TBL 30 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a bicornate uterus?

A

Duplication of the uterus result from lack of fusion of the paramesonephric ducts in a local area or throughout their normal line of fusion.

Bicornate uterus- in which two horns enter a common vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why can peritonitis cause salpingitis and why is the latter a major cause of female infertility?

A

Female genital tract communicates with the peritoneal cavity through the abdominal ostia of the uterine tube. Inflammation of the uterine tube (SALPINGITIS) may result from infection spread from the peritoneal cavity- peritonitis.

Salpingitis may obstruct the uterine tube leading to infertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is primary peritonitis rare in females?

A

Females have a protective mechanisms of a mucous plug which effectively blocks the external os (opening) of the uterus to most pathogens except sperms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What conditions contribute to the prolapse of a retroverted uterus?

A

Instead of pressing the uterus against the bladder, increased intra-abdominal pressure tends to push the retroverted uterus, a solid mass positioned upright over the vagina (a flexible, hollow tube), into or even through the vagina.

The situation is exacerbated in the presence of a disrupted perineal body or with atrophic (“relaxed”) pelvic floor ligaments and muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which pelvic structure must be identified to preclude its damage or obstruction during surgical ligation of the uterine artery?

A

Ureter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why can cervical cancer metastasize to the bladder or to the brain?

A

Because no peritoneum intervenes between the anterior
cervix and the base of the bladder, cervical cancer may
spread by contiguity to the bladder. It may also spread by
lympho genous (lymph borne) metastasis to external or internal iliac or sacral nodes. Hematogenous (blood borne) metastasis may occur via iliac veins or via the internal vertebral venous plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the frequency of tubal pregnancies and why can a ruptured right tubal pregnancy be incorrectly diagnosed as acute appendicitis?

A

Tubal pregnancy is the most common
type of ectopic gestation; it occurs in approximately 1 of every 250 pregnancies in North America.

On the right side, the appendix often lies close to the ovary and uterine tube. This close relationship explains why a ruptured tubal pregnancy and the resulting peritonitis may be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis. In both cases, the parietal peritoneum is infl amed in the same general area, and the pain is referred to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common tumor in the female pelvis and what is its primary symptom?

A

Leiomyomas, commonly known as fibroids, are benign tumors of the uterus that arise as localized hyperplasia of smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. They are the most common tumors in the female pelvis.

A common symptom is excessive and prolonged bleeding at menstruation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. From Clinical Point, pp. 418: What is the probable pathogenesis of endometriosis?
A

Endometriosis is a common gynecologic disease in which endometrial tissue appears at unusual locations in the lower abdomen and pelvis.

The disorder may result when endometrial cells peel off the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle and migrate via fallopian tubes to the peritoneal cavity. The condition often subsides after menopause, when estrogen
stimulation declines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is benign hypertrophy of the prostate associated with nocturia, dysuria, and urinary frequency?

How can tumor cells from a prostatic adenocarcinoma metastasize vascularly to the brain?

A

An enlarged prostate projects into the urinary bladder and impedes urination by distorting the prostatic urethra.

The middle lobule usually enlarges the most and obstructs the internal urethral orifi ce. The more the person strains, the more the valve-like prostatic mass occludes the urethra. BHP is a common cause of urethral obstruction, leading to nocturia (need to void during the night), dysuria (difficulty and/or pain during urination), and urgency (sudden desire to void).

In advanced stages, cancer cells metastasize both via lymphatic routes (initially to the internal iliac and sacral lymph nodes and later to distant nodes), and via venous routes (by way of the internal vertebral venous plexus, to the vertebrae and brain).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. From Clinical Point, pp. 396 (EH): What is the frequency of benign prostatic hypertrophy and how are its symptoms commonly treated?
A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common clinical condition affecting 30% of men older than 50 years. Its frequency and severity increase with aging.

The drugs used for treatment include a1-adrenergic receptor blockers, which inhibit contraction of prostatic smooth muscle and may help alleviate symptoms.

Sx: Resulting periurethral nodules may compress the urethra so that urine flow is reduced and the bladder difficult to empty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discuss the initial formation of the bilateral gonads.

A

the bilateral gonads initially form in the intermediate mesoderm as a pair of longitudinal genital ridges medial to the mesonephros.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Discuss the spatial transition of primordial germ cells.

The primordial germ cells are derived from what layer of the inner cell mass of the blastocyst.

A

epiblast-derived primordial germ cells pass through the primitive streak and temporarily reside among the endodermal cells of the yolk sac before migrating along the dorsal mesentery of the hindgut into the genital ridges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Discuss the formation of the primitive sex cords.

A

the germ cells stimulate invagination of the genital ridge epithelium, which forms primitive sex cords that characterize the indifferent gonads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discuss the formation of primary follicles. During what transition period does this occur?

A

during transformation of the indifferent gonads into the ovaries, the sex cords degenerate and follicular cells from the genital ridge epithelium organize as monolayers around the germ cell-derived oocytes to form primary follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Discuss the descent of the ovaries.

A

the ovaries descend from their upper lumbar origins into the pelvic cavity during the degeneration of the mesonephros.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discuss the creation of the mullerian duct “AKA”.

The mullerian duct parallels the (structure) in both sexes.

Discuss the communication of Para-mesonephric ducts with peritoneal cavity.

A

a longitudinal infolding of the gonadal ridge epithelium creates the paramesonephric (aka mullerian) duct.

it parallels the mesonephric duct in both sexes

proximally, the lumens of the bilateral para-mesonephric ducts are directly continuous with the peritoneal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discuss the formation of the uterine canal.

A

the dissension of the ovaries into the pelvis moves the paramesonephric ducts medially and caudally, and the midline fusion of their distal portions forms the uterine canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

uterine canal differentiates into (3).

A

the uterine canal differentiates into the fundus, body, and cervix of the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Discuss the formation of the uterine tubes.

A

the proximal and middle portions of the paramesonephric ducts form the uterine tubes that perforate the wall of the uterine body (i.e., continuity between the peritoneal cavity and uterine lumen is established).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Discuss the regression of the paramesonephric ducts in males. Which ducts degenerate in females?

A

the production of mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) in the testes causes complete regression of the paramesonephric ducts in males; and recall the mesonephric ducts degenerate in females.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Discuss the role of lacking MIS and testosterone in females.

A

the lack of MIS and testosterone in females allows the paramesonephric ducts to persist and results in the degeneration of the mesonephric ducts, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define broad ligament.

A

the broad ligament is a reflection of parietal peritoneum that drapes over the uterus and uterine tubes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define ovarian ligament and its function.

A

the ligament of the ovary (aka ovarian ligament) is a fold of the broad ligament that forms the surface epithelium of the ovaries and tethers them to the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

discuss formation of suspensory ligament of ovary and its function.

A

an elongation of the broad ligament forms the suspensory ligament of the ovary that provides passage to ovarian vessels and accompanying nerves from the lateral pelvic wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Origin of ovarian arteries and route therefore.

A

after arising from the abdominal aorta, the ovarian arteries descend retroperitoneally to enter the suspensory ligaments of the ovaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which nerve fibers accompany the ovarian arteries.

A

postsynaptic sympathetic fibers and visceral afferent fibers from the DRG at T12-L2 accompany the ovarian arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

discuss the positioning of the uterus and ovaries.

A

the uterus is centered in the pelvic cavity and the ovaries are positioned midway to the pelvic wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

discuss what forms the 1/3s of the uterus.

A

the rounded fundus and body form the superior two thirds of the uterus and the cylindrical cervix forms the inferior third, which is subperitoneal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

discuss the normal position of uterus onto an EMPTY bladder!

A

observe the uterus is normally anteverted onto the empty bladder for passive support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Discuss the function of the cardinal ligament.

A

the cardinal ligament suspends the uterine cervix (and vagina) from the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Discuss the origin of uterine and vaginal arteries.

Define the role of the cardinal ligament.

A

the uterine and vaginal arteries arise from the internal iliac artery

the cardinal ligament conveys the arteries to the viscera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Discuss the supply of ovarian arteries and discuss the anastomoses its involved in.

A

the ovarian arteries supply the ovaries and distal uterine tubes before anastomosing with branches of the uterine and vaginal arteries thus providing collateral circulation to the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina.

34
Q

Which nerve fibers accompany the uterine arteries to the uterine tubes, funds, and body of the uterus.

A

postsynaptic sympathetic fibers and visceral afferent fibers from the DRG at T12-L2 accompany the uterine arteries to the uterine tubes and the fundus and body of the uterus.

35
Q

Discuss the nerve fibers that accompany the uterine and vaginal arteries to the cervix and most of the vagina.

A

the pelvic splanchnic nerves and visceral afferent fibers from the DRG at S2-S4 accompany the uterine and vaginal arteries to the cervix and most of the vagina.

36
Q

Discuss the drainage of the uterine and ovarian veins.

A

the uterine veins drain into the internal iliac veins and recall the ovarian veins empty into the left renal vein and IVC.

37
Q

discuss the lymph drainage from the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterine body, and cervix.

A

lymph from the ovaries drains into the lumbar lymph nodes and lymph from the uterine tubes, uterine body, and cervix drains mainly into the internal iliac lymph nodes.

38
Q

Discuss the surface epithelium of the ovaries and its consequence.

A

germinal epithelium incorrectly labels the fold of the broad ligament forming the surface epithelium of the ovaries (i.e., the epithelium lacks a germinal function but accounts for 90% of ovarian cancers).

39
Q

Number of Primary Follicles at birth.

A

the ovaries contain 400,000 primary follicles at birth.

40
Q

Discuss the transition of primary follicles during each menstrual cycle to mature follicles.

A

multiple primary follicles develop into secondary follicles during each menstrual cycle; and ascertain several cycles are required for secondary follicles to differentiate into mature (aka Graafian) follicles.

41
Q

Discuss the subsequent events surrounding a Graafian follicle. What happen if pregnancy does not occur?

A

single Graafian follicle that ovulates becomes the corpus luteum and if pregnancy does not occur, it degenerates into a fibrous scar called the corpus albicans.

42
Q

Discuss what happens to mature follicles that fail to ovulate.

A

mature follicles that fail to ovulate become atretic (degenerating) follicles.

43
Q

Discuss the removal of scar tissue and its involvement with atretic follicles.

A

scar tissue that invades the atretic follicles is mostly removed by macrophages.

44
Q

discuss the overall progression of atretic primary follicles up until menopause.

A

atresia of primary follicles begins at birth and remains extensive in all follicular stages until menopause.

45
Q

Discuss what FSH-mediated follicular cell proliferation forms.

A

FSH-mediated follicular cell proliferation forms the layers of granulosa cells that surround the oocytes of 2° follicles.

46
Q

What secretes follicular fluid? Follicular fluid contains what factors?

A

the granulosa cells and stromal cell-derived theca cells secrete follicular fluid that contains estrogen and growth factors.

47
Q

What causes the transformation of 2⁰ follicles into Graafian follicles.

What cells surround the oocyte and what do they protrude into?

A

the accumulation of follicular fluid creates an antrum that transforms 2⁰ follicles into Graafian follicles.

clusters of granulosa cells surround the oocyte and protrude into the antrum.

48
Q

Define corona radiateradiata.

A

the granulosa cells closest to the oocyte are designated the corona radiateradiata

49
Q

Discuss the role of FSG for the release of estrogen into the bloodstream and what occurs during the midpoint of the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH also stimulates the granulosa cells and theca cells to release estrogen into the bloodstream and at the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, high levels of circulating estrogen stimulate the pituitary to release LH.

50
Q

What determines with Graadian follicles ovulate- which occurs at day ____.

A

the Graafian follicle receiving the highest dose of LH ovulates at day 14 of the 28-day cycle.

51
Q

How are luteal cells formed? What do luteal cells release and what do luteal cells constitute?

A

LH transforms the granulosa cells and theca cells of the ovulated follicle into luteal cells, which release progesterone into the bloodstream and constitute the corpus luteum.

52
Q

Discuss the feedback of high circulation levels of progesterone. Also mention a day #.

A

high circulating levels of progesterone inhibit the pituitary release of LH; thus without LH, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate into the corpus albicans at day 25.

53
Q

What unites the uterine lumen with the peritoneal cavity?

A

the open ends of the uterine tubes unite the uterine lumen with the peritoneal cavity.

54
Q

Discuss the position and function of fimbria.

A

fimbria (finger-like projections from the end of the uterine tube) closely surround the ovary during ovulation thus expediting tubular uptake of the oocyte and corona radiata.

55
Q

How long are the oviducts?

What characterizes their ampullarf portions?

A

the oviducts are 12-15 cm long

extensive folding of the mucosa characterizes their ampullary portions.

56
Q

Discuss the oviduct epithelium.

A

the epithelium contains cells with cilia that beat toward the uterus and secretory cells that secrete glycoproteins to sustain potential fertilized oocytes (aka zygotes).

57
Q

Discuss peristaltic movement of a zygote toward the uterus.

A

bundles of smooth muscle in the ampullary wall induce peristaltic movement of a zygote toward the uterus.

58
Q

Discuss what occurs at ovulation in relation to the fimbriae.

A

at ovulation, the oocyte and corona radiata pierce the peritoneal covering of the ovary

if the fimbriae of the uterine tube fail to enclose the ovary, the ovulated cells would likely enter the peritoneal cavity.

59
Q

Discuss the endometrium and myometrium.

A

endometrium represents the uterine mucosa and multiple layers of smooth muscle form the myometrium that occupies most of the uterine wall.

60
Q

Discuss the branches of the uterine artery.

A

observe branches of the uterine artery in the myometrium,

the branches terminally bifurcate into straight arteries to the basal layer of the endometrium and spiral arteries to its larger functional layer.a

61
Q

Discuss days 1-4 of menstrual cycle.

Day 5
Day 14

A

Days 1-4 of the cycle represent the menstrual phase when shedding of the endometrial functional layer occurs.

At day 5, the proliferative phase begins when ovarian estrogen-mediated proliferation of the basal layer restores the shed functional layer.

Restoration is complete at day 14.

62
Q

Discuss the function of corpus luteum-released progesterone.

A

corpus luteum-released progesterone stimulates the endometrial glands to release glycoproteins that distend and sacculate the glandular lumens.

progesterone also induces vasodilation of the spiral arteries and elevated microvascular blood flow creates mild edema in the lamina propria (i.e., the mucosa prepares for potential zygote implantation).

63
Q

Discuss the role of progesterone near the end of the secretory phase.

A

near the end of the secretory phase, high circulating levels of progesterone inhibit LH release from the pituitary and without implantation of a zygote, decreased levels of circulating progesterone induce vasoconstriction of the spiral arteries (i.e., the functional layer of the endometrium becomes ischemic and is shed as menses).

64
Q

Define cervix.

A

the cervix is the cylindrical end of the uterus that opens into the vagina.

65
Q

Discuss the transition of the endocervix during the menstrual cycle.

A

the mucosa of the proximal cervix (aka endocervix) resembles the endometrium at the end of the proliferative phase but ascertain the endocervix remains unaltered during the secretory and menstrual phases.

66
Q

What cell type lines the exocervix?

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium lines the distal portion of the cervix (aka exocervix) that opens into the vagina.

67
Q

What is the site of most cervical carcinomas?

A

the junction of the endocervix and exocervix marks the site of origin for most cervical carcinomas.

68
Q

Discuss the formation of the prostate gland.

A

an epithelial outgrowth from the urethra forms the prostate gland that subsequently encloses the prostatic portion of the urethra.

69
Q

Discuss the formation of the seminal gland.

Discuss the spatial relation and content course coming from the ejaculatory duct.

A

Near the developing prostate an epithelial outgrowth from the ductus (vas) deferens forms the seminal gland.

Distal to the duct of the seminal gland, the ejaculatory duct conveys contents of the ductus deferens and secretions of the seminal gland into the prostatic urethra.

70
Q

discuss the spatial course of the bilateral ductus deferens.

A

from the deep inguinal rings, the bilateral ductus deferens course immediately anterior to the ureters (i.e., between the ureters and posterior wall of the bladder).

71
Q

What tissue type surrounds the ejaculatory ducts enroute to the prostatic urethra?

A

prostatic parenchyma surrounds the ejaculatory ducts enroute to the prostatic urethra.

72
Q

Supply of vesicle arteries and discuss nerve fibers in relation.

A

the vesicle arteries supply the prostate and seminal glands

their periarterial plexuses convey parasympathetic and sympathetic motor fibers from the inferior hypogastric plexuses to the bladder, prostate, and seminal glands.

73
Q

Discuss drainage of prostatic venous plexus and lateral sacral veins.

A

the prostatic venous plexus drains mainly into the internal iliac veins and envision the lateral sacral veins enable some venous blood from the prostate to enter the internal vertebral venous plexus.

74
Q

Discuss spatial relation of seminal glands.

A

the seminal glands are sandwiched between the rectum and fundus of the bladder.

75
Q

Discuss lymph drainage from seminal glands and prostate.

A

lymph from the seminal glands and prostate drains mainly into the internal iliac lymph nodes.

76
Q

Discuss the constituents of the prostatic stroma.

Discuss the course of prostatic gland secretion and concerning the prostatic gland how does it contribute to ejaculation?

A

the prostatic stroma consists of collagen fibers and bundles of smooth muscle.

prostatic glands secrete into the prostatic urethra and sympathetic-mediated contraction of the stromal smooth muscle contributes to ejaculation.

77
Q

Discuss the segmentation of the prostate and a peculiar susceptibility to cancer.

A

the prostate is segmented into a muscular anterior zone, a glandular central zone around the urethra and ejaculatory ducts, and a large peripheral glandular zone, which is susceptible to inflammation and prostatic adenocarcinoma.

78
Q

With age (prostatic) what normally appear in the acing lumens?

A

with aging, prostatic concretions (mixtures of glandular secretions and degenerated secretory cells) normally appear in the acinar lumens.

79
Q

Discuss secretory acini- secretion contents and contribution therefore.

A

the secretory acini account for 20% of seminal fluid and the acinar secretions contain proteases and fibrolytic enzymes that contribute to liquefaction of the semen.

80
Q

Discuss the morphological layout of the seminal glands and discuss the tissue type surrounding said layout.

A

the seminal glands contain highly convoluted, tube-shaped lumens; thus, a histologic section displays a vacuolated interior resulting from the sectioning of the convoluted lumen.

a cross-section of the tube-shaped lumen surrounded by layers of smooth muscle.

81
Q

Discuss the role of the seminal gland mucosa- peculiar infrastructure and contribution to ejaculation.

A

elaborate folding of the mucosa creates the intercommunicating cavities with varying sizes

sympathetic-mediated contraction of the smooth muscle contributes to ejaculation.

82
Q

Discuss the secretory epithelium- energy source and seminal fluid.

A

the secretory epithelium accounts for 70% of seminal fluid and fructose, the main product of the epithelium, provides an energy source for motility of the spermatozoa