TBI flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

Patients with ___ and ___ have been associated with doubling mortality

A

hypotension and hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what medication used for intubation does not increase ICP?

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is hyperventilation used for in acute management of TBI

A

decrease ICP through hypocarbic vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when is surgical intervention appropriate for EDH?

A

EDH >30cm or GCS <9, clot thickness >15mm, midline shift >5mm or focal Neuro deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is surgical intervention appropriate for SDH?

A

SDH >10mm or those associated with midline shift >5mm, GCS <8 with rapid decline or ICP <20mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what positional changes can you do to help with intracranial hypertension

A

HOB >30 or reverse trendelenberg position to decrease ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when should ICP monitoring be used

A

patients with Severe TBI and abnormal CT scan to reduce 2-week and in-hospital mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what fluids are used to reduce ICP?

A

hypertonic saline 3% and mannitol 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what study indicated that corticosteroids should not be used in TBI?

A

CRASH trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the equation for CPP

A

MAP - ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the secondary brain Injuries?

A

impaired CBF regulation and alteration in brain metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the goals for ICP and CPP after Brain injury

A

ICP: <20

CPP between 50-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the primary brain injuries?

A

DAI and cerebral contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where does DAI typically occur

A

axons of brainstem, parasagittal white matter of cerebral cortex, corpus callous and gray-white matter junctions of cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do you classify DAI?

A

Adams classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most common cause of persistent coma after TBI?

A

DAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what aphasia is not fluent, cannot comprehend and can repeat?

A

mixed transcortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what aphasia is not fluent, can comprehend but cannot repeat

A

brocas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what aphasia is not fluent, can comprehend and can repeat

A

transcortical motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what aphasia is fluent, cannot comprehend and can repeat

A

transcortical sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what aphasia is fluent, can comprehend but cannot repeat

A

conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most common abnormal hormone after brain injury?

A

growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do you treat SIADH

A

fluid restriction and if moderate/severe= demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common cause of hypernatremia after brain injury?

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how do you treat diabetes insipidus
free water replacement and more severe DDAVP
26
what are the Rancho levels (1-8)
1: no response 2. generalized response 3. localized response 4. confused agitated 5. confused inappropriate 6. confused-appropriate 7. automatic-appopriate 8. purposeful-appropriate
27
what are the levels of the agitated behavior scale
14-21: normal 22-28: mild 29-35: moderate 35+ severe
28
what score on CRSR means minimally conscious state
12 or higher
29
most common site for TBI
anterior inferior frontal and temporal lobes
30
most common brain tumor in childrens
astrocytomas and medulloblastomas
31
most common brain tumor in adults
metastatic
32
most common primary brain tumor in adults
GBM
33
what is the clinical presentation of supratentorial tumors
seizures, increased ICP and focal neurological deficits
34
what is the clinical presentation of infratentorial brain tumors
increased ICP, cranial nerve deficits and ataxia
35
what cancer is the most common to metastasize to the brain
small cell lung cancer
36
what is the second most common primary CNS neoplasm
meningioma
37
what is the most common intratentorial tumor in adults
acoustic neuroma/schwannoma
38
when does focal cerebral radiation necrosis typically occur
15-18 mints after XRT
39
when does diffuse cerebral radiation injury occur
6-18 months after XRT
40
what scale attempts to quantify outcome in quality of life in individuals with brain tumors
Karnofsky scale
41
what variables are related to good quality of life in individuals with Brain tumors
freedom from depression, active social life, greater energy, fewer symptoms
42
what complication of radiation for brain tumors is indistinguishable from recurrence of tumor on imaging and requires pathology for confirmation
FCRN
43
what is the incidence of HO after TBI
11-35%
44
what is the incidence of HO after SCI
16-53%
45
what is the incidence of HO after burns
0.1-3.1%
46
what is the peak occurrence for HO
2 months
47
where is HO most common with SCI
hip
48
where is HO most common in burn victims
elbow
49
why is indomethacin used in HO
inhibits prostaglandin synthetase; inhibits inflammatory response and suppresses mesenchymal cell proliferation
50
what are the gradings for HO around the him
0- no heterotopic bone 1- occupies less than 50% of the distance between femur and pelvis 2-occupies >50% of, but not bridging, the distance between the femur and the pelvis 3- formation of bridging heterotopic bone
51
surgical timing for HO
traumatic HO can be resected at 6 months SCI HO at 1 year TBI HO at 1.5 years
52
what is the major cause of post-TBI NPH
SAH
53
what is the most important acute predictor of TBI outcome
ICP
54
what are the cutoffs for ICP for not good vs fatal
>40 is not good | >60 is fatal
55
what things make someone more prone to developing both NPH and seizures
SAH, depressed skull fracture, meningitis
56
what is the most common cause of TBI in the USA
falls
57
what is the most common cause of TBI world-wide
MVCs
58
what age demographics are most likely to develop TBi
15-19 yo, >75 yo (falls) and 0-4yo
59
where is CSF produced
at the choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles
60
what is the most common cause of communicating NPH
TBI
61
what are the CT findings for post-traumatic hydrocephalus
distended appearance of anterior horns of the lateral ventricles enlargement of the temporal horns of the 3rd ventricles normal or absent sulci enlargement of the basal cisterns or 4th ventricles periventricular lucency
62
lifetime incidence of TBI is ____ greater in alcoholics
4x
63
what percentage of TBIs occurred while the person was drunk
~50%
64
how much more likely are TBI survivors to have another TBI
3-8 times higher risk
65
how common is depression within the first year of a TBI
8 times more common
66
what are the CAGE screening questions
C- cut back A-annoyed G-guilty E-eye-opener
67
what are the most significant prognostic indicators after TBI
PTA duration and age
68
how do you know if someone is out of PTA
GOAT >75 for 2 consecutive days or | O-log 25+ for 2 straight days
69
what are the areas of scoring for CRSR
auditory (0-4), visual (0-5), motor (0-6), promoter (0-3), communication (0-2), arousal (0-3)
70
coma lasting longer than ____ is very unlikely to have good outcome
2 weeks
71
PTA less than ____ usually has good outcome
<2 weeks
72
define coma
deep sustained pathologic unresponsiveness in which eyes remain closed and the patient cannot be aroused
73
define vegetative state
condition in which awareness of self and environment is presumed to be absent and there is an inability to interact with others, although the capacity for spontaneous or stimulus-induced arousal (wakefulness) is preserved
74
when does vegetative state become persistent
after 1 month
75
mechanism of amantadine (most supported)
weak, non-competitive antagonist of the NMDA receptor, which increases dopamine release and prevents dopamine reuptake
76
what is the primary thing found in SIADH
low sodium
77
diagnostic labs for SIADH
low sodium, low serum. osmolarity, urine osmolarity> serum osmolarity, high urine sodium
78
what happens with rapid correction of low sodium
central pontine myelinosis
79
what is the primary symptom of DI
elevated sodium