TC 3-22.9 Rifles and Carbines

Question 1

What Army publication covers marksmanship for the rifle and

carbine?

Answer 1

TC 3-22.9 (superceded FM 3-22.9)

Question 2

Each Soldier is responsible for placing accurate and effective fires
on threat targets with their individual weapons. Name the three “Employment
Skills” discussed in TC 3-22.9 and explain the difference.

Answer 2

(TC 3-22.9, Figure 1-1)
1. Accuracy - the ability to hit a desired target or point of aim
2. Precision - the ability to place a shot group at the desired point of
impact
3. Consistency - the ability to routinely achieve accurate and precise
shots

Question 3

The safe handling of weapons is built on what three components?

Answer 3

(TC 3-22.9, para 1-2)
1. The Soldier - the Soldier is the primary safety mechanism
for all weapons under his/her control
2. The weapon - the Soldier must know the principles of operation,
including all mechanical safeties
3. The environment - the Soldier must be aware of muzzle
discipline, the nature of the target, and what is behind it

Question 4

In order to safely and effectively handle weapons, Soldiers
must be cognitively aware of what three distinct weapons handling
measures?

Answer 4

(TC 3-22.9, para 1-3)

1. The rules of firearms safety
2. Weapons safety status (WSS)
3. Weapons control status (WCS)

Question 5

The “rules of firearms safety” apply to any weapon a Soldier may employ.
What are the four Rules of Firearms Safety?

Answer 5

TC 3-22.9, para 1-6 thru 1-14)

1. RULE #1: Treat every weapon as if it is loaded.
2. RULE #2: Never point the weapon at anything you do not intend to destroy.
3. RULE #3: Keep finger straight and off the trigger until ready to fire.
4. RULE #4: Ensure positive identification of the target and its surroundings.

Question 6

What is the most important safety feature on ANY weapon?

Answer 6

The Soldier (operator). (TC 3-22.9, para 1-11)

Question 7

If a weapon does not have a traditional mechanical SAFE, what becomes the primary safety?

Answer 7

The trigger finger (TC 3-22.9, para 1-12)

Question 8

Is a Soldier responsible for what lies BEYOND a target?

Answer 8

Yes, the Soldier is responsible for all bullets fired from their weapon, including the projectile’s final destination. (TC
3-22.9, para 1-13)

Question 9

What is meant by “Weapon Safety Status” (WSS) and how is it coded?

Answer 9

The readiness of a Soldier’s weapon; common colors are used to represent the level of readiness for a given
weapon. (TC 3-22.9, para 1-15)

Question 10

Explain the three different colors of WSS and what they mean.

Answer 10

(TC 3-22.9, para 1-18 thru 1-20)
1. GREEN - magazine is removed, chamber is empty, bolt is locked open or forward, selector on SAFE
2. AMBER - magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, ejection port cover closed, selector on SAFE
3. RED - magazine inserted, round in chamber, bolt forward and locked, ejection port cover closed, selector on
SAFE

Question 11

What is the command given to direct a GREEN safety status? AMBER? RED?

Answer 11

“GREEN AND CLEAR” or “GO GREEN”; “GO AMBER” or “LOAD MAGAZINE”; “GO RED” or “MAKE READY” (TC
3-22.9, para 1-18 thru 1-20; Figure 1-1)

Question 12

Weapons Control Status (WCS) defines when a firer is authorized to engage a threat target. Describe the three
levels of WCS.

Answer 12

(TC 3-22.9, Table 1-2)

1. WEAPONS HOLD - Engage only if engaged or ordered to engage.
2. WEAPONS TIGHT - Engage only if target is positively identified as enemy.
3. WEAPONS FREE - Engage targets not positively identified as friendly

Question 13

The Army strives to provide Soldiers with the skills and the tools necessary to create an “overmatch” situation on
the battlefield. What is meant by the term “overmatch?”

Answer 13

“Overmatch” is an “unfair advantage” in favor of the Soldier and is based on the Soldier’s training, the fielding of
equipment that leverages technology, and the application of proper force. (TC 3-22.9, para 1-25)

Question 14

Describe the M16-/M4-series weapons.

Answer 14

They are lightweight, 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, shoulder-fired rifles or carbines capable of
firing in a variety of modes, depending on the model. (TC 3-22.9, para 2-1)

Question 15

The M16- and M4-series weapons consist of what two major components?

Answer 15

The upper receiver and the lower receiver. (TC 3-22.9, para 2-3)

Question 16

What part of the upper receiver is designed to reduce the signature of the weapon during firing and to reduce barrel
movement off-target during firing?

Answer 16

The “flash hider” or “compensator.” (TC 3-22.9, para 2-4)

Question 17

An ARS is mounted to the upper receiver. What is an ARS?

Answer 17

Adapter Rail System - it is used to allow the attachment of weapons, aiming devices, and accessories. (TC 3-22.9,
para 2-4; 4-1)

Question 18

What are some of the primary differences between the M16-series and M4-series weapons?

Answer 18

(TC 3-22.9, Table 2-1)
• The M16A2 fires in the SEMI and 3-round BURST modes and has a 20” barrel.
• The M16A3 is just like the M16A2 but fires in the SEMI and AUTO modes.
• The M16A4 is just like the M16A2 except that it has an M5 Adapter Rail System (ARS) and a detachable carrying
handle.
• The M4 is similar to the M16 in design but has a shorter barrel (14.5”) and shorter handguards, a detachable
carrying handle, and a collapsible (four-position) buttstock. Like the M16A2, it can be fired in the SEMI and
BURST modes.
• The M4A1 is just like the M4 but is fully automatic.

Question 19

What is meant by the term “cycle of functioning” of a weapon?

Answer 19

It is the mechanical process a weapon follows during operation. (TC 3-22.9, para 2-8)

Question 20

What are the eight sequential phases of the cycle of functioning of the M16- and M4-series weapons?

Answer 20

(TC 3-22.9, para 2-9)

1. Feeding
2. Chambering
3. Locking
4. Firing
5. Unlocking
6. Extracting
7. Ejecting
8. Cocking

Question 21

In order for the weapon to operate correctly, semiautomatic and automatic weapons require a system of operation
to complete the cycle of functioning. What system of operation is used by the M16- and M4-series weapons and how
does it work?

Answer 21

A direct impingement gas operating system; this system uses a portion of the high pressure gas from the cartridge
being fired to physically move the assemblies and subassemblies in order to complete the cycle of function. (TC
3-22.9, para 2-10)

Question 22

What is the purpose of an “aiming device?”

Answer 22

To align the Soldier, the weapon, and the target to make an accurate and precise shot. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-1)

Question 23

What are “iron” aiming devices (commonly referred to as “iron sights”)?

Answer 23

This term refers to the various types of mechanical sighting systems and typically consist of a front sight post and a
rear aperture. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-2)

Question 24

In addition to iron sights, name some other aiming devices in common use today.

Answer 24

Optics (Close Combat Optic (CCO) and Rifle Combat Optic (RCO)), Thermal Weapon Sights (TWS), and laser pointers/
illuminators. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-2)

Question 25

What are the two units of angular measurement used in the Army?

Answer 25

Mils and Minutes of Angle (MOA) (TC 3-22.9, para 3-3)

Question 26

What is a MOA and what is it most commonly used for?

Answer 26

Minute of Angle = an angular unit of measurement equal to 1/60th of a degree. It is most commonly used to describe the distance of change required when zeroing a weapon. One degree has 60 MOA. There are 360 degrees in a circle, so there are 60x360 or 21,600 MOAs in a circle. One MOA equals 1.047 inches per 100 yards. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-4 and 3-5; Figure 3-1)

Question 27

What is a “mil” and what is it most commonly used for?

Answer 27

It is a common unit of angular measurement used in direct fire and indirect fire applications. One degree has 17.78 mils. There are 360 degrees in a circle, so there are 17.78x360 or 6400 mils in a circle. (TC 3-22.9, Figure 3-2)

Question 28

What is a “reticle?”

Answer 28

A series of fine lines in the eyepiece of an optic (such as a CCO, RCO, or TWS) used as a measuring scale with included aiming or alignments points. Reticles use either mils or MOAs for their unit of measurement. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-8)

Question 29

What is a “stadiametric reticle?”

Answer 29

Also known as “stadia reticles” or “choke sights” and commonly used in thermal weapon sights, this form of reticle provides a means of rapidly determining the approximate range to a target based on its standard dimensions. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-9)

Question 30

The iron sight rear aperture on the M16- and M4-series weapons is embedded in the carrying handle (which may or may not be removable depending on the model) and has what two selectable apertures? What are they used for?

Answer 30

(TC 3-22.9, para 3-20) • Small aperture: used for zeroing procedures and for mid- and extended-range engagements. • Large aperture: used during limited visibility, close quarters, and for moving targets at close- or mid-range.

Question 31

What is a BUIS and where is it installed?

Answer 31

Back Up Iron Sight. It is a semi-permanent flip-up rear aperture that can be installed on the ARS when the handle is removed. It is installed on the first notch of the integrated rail, nearest to the charging handle. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-22/23)

Question 32

Describe the M68 CCO.

Answer 32

The M68 Close Combat Optic is a non-telescopic (unmagnified) reflex sight that provides a red dot aiming point and allows for one or both eyes to remain open. No centering or focusing on the front sight post is required. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-24/25)

Question 33

The M68 CCO is zeroed to a specific weapon. What should you remember to do if you must remove the M68 for any reason?

Answer 33

Record the serial number and the rail slot number it was installed in when zeroed. You should re-zero if you install a different M68 on your weapon or if you install the same one but in a different rail slot. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-26)

Question 34

The M68 CCO has a lot of advantages over the standard iron sights, but what is the main disadvantage?

Answer 34

It lacks a Bullet Drop Compensator (BDC) or other means to determine accurate range to targets beyond 200m. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-29)

Question 35

Describe the RCO.

Answer 35

The M150 Rifle Combat Optic is a lightweight, rugged, fast and accurate 4x power optic scope specifically designed to allow the Soldier to keep both eyes open while engaging targets, which is important to maintaining maximum situational awareness. It has a reticle that allows for quick target acquisition from close combat ranges, and bullet drop compensation for targets out to 800-m. It also incorporates dual-illuminated technology, using fiber optics for daytime employment and tritium for low-light usage. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-33/34)

Question 36

What are the main disadvantages of the RCO?

Answer 36

The ocular view is limited for close-quarter engagements and the reticle does not include stadia lines so windage must be applied by the shooter. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-37/38)

Question 37

What is the main difference between a Thermal Weapon Sight (TWS) and optic sights?

Answer 37

Thermal sights do not actually “see” anything in the field of view. They create a digital representation of the scene by translating differences in temperature into a gray- or color-scaled image. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-41)

Question 38

What is the advantage of thermal weapon sights over optical sights?

Answer 38

Since thermal weapon sights do not actually “see” the environment, they are capable of target acquisition under conditions of limited visibility such as darkness, smoke, fog, and haze, and operate equally well during both day and night operations. (TC 3-22.9, para 3-41)

Question 39

What are some of the distinct disadvantages of using thermal weapon sights?

Answer 39

Since they do not actually “see” the scene in the field of view, but rely totally on changes in temperature, they do not allow the viewing of all aiming and marking devices (such as friendly marking systems worn by dismounts), cannot effectively interpret thermal signatures behind glass or water, and rely on a power source (batteries).

Question 40

What is a TPIAL?

Answer 40

Target Pointer/Illuminator Aiming Light (AN/PEQ-2). (TC 3-22.9, para 3-51)

Question 41

What is an ATPIAL?

Answer 41

Advanced Target Pointer/Illuminator Aiming Light (AN/PEQ-15). (TC 3-22.9, para 3-56)

Question 42

What is the main difference between the TPIAL and the ATPIAL?

Answer 42

The ATPIAL not only has infrared (IR) functionality (like the TPIAL) but also emits a visible light, providing a red-dot aiming laser for precise aiming during daylight or night operations without the need for Night Observation Devices (NODs).

Question 43

Regardless of the weapon system, the goal of shooting remains constant - well-aimed shots. What three fundamentals of marksmanship must be mastered in order for this to happen?

Answer 43

TC 3-22.9, para 5-2/3) 1. Sight alignment - the relationship between the aiming device and the firer’s eye 2. Sight picture - the placement of the aligned sights on the target 3. Trigger control - the skillful manipulation of the trigger that causes the rifle to fire without disturbing the aim

Question 44

What is meant by the “shot process”?

Answer 44

The shot process is a basic outline of an individual engagement sequence all firers should consider during a target engagement, regardless of the weapon employed. (TC 3-22.9, para 5-4)

Question 45

What are the three distinct phases of the shot process and give some examples of actions that are taken during each phase?

Answer 45

``` (TC 3-22.9, para 5-5; Table 5-1) 1. Pre-shot • Position • Natural point of aim • Sight alignment/picture • Hold 2. Shot • Refine aim • Breathing control • Trigger control 3. Post-shot • Follow-through • Recoil management • Call the shot • Evaluate ```

Question 46

An accurate shot, regardless of weapon system, requires the Soldier to establish, maintain, and sustain what four interdependent functional elements of the shot process?

Answer 46

(TC 3-22.9, para 5-11) 1. Stability - actions taken to stabilize the weapon 2. Aim - continuous process of orienting the weapon correctly 3. Control - all conscious actions taken before, during, and after a shot, the first of which is trigger control 4. Movement - ability to move laterally, forward, diagonally, and in retrograde manner while maintaining stability, aim, and control

Question 47

Target acquisition is the ability of a Soldier to rapidly recognize threats to the friendly unit or formation. What are the three elements of the target acquisition process?

Answer 47

Detect, identify, and prioritize (TC 3-22.9, para 5-17/18)

Question 48

What is meant by the term “stock weld”?

Answer 48

This is the placement of the firer’s head on the stock of the weapon. A good consistent stock weld is critical to sight alignment.

Question 49

When it comes to target prioritization, targets should be prioritized into one of what three threat levels?

Answer 49

Most dangerous, Dangerous, and Least Dangerous (TC 3-22.9, para 5-31)

Question 50

When it comes to target identification, Soldiers should be able to positively identify the threat into one of what three classifications?

Answer 50

Friend, foe/combatant, or noncombatant (neutral). (TC 3-22.9, para 5-27)

Question 51

What three rules should be followed when multiple targets of the same threat level are encountered?

Answer 51

(TC 3-22.9, para 5-32) 1. Near before far 2. Frontal before flank 3. Stationary before moving

Question 52

What is meant by “natural point of aim?”

Answer 52

It is the point where the barrel naturally orients when the shooter’s muscles are relaxed and support is achieved. (TC 3-22.9, para 6-5)

Question 53

Describe how to check the natural point of aim.

Answer 53

(TC 3-22.9, para 6-7) • Assume a good steady position and get to the natural pause (point of full exhalation). • Close your eyes and go through one complete cycle, opening your eyes on the next natural pause. • The sights of the weapon should be pointing at the natural point of aim. • Make small adjustments so that the natural point of aim moves closer to the target • Repeat as necessary until the natural point of aim is consistently aligned with the point of aim on the target

Question 54

What is a “wobble area”?

Answer 54

This is a condition where the weapon sights oscillate slightly around and through the point of aim due to a lack of stability. This is also sometimes referred to as the “arc of movement.” If the wobble area is larger than the target, the Soldier requires a steadier position or a refinement to their position in order to decrease the size of the wobble area before trigger squeeze. The steadier the position, the smaller the wobble area. The smaller the wobble area, the more precise the shot. (TC 3-22.9, para 6-6)

Question 55

What are the six primary weapon carry positions?

Answer 55

Hang, safe hang, collapsed low ready, low ready, high ready, and ready (or ready up). (TC 3-22.9, para 6-12)

Question 56

What is meant by a “stabilization failure?”

Answer 56

When a shooter assumes a firing position, movement from muscle tension, breathing, and other natural activities within the body will be transferred to the weapon and must be compensated for by the shooter. A “stabilization failure” occurs when a Soldier fails to control the movement of the barrel during the arc of movement, fails to adequately support the weapon system, or fails to achieve their natural point of aim. (TC 3-22.9, para 6-30/31)

Question 57

The nature of combat will not always allow time for a Soldier to get into a particular position. Therefore, Soldiers need to practice firing in a variety of positions, including variations. There are five main firing positions, with 12 total variations. Name them.

Answer 57

``` (TC 3-22.9, para 6-34) 1. Standing • Supported • Unsupported 2. Squatting 3. Kneeling • Supported • Unsupported 4. Sitting • Crossed ankle • Crossed leg • Open leg 5. Prone • Supported • Unsupported • Roll-over • Reverse roll-over ```

Question 58

What are the five Soldier actions that make up the aiming process?

Answer 58

Weapon orientation, sight alignment, sight picture, point of aim, and desired point of impact. (TC 3-22.9, para 7-1)

Question 59

What is the difference between “point of aim” and “desired point of impact”?

Answer 59

“Point of aim” is the continuation of a straight line created by sight alignment. The “desired point of impact” is where you want the projectile to strike the target. Typically, the desired point of impact is the center of visible mass of the target. In order to achieve that, the point of aim may have to be offset from the desired point of impact (for instance, with a moving target). (TC 3-22.9, para 7-9 thru 7-11)

Question 60

What is meant by “cross dominance”?

Answer 60

When the dominant eye is opposite the dominant hand (for instance, a Soldier who writes with his right hand but is left-eye dominant). (TC 3-22.9, para 7-13)

Question 61

What is meant by “cross dominance”?

Answer 61

When the dominant eye is opposite the dominant hand (for instance, a Soldier who writes with his right hand but is left-eye dominant). (TC 3-22.9, para 7-13)

Question 62

What is meant by a “complex engagement”?

Answer 62

Any shot that cannot use the Center of Visible Mass (CoVM) as the point of aim to successfully defeat the target. (TC 3-22.9, para 7-14)

Question 63

What is meant by the “hold” in a complex engagement?

Answer 63

During the shot process the Soldier serves as the “ballistic computer” to correctly offset the aiming point in order to achieve the desired point of impact. The Soldier must account for conditions such as range to target, target movement and speed, the Soldier’s own movement (counter-rotation), wind speed and direction, and the greatest lethal zone presented by the target. (TC 3-22.9, para 7-16)

Question 64

Hold determinations are typically discussed using what two formats? When are they used?

Answer 64

Immediate and deliberate. Deliberate hold determinations are required for precise shots beyond 300 meters for wind, extended range, moving, oblique, and evasive targets. (TC 3-22.9, para 7-17, 22)

Question 65

What does BZO stand for?

Answer 65

Battlesight Zero

Question 66

Wind will always push a projectile in the direction the wind is blowing. The effect of wind is dependent on what three variables?

Answer 66

The time of exposure, the direction of the wind, and the speed of the wind. (TC 3-22.9, para 7-46)

Question 67

What are the two general types of corrective action for a malfunction?

Answer 67

Immediate and remedial (TC 3-22.9, para 8-29)

Question 68

Immediate action can correct rudimentary failures during the cycle of function. Name some of these failures.

Answer 68

Failure to fire, failure to feed, failure to chamber, failure to extract, and failure to eject. (TC 3-22.9, para 8-31)

Question 69

List some of the most common examples of malfunctions or symptoms that require remedial action.

Answer 69

Stove pipe, double-feed, bolt override, charging handle impingement, or if immediate action fails to correct the problem. (TC 3-22.9, para 8-32)

Question 70

How many times should immediate action be applied before resorting to remedial action?

Answer 70

Two times, the first time without a magazine change and the second time with a magazine change. (TC 3-22.9, para 8-32)

Question 71

Explain the steps to be performed for immediate action.

Answer 71

(TC 3-22.9, para 8-35) 1. Tap the bottom of the magazine firmly 2. Rapidly pull the charging handle and release to extract/eject the previous cartridge and feed, chamber, and lock a new round 3. Reassess by continuing the shot process

Question 72

What word is commonly used to remember the procedure for applying immediate action?

Answer 72

``` “SPORTS” (S)lap upward on the magazine (P)ull the charging handle to the rear (O)bserve the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge (R)elease the charging handle (T)ap the forward assist (S)queeze the trigger ```

Question 73

What is a “cookoff”?

Answer 73

A “cookoff” can occur when a round is locked in a chamber that has been superheated by the rapid and continuous firing of several magazines in sequence without cooling. (TC 3-22.9, para 8-39)

Question 74

Ammunition for use in rifles and carbines is described as a cartridge. What are the four parts to a small arms cartridge?

Answer 74

Cartridge case, primer, propellant, and bullet. (TC 3-22.9, para A-1)

Question 75

All 5.56-mm ammunition uses the rimless cartridge case. What does that mean?

Answer 75

The diameter of the rim is the same diameter as the case body. This design allows for the stacking of multiple cartridges in a magazine. (TC 3-22.9, para A-5)

Question 76

What are the seven most common types of Small Arms Ammunition (SAA) used with the M16- and M4-series weapons? How do you tell the difference between them?

Answer 76

(TC 3-22.9, para A-15 thru A-22; Table A-1) • Ball - green tip (M855) or bronze tip (M855A1) • Tracer - orange tip (M856A1) or violet tip (Mk301, MOD 0) • Armor-Piercing (AP) - black tip (M995) • Short Range Training Ammunition (SRTA) - blue tip (M862 or M1037) • Blank - rosette-crimped tip (M200) • Close Combat Mission Capability Kit (CCMCK) - blue, red, or yellow plastic tip (M1042) • Dummy - longitudinal corrugations in the cartridge

Question 77

The flight path of a bullet can be defined in what three separate categories of ballistics?

Answer 77

(TC 3-22.9, para B-1) 1. Internal - the travel down the barrel 2. External - the path through the air to the target (affected by gravity, drag, and wind) 3. Terminal - the actions the bullet takes upon impact with the target

Question 78

Barrels are “rifled” to spin-stablize the projectile, improving its aerodynamic stability and accuracy. What is the twist-rate and direction of the rifling on M16- and M4-series weapons?

Answer 78

It is right-handed, with one revolution in every seven inches of barrel length (or R 1:7 inches). (TC 3-22.9, para B-5)

Question 79

When considering the effects of a round on a human target, what is meant by “switches” and “timers”?

Answer 79

(TC 3-22.9, para B-29/30) • “Switches,” or “circuitry shots,” are strikes to a target that deliver its immediate incapacitation. This is accomplished by destroying the central nervous system by hitting the brain or spinal column. These are called “switches” because hitting one is just like throwing an ON/OFF switch. • “Timers,” or “hydraulic shots,” are impacts on a target where immediate incapacitation is not guaranteed. These are called “timers” because the damage may require time for the threat to have sufficient blood loss to render it incapacitated.

Question 80

What is the purpose of “zeroing” a weapon?

Answer 80

The purpose of “zeroing” is to achieve the desired relationship between the line of sight and the trajectory of the round at a known distance. It ensures that the Soldier, weapon, aiming device, and ammunition are performing as expected at a specific range to target with the least amount of induced errors. (TC 3-22.9, APP E, Intro)

Question 81

What is meant by the term “battlesight zero”?

Answer 81

It is the default sight setting for a weapon, ammunition, and aiming device combination, allowing the firer to accurately engage targets out to a set distance without an adjusted aiming point. (TC 3-22.9, para E-1/2)

Question 82

Describe the “zeroing process.”

Answer 82

Mechanical zero of the weapon + laser borelighting + 25-m grouping and zeroing + zero confirmation out to 300 meters = a properly zeroed weapon (TC 3-22.9, para E-4)

Question 83

Does the wearing of combat gear cause the zero of a weapon to change?

Answer 83

No, this is a common misconception. The straight line between the center of the rear sight aperture and the tip of the front sight post either intersects with the trajectory at the desired point, or it does not. Adding gear to the Soldier’s body does not change this, although a Soldier’s performance can be affected in different ways by different firing positions. (TC 3-22.9, para E-15, Note)

Question 84

Will a confirmed ZERO on one rifle transfer to another rifle?

Answer 84

No, due to slight manufacturing differences between weapons. (TC 3-22.9, para E-17)

Question 85

DA PAM 350-38 allocates ammunition to conduct zeroing procedures using three-shot groups. However, TC 3-22.9 says the preferred method to conduct zeroing procedures is to use ______-shot groups.

Answer 85

Five - in order to more accurately analyze a shot grouping. (TC 3-22.9, para E-19)

Question 86

What is meant by MPI?

Answer 86

Mean Point of Impact. When analyzing shot groups, all sight adjustments should be made from the center of the group, or MPI. (TC 3-22.9, para E-22)

Question 87

Compare the WEIGHTS of the M16- and M4-series weapons (know for your individual assigned weapon).

Answer 87

20-round magazine 7.75 30-round magazine 8.63

Question 88

Compare the LENGTHS of the M16- and M4-series weapons (know for your individual assigned weapon).

Answer 88

Buttstock closed 29.75 Buttstock open 33.00

Question 89

Define maximum range, maximum effective range, and maximum effective rate of fire.

Answer 89

(Glossary) • Maximum range – the longest distance a projectile will travel when fired from a weapon held at the optimum angle. • Maximum effective range – the greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit. • Maximum effective rate of fire – the highest rates of fire that can be maintained and still achieve target hits.

Question 90

What is meant by “sustained” rate of fire?

Answer 90

The rate of fire that a weapon can continue to deliver for an indefinite period without overheating. (Glossary)

Question 91

Compare the MAX EFFECTIVE RATES OF FIRE of the M16- and M4-series weapons

Answer 91

Semiautomatic 45 3-round Burst 90 Automatic 150-200 (A1) Sustained 12-15

Question 92

Compare the RANGES of the M16- and M4-series weapons

Answer 92

Maximum range 3,600 Maximum effective range: Point target 500; Area target 600

Question 93

Compare the OPERATIONAL CHARACTERISTICS of the M16- and M4-series weapons

Answer 93

Barrel rifling – right hand 1/7 Muzzle velocity (fps) 2,970 Cyclic rate of fire (rounds/min) 700-900

Question 94

What does “CLP” stand for and how does it work?

Answer 94

A. Cleaner, Lubricant, and Preservative; (TM 9-1005-319-10) • It contains solvents to dissolve firing residue and carbon, • It lays down a layer of Teflon as it dries to provide lubrication, • It prevents rust from forming.

Question 95

Explain the proper procedure for performing a function check on M16-/M4-series weapons.

Answer 95

This is also called a “functional” check: (TM 9-1005-319-10, pg. 0008 00-1) 1. SAFE: Place selector lever on SAFE. Pull and release charging handle. Pull trigger. Hammer should not fall. 2. SEMI: Place selector lever on SEMI. Pull trigger. Hammer should fall. Hold trigger to the rear and charge the weapon. Release the trigger with a slow, smooth motion, until the trigger is fully forward (an audible click should be heard). Pull trigger. Hammer should fall. 3. BURST: (M16A2, M16A4, M4 only) Place selector lever on BURST. Charge weapon and squeeze trigger. Hammer should fall. Hold trigger to the rear. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release 3 times. Release trigger. Squeeze trigger. Hammer should fall. 4. AUTO: (M16A3, M4A1 only) Pull the charging handle to the rear, charging the weapon. Squeeze the trigger. Hammer should fall. Hold the trigger to the rear, and cock the weapon again. Fully release the trigger, then squeeze the trigger again. The hammer should not fall because it should have fallen when the bolt was allowed to move forward during the chambering and locking sequences.

Question 96

The first consideration when handling any weapon is to do what?

Answer 96

CLEAR IT! (TM 9-1005-319-10, pg. b)