bacteria and viruses can be transferred from patient to patient when a stethoscope that is not clean is used. The stethoscope should be cleaned before use on each patient with isopropyl alcohol. Running water over the stethoscope does not kill bacteria. Betadine is an inappropriate cleaning solution and may damage the equipment. Draping the stethoscope around the neck is not advised.
A nurse is preparing to perform a complete physical examination on a weak, older-adult patient with bilateral basilar pneumonia. Which position will the nurse use?
a. Prone
b. Sims’
c. Supine
d. Lateral recumbent
ANS: C
Supine is the most normally relaxed position. If the patient becomes short of breath easily, raise the head of the bed. Supine position would be easiest for a weak, older-adult person during the examination. Lateral recumbent and prone positions cause respiratory difficulty for any patient with respiratory difficulties. Sims’ position is used for assessment of the rectum and the vagina.
A nurse is conducting Weber’s test. Which action will the nurse take?
a. Place a vibrating tuning fork in the middle of patient’s forehead.
b. Place a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s mastoid process.
c. Compare the number of seconds heard by bone versus air conduction.
d. Compare the patient’s degree of joint movement to the normal level.
ANS: A
During Weber’s test (lateralization of sound), the nurse places the vibrating tuning fork in the middle of the patient’s forehead. During a Rinne test (comparison of air and bone conduction), the nurse places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s mastoid process and compares the length of time air and bone conduction is heard. Comparing the patient’s degree of joint movement to the normal level is a test for range of motion.
A head and neck physical examination is completed on a 50-year-old female patient. All physical findings are normal except for fine brittle hair. Which laboratory test will the nurse expect to be ordered, based upon the physical findings?
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Liver function test
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
ANS: D
Thyroid disease can make hair thin and brittle. Liver function testing is indicated for a patient who has jaundice. Oxygen saturation will be used for cyanosis. Cherry-colored lips indicate carbon monoxide poisoning.
A febrile preschool-aged child presents to the after-hours clinic. Varicella (chickenpox) is diagnosed on the basis of the illness history and the presence of small, circumscribed skin lesions filled with serous fluid. Which type of skin lesion will the nurse report?
a. Vesicles
b. Wheals
c. Papules
d. Pustules
ANS: A
Vesicles are circumscribed, elevated skin lesions filled with serous fluid that measure less than 1 cm. Wheals are irregularly shaped, elevated areas of superficial localized edema that vary in size. They are common with mosquito bites and hives. Papules are palpable, circumscribed, solid elevations in the skin that are smaller than 1 cm. Pustules are elevations of skin similar to vesicles, but they are filled with pus and vary in size like acne.
A school nurse recognizes a belt buckle–shaped ecchymosis on a 7-year-old student. When privately asked about how the injury occurred, the student described falling on the playground. Which action will the nurse take next?
a. Talk to the principal about how to proceed.
b. Disregard the finding based upon child’s response.
c. Interview the patient in the presence of the teacher.
d. Contact social services and report suspected abuse.
ANS: D
Most states mandate a report to a social service center if nurses suspect abuse or neglect. When abuse is suspected, the nurse interviews the patient in private, not with a teacher. Observe the behavior of the individual for any signs of frustration, explanations that do not fit his or her physical presentation, or signs of injury. The nurse knows how to proceed and does not need to talk to the principal about what to do. Disregarding the finding is not advised because victims often will not complain or report that they are in an abusive situation.
A nurse identifies lice during a child’s scalp assessment. The nurse teaches the parents about hair care. Which information from the parents indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
a. We will use lindane-based shampoos.
b. We will use the sink to wash hair.
c. We will use a fine-toothed comb.
d. We will use a vinegar hair rinse.
ANS: A
Products containing lindane, a toxic ingredient, often cause adverse reactions; the nurse will need to follow up to correct the misconception. All the rest are correct. Instruct parents who have children with head lice to shampoo thoroughly with pediculicide (shampoo available at drugstores) in cold water at a basin or sink, comb thoroughly with a fine-toothed comb, and discard the comb. A dilute solution of vinegar and water helps loosen nits.
A parent calls the school nurse with questions regarding the recent school vision screening. Snellen chart examination revealed 20/60 for both eyes. Which response by the nurse is the best regarding the eye examination results?
a. Your child needs to see an ophthalmologist.
b. Your child is suffering from strabismus.
c. Your child may have presbyopia.
d. Your child has cataracts.
ANS: A
The child needs an eye examination with an ophthalmologist or optometrist. Normal vision is 20/20. The larger the denominator, the poorer the patient’s visual acuity. For example, a value of 20/60 means that the patient, when standing 20 feet away, can read a line that a person with normal vision can read from 60 feet away. Strabismus is a (congenital) condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously: The eyes appear crossed. Acuity may not be affected; Snellen test does not test for strabismus. Presbyopia is impaired near vision that occurs in middle-aged and older adults and is caused by loss of elasticity of the lens. Cataracts, a clouding of the lens, develop slowly and progressively after age 35 or suddenly after trauma.
During a routine pediatric history and physical, the parents report that their child was a very small, premature infant that had to stay in the neonatal intensive care unit longer than usual. They state that the infant was yellow when born and developed an infection that required “every antibiotic under the sun” to reach a cure. Which exam is a priority for the nurse to conduct on the child?
a. Cardiac
b. Respiratory
c. Ophthalmic
d. Hearing acuity
ANS: D
Hearing is the priority. Risk factors for hearing problems include low birth weight, nonbacterial intrauterine infection, and excessively high bilirubin levels. Hearing loss due to ototoxicity (injury to auditory nerves) can result from high maintenance doses of antibiotics. Cardiac, respiratory, and eye examinations are important assessments but are not relevant to this child’s condition.
During a sexually transmitted illness presentation to high-school students, the nurse recommends the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine series. Which condition is the nurse trying to prevent?
a. Breast cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Testicular cancer
ANS: C
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection increases the person’s risk for cervical cancer. HPV vaccine is recommended for females aged 11 to 12 years but can be given to females ages 12 through 26; males can also receive the vaccine. HPV is not a risk factor for breast, ovarian, and testicular cancer.
A male student comes to the college health clinic. He hesitantly describes that he found something wrong with his testis when taking a shower. Which assessment finding will alert the nurse to possible testicular cancer?
a. Hard, pea-sized testicular lump
b. Rubbery texture of testes
c. Painful enlarged testis
d. Prolonged diuretic use
ANS: A
The most common symptoms of testicular cancer are a painless enlargement of one testis and the appearance of a palpable, small, hard lump, about the size of a pea, on the front or side of the testicle. Normally, the testes feel smooth, rubbery, and free of nodules. Use of diuretics, sedatives, or antihypertensives can lead to erection or ejaculation problems.
The nurse is urgently called to the gymnasium regarding an injured student. The student is crying in severe pain with a malformed fractured lower leg. Which proper sequence will the nurse follow to perform the initial assessment?
a. Light palpation, deep palpation, and inspection
b. Inspection, light palpation, and deep palpation
c. Auscultation and light palpation
d. Inspection and light palpation
ANS: D
Inspection is the use of vision and hearing to distinguish normal from abnormal findings. Light palpation determines areas of tenderness and skin temperature, moisture, and texture. Deep palpation is used to examine the condition of organs, such as those in the abdomen. Caution is the rule with deep palpation. Deep palpation is performed after light palpation; however, deep palpation is not performed on a fractured leg. Auscultation is used to evaluate sound and is not used to assess a fractured leg.
The nurse is examining a female with vaginal discharge. Which position will the nurse place the patient for proper examination?
a. Sitting
b. Lithotomy
c. Knee-chest
d. Dorsal recumbent
ANS: B
Lithotomy is the position for examination of female genitalia. The lithotomy position provides for the maximum exposure of genitalia and allows the insertion of a vaginal speculum. Sitting does not allow adequate access for speculum insertion and is better used to visualize upper body parts. Dorsal recumbent is used to examine the head and neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, and abdomen. Knee-chest provides maximal exposure of the rectal area but is embarrassing and uncomfortable.
On admission, a patient weighs 250 pounds. The weight is recorded as 256 pounds on the second inpatient day. Which condition will the nurse assess for in this patient?
a. Anorexia
b. Weight loss
c. Fluid retention
d. Increased nutritional intake
ANS: C
This patient has gained 6 pounds in a 24-hour period. A weight gain of 5 pounds (2.3 kg) or more in a day indicates fluid retention problems, not nutritional intake. A weight loss is considered significant if the patient has lost more than 5% of body weight in a month or 10% in 6 months. A downward trend may indicate a reduction in nutritional reserves that may be caused by decreased intake such as anorexia.
The patient is a 45-year-old African-American male who has come in for a routine annual physical. Which type of preventive screening does the nurse discuss with the patient?
a. Digital rectal examination of the prostate
b. Complete eye examination every year
c. CA 125 blood test once a year
d. Colonoscopy every 3 years
ANS: A
Recommended preventive screenings include a digital rectal examination of the prostate and prostate-specific antigen test starting at age 50. CA 125 blood tests are indicated for women at high risk for ovarian cancer. Patients over the age of 65 need to have complete eye examinations yearly. Colonoscopy every 10 years is recommended in patients 50 years of age and older.
An advanced practice nurse is preparing to assess the external genitalia of a 25-year-old American woman of Chinese descent. Which action will the nurse do first?
a. Place the patient in the lithotomy position.
b. Drape the patient to enhance patient comfort.
c. Assess the patient’s feelings about the examination.
d. Ask the patient if she would like her mother to be present in the room.
ANS: C
Patients who are Chinese American often believe that examination of the external genitalia is offensive. Before proceeding with the examination, the nurse first determines how the patient feels about the procedure and explains the procedure to answer any questions and to help the patient feel comfortable with the assessment. Once the patient is ready to have her external genitalia examined, the nurse places the patient in the lithotomy position and drapes the patient appropriately. Typically, nurses ask adolescents if they want a parent present during the examination. The patient in this question is 25 years old; asking if she would like her mother to be present is inappropriate.
An older-adult patient is being seen for chronic entropion. Which condition will the nurse assess for in this patient?
a. Ptosis
b. Infection
c. Borborygmi
d. Exophthalmos
ANS: B
The diagnosis of entropion can lead to lashes of the lids irritating the conjunctiva and cornea. Irritation can lead to infection. Exophthalmos is a bulging of the eyes and usually indicates hyperthyroidism. An abnormal drooping of the lid over the pupil is called ptosis. In the older adult, ptosis results from a loss of elasticity that accompanies aging. Hyperactive sounds are loud, “growling” sounds called borborygmi, which indicate increased GI motility.
During a school physical examination, the nurse reviews the patient’s current medical history. The nurse discovers the patient has allergies. Which assessment finding is consistent with allergies?
a. Clubbing
b. Yellow discharge
c. Pale nasal mucosa
d. Puffiness of nasal mucosa
ANS: C
Pale nasal mucosa with clear discharge indicates allergy. Clubbing is due to insufficient oxygenation at the periphery resulting from conditions such as chronic emphysema and congenital heart disease; it is noted in the nails. A sinus infection results in yellowish or greenish discharge. Habitual use of intranasal cocaine and opioids causes puffiness and increased vascularity of the nasal mucosa.
Upon assessment, the patient is breathing normally and has normal vesicular lung sounds. Which expected inspiratory-to-expiratory breath sounds will the nurse hear?
a. The expiration phase is longer than the inspiration phase.
b. The inspiratory phase lasts exactly as long as the expiratory phase.
c. The expiration phase is 2 times longer than the inspiration phase.
d. The inspiratory phase is 3 times longer than the expiratory phase.
ANS: D
Vesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds; the inspiratory phase is 3 times longer than the expiratory phase. Bronchovesicular breath sounds have an inspiratory phase equal to the expiratory phase. Bronchial breath sounds have an expiration phase longer than the inspiration phase at a 3:2 ratio.
A teen female patient reports intermittent abdominal pain for 12 hours. No dysuria is present. Which action will the nurse take when performing an abdominal assessment?
a. Assess the area that is most tender first.
b. Ask the patient about the color of her stools.
c. Recommend that the patient take more laxatives.
d. Avoid sexual references such as possible pregnancy.
Abdominal pain can be related to bowels. If stools are black or tarry (melena), this may indicate gastrointestinal alteration. The nurse should caution patients about the dangers of excessive use of laxatives or enemas. There is not enough information about the abdominal pain to recommend laxatives. Determine if the patient is pregnant, and note her last menstrual period. Pregnancy causes changes in abdominal shape and contour. Assess painful areas last to minimize discomfort and anxiety.
During a genitourinary examination of a 30-year-old male patient, the nurse identifies a small amount of a white, thick substance on the patient’s uncircumcised glans penis. What is the nurse’s next step?
a. Record this as a normal finding.
b. Avoid embarrassing questions about sexual activity.
c. Notify the provider about a suspected sexually transmitted infection.
d. Tell the patient to avoid doing self-examinations until symptoms clear.
ANS: A
A small amount of thick, white smegma sometimes collects under the foreskin in the uncircumcised male and is considered normal. Penile pain or swelling, genital lesions, and urethral discharge are signs and symptoms that may indicate sexually transmitted infections (STI). All men 15 years and older need to perform a male-genital self-examination monthly. The nurse needs to assess a patient’s sexual history and use of safe sex habits. Sexual history reveals risks for STI and HIV.
The nurse is preparing for a rectal examination of a nonambulatory male patient. In which position will the nurse place the patient?
a. Sims’
b. Knee-chest
c. Dorsal recumbent
d. Forward bending with flexed hips
ANS: A
Nonambulatory patients are best examined in a side-lying Sims’ position. Forward bending would require the patient to be able to stand upright. Knees to chest would be difficult to maintain in a nonambulatory male and is embarrassing and uncomfortable. Dorsal recumbent does not provide adequate access for a rectal examination and is used for abdominal assessment because it promotes relaxation of abdominal muscles.
A teen patient is tearful and reports locating lumps in her breasts. Other history obtained is that she is currently menstruating. Physical examination reveals soft and movable cysts in both breasts that are painful to palpation. The nurse also notes that the patient’s nipples are erect, but the areola is wrinkled. Which action will the nurse take after talking with the health care provider?
a. Reassure patient that her symptoms are normal.
b. Discuss the possibility of fibrocystic disease as the probable cause.
c. Consult a breast surgeon because of the abnormal nipples and areola.
d. Tell the patient that the symptoms may get worse when her period ends.
ANS: B
A common benign condition of the breast is benign (fibrocystic) breast disease. This patient has symptoms of fibrocystic disease, which include bilateral lumpy, painful breasts sometimes accompanied by nipple discharge. Symptoms are more apparent during the menstrual period. When palpated, the cysts (lumps) are soft, well differentiated, and movable. Deep cysts feel hard. Although a common condition, benign breast disease is not normal; therefore, the nurse does not tell the patient that this is a normal finding. During examination of the nipples and areolae, the nipple sometimes becomes erect with wrinkling of the areola. Therefore, consulting a breast surgeon to treat her nipples and areolae is not appropriate.
