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Tech Flashcards

(94 cards)

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1
Q

Limiting factor on an arc?

A

1nm either side, pilot tolerance

MSA protection 2.5nm either side of arc
1000ft terrain clearance or 2000ft in mountainous terrain

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2
Q

Climbing at a constant Mach what happened to IAS?

A

It reduces

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3
Q

Climbing at a constant TAS what happens to IAS and Mach?

A

IAS reduces

Mach increases

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4
Q

What’s coffin corner?

A

As altitude increases our slow speed stall increases and our high speed stall decreases (critical Mach number). Eventually we reach coffin corner where any change in IAS will cause the aircraft to either exceed the critical Mach or stall.

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5
Q

What happens to airspeed and climb when you experience positive wind-shear?

A

Airspeed increases

ROC increases

(Positive = the better type of windshear)

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6
Q

radio call to ATC when on min fuel

A

“Minimum fuel”

Not an emergency yet eg. not using any of our 30min reserves

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7
Q

Radio call to ATC when you are going to land with less than 30 minutes fuel reserves?

A

“Mayday Fuel”

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8
Q

BC on a TAF?

A

Patches

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9
Q

What is MSA?

A

Minimum safe altitude

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10
Q

C of G effect on aircraft stability

A

Forward C of G = more stable

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11
Q

C of G effect on aircraft stability

A

Forward C of G = more stable

Rear C of G = less stable

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12
Q

What’s a twin jets critical engine?

A

In crosswind, the upwind engine

The aircraft yaws into wind and if the upwind engine fails it yaws in the same direction meaning we need to correct for both

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13
Q

TCAS RA radio call?

A

“TCAS RA”

“Clear of conflict”

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14
Q

Cat B circling radius

A

2.66nm

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15
Q

Cat C circling radius

A

4.2nm

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16
Q

Wake separation full length departure/same departure point

A

Behind a380 3minutes
Behind heavy 2minutes

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17
Q

Distance based wake separation

A

A380 = 7nm
Heavy = 5nm

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18
Q

Wake separation from intermediate take-off position

A

A380 = 4min
Heavy = 3min

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19
Q

Can ATC in Australia accept pilots request for own wake separation, following Heavy or Super-Heavy traffic?

A

No

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20
Q

Difference between a pan and a mayday.

A

Pan = urgency (not immediate threat)

Mayday = emergency (imminent threat or danger)

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21
Q

When is a wx Alternate required?

A

Wx at destination +-1hr either side of eta; 1000ft ceiling
5km viz or 2km above minima

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22
Q

Wx Alternate requirements

A

Precision app - 600ft or 200ft above minima and 3000m or 1000m above
Non precision app - 800ft or 200ft above and 4000m or 1500m above

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23
Q

When is a departure alternate required?

A

When wx at is above departure minimums but below app minimums

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24
Q

Departure alternate requirements?

A

Alternate must be within 60mins single flight time

Wx must be at or better than alternate minima at eta

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25
reduced takeoff minima?
Normally 1500m, 300ft Reduced takeoff minimums = 800m-350m, 0ft
26
whats mi on a TAF?
Shallow
27
// on a TAF?
Wx not detected due sensor temporarily inop
28
/////// on taf?
Cloud not reported Faulty sensor
29
////
Viz not reported due faulty sensor
30
/// on taf?
Cloud detected (unable to determine cb/tcu)
31
GS on TAF?
God stones = small hail (5mm or smaller)
32
GR on TAF?
God Rocks = Large hail (over 5mm)
33
BL on TAF?
Blowing
34
BR on TAF?
Mist
35
DR on TAF
Low drifting
36
DS?
Dust storm
37
DU?
Dust
38
DZ?
Drizzle
39
FC?
Funnel cloud
40
fg?
Fog viz less than 1km
41
FU?
Smoke
42
fz?
Freezing
43
G?
Gusting
44
HZ
Haze
45
Lan?
Inland
46
MI?
Shallow
47
PL?
Ice pellets
48
PO?
Dust/sandwhirls
49
PR
Partial
50
RE?
Recent
51
SA?
Sand
52
SG?
Snow grains
53
SN?
Snow
54
SQ?
Squall
55
SS?
Sandstorm
56
TC?
Tropical cyclone
57
TL?
Till
58
Up?
Unidentified precipitation
59
VV?
Vertical viz
60
WI?
Within
61
Outbound hold timing above 14,000ft?
1.5 minutes
62
Windshear out of auckland, presents itself as tailwind, what happens to your IAS and ROC? positive or negative shear?
Negative shear Reduced IAS and ROC
63
standard hold direction?
Right hand
64
RVSM seperation for opposite direction traffic?
1000ft
65
At what altitude is RVSM used?
Between FL290 and FL410
66
why are wings swept back?
Reduce drag and improve stability at high speeds Delays the formation of shockwaves
67
Cat C holding procedure at 15000 ft?
Below 240kts or 280(m0.8) if turbulent Right hand unless stated otherwise 1.5 minutes outbound timing 25 degrees AOB or rate one
68
circling minima
5km viz 1000ft ceiling
69
Qantas 737-800 seat config
174 total 12 business 162 economy
70
MTOW 737
79,015kg
71
Max range 737
4200km
72
737 cruise speed
Up to 485kts (M0.78)
73
737 service ceiling
41000ft Typically cruises at 37000-35000ft Takes 13minutes to climb to 39000ft
74
Mach tuck?
As an aircraft become supersonic it has a nose down pitching moment. Due to rearward shift in C of P as shockwaves form
75
what is the ITCZ?
Area of low pressure around the equator where the trade winds meet
76
When does speed control end on a visula approach?
4nm 5nm for a standard approach
77
What category of pans ops do you operate under?
Cat C?
78
Isa conditions?
15 degrees Celsius at sea level 1013.25hpa 1.225 kg/m3 Tropopause = 36090ft @ -56.5C Temperature laps rate of 2c per 1000ft
79
are you separated from IFR traffic in class D?
yes
80
Wet runway considerations? (performance related)
Decreased V1 Worse stopping performance in the event of a reject
81
Tempo?
Active for no longer than half the validity window and no more than 1hr at any given time
82
Whats ETOPS/EDTO?
Extended-range twin-engine operations performance standards Allows us to fly more than 60minutes from an adequate airport Aircraft must prove they can fly extended time on one engine eg. etops 180 means it can fly 180minutes Operators must meet specific maintenance, crew training and route planning requirements Now a days it’s been abbreviated to Extended diversion time operations EdTO
83
GPWS?
Ground proximity warning system Uses basic parameters like rad alt and flight parameters Main downside is it can’t see ahead of aircraft
84
egpws?
Enhanced ground proximity warning system Expands on gpws, uses terrain database, gps, predictive algorithms Much better at looking ahead
85
ETP?
Equal-time point The point on a route where it takes the same time to got to destination or departure aerodrome Will shift further away in a headwind and closer in a tailwind
86
PNR?
Point of no return The last point along a route where the aircraft can safely return with its remaining fuel No wind = pnr further away Wind = pnr closer Based on fuel and wind
87
What’s an inter?
Like a Tempo but can’t last more than 30mins at a time
88
Does an aft or forward c of g improve climb performance
Aft
89
What’s a microburst?
Downdraft associated with a thunderstorm
90
Qantas values?
Genuine Inclusive Caring Innovative Experienced
91
Qantas behaviors
Responsible Respectful Resilient Excellence
92
What are performance considerations on a contaminated runway?
Longer stopping distance - decreased v1 Longer takeoff roll
93
Contaminated runway definition?
More than 25% of runway covered in either; 3mm of water Or 3mm Slush Or 3mm Snow Or any ice
94
Volcanic ash procedure?
Identification • Smell. o Sharp, acrid odour of a freshly struck match. o Like an electrical smoke and fire. o Rotten eggs. • A haze can develop and dust can settle. • Possible changing engine conditions. • Possible airspeed fluctuations due to blocked pitot. • Cabin pressurisation can change. • Static discharges, blue coloured sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windows. Action (Recommended Procedure) 1. Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible (a descending 180⁰ turn is the quickest exit strategy). 2. Reduce power if possible. 3. Turn on engine and wing anti-ice devices and all air conditioning packs. 4. Use oxygen (if required) at the 100% setting. Fly aircraft using pitch attitude and power if necessary. 5. If an engine flames out or stalls a restart should be attempted (Page NNC. 2.9). NOTES: • Radar is ineffective for distinguishing ash clouds. • Sulphur gases may be detectable only for a short period of time because of a temporary loss (approx 10 minutes) of the ability to smell a particular odour. This may give the false impression that the aircraft has exited the contaminated area. Use crew oxygen at 100% for approximately 5 minutes, then remove the mask and determine whether the odour is still present.

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