Tech Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
What is the maximum take-off and landing tailwind component for the E195?
A
10kts
2
Q
What is the Manoeuvring Speed (Va) for the E195 at seat level?
A
253KIAS
3
Q
What is the Maximum Landing Weight of the Embraer 195?
A
45,000kg
4
Q
What is the maximum start altitude of the APU?
A
30,000ft
5
Q
What is the maximum N2 operational limit for the CF34-10-E7(E195)?
A
100%
6
Q
What is the maximum engine oil temperature limit for the CF43-10E7(E195)?
A
155 degrees C
7
Q
What is the minimum engagement height of the Auto Pilot?
A
400ft
8
Q
What is the Maximum speed for Flaps 3 extension?
A
200 KIAS
9
Q
What is the starter limit for the APU first and second cycles?
A
60 seconds on 60 seconds off
10
Q
What is the Maximum Fuel Imbalance between the two fuel tanks?
A
360 kg
11
Q
What is the maximum airspeed for landing gear extension (VLE ext)?
A
265 kts
12
Q
What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?
A
20000?
13
Q
What is the Maximum Take off Weight of a Flybe Embraer 195?
A
48,999 kg
14
Q
During taxi, which part of the Aircraft requires the largest clearance?
A
Tail
15
Q
What power source supplies the emergency lighting in the case of total electrics failure?
A
Six dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units
16
Q
The cargo doors are:
A
Manually operated, mechanically held in position
17
Q
Where are the Modular Avionics Units 1 and 2 located?
A
Forward electronics bay
18
Q
What does the bleed air overheat detection system (ODS) provide?
A
An EICAS warning and bleed valve closure at leak detection of either the engine bleeds, APU bleeds, wing anti-ice bleed or air conditioning trim air ducts
19
Q
Cabin temperature can be controlled:
A
On the flight deck control panel or when transferred to the Flight attendant control panel
20
Q
With the Recirculation fan button in the Auto position the, fans commanded OFF:
A
If the dump button is pressed-in
21
Q
During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of;
A
52% fresh air and 48% Recirculation air
22
Q
During cruise above 37000ft, the normal differential pressure is limited to:
A
8.4 PSID
23
Q
An amber bar in the APU bleed button indicates:
A
An APU bleed air leak is detected
24
Q
Which is of the following components regulates the airflow into the ECS packs?
A
The flow Control valve
25
Pressing either manual trim switch with autopilot engaged does what?
The auto pilot disconnects
26
What is set to inform the AP/FD approach system that a CAT 1 approach is required?
Set RA/BARO to BARO on both sides
27
The AUTOTHROTTLE is engaged for take-off when:
AT TO mode armed and both TL's above 50 degrees TLA
28
TRS CRZ mode becomes active when?
A/C airborne, and level at the BARO ALT pre set altitude for more than 90 seconds and within 5kts of selected airspeed.
29
During normal TAKE-OFF with AT armed, the FMA auto throttle annunciations will be:
White TO with the TLA < 50 degrees, Green TO with TLA > 50 degrees, HOLD with IAS >60kts
30
After rotating the APU selector knob from ON to OFF:
The APU starts a 1min cool down period, monitored and controlled by the FADEC.
31
When the APU reaches a low oil pressure condition:
The FADEC automatically shuts down the APU on the ground.
32
What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean?
The external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied.
33
How long will the Batteries supply in an emergency?
10 minutes
34
The DC electrical network consists of:
2 DC Busses, 3 DC ESS BUSSES, 2 BATT HOT BUSSES, 1 APU START BUS, 1 DC GND Services BUS
35
The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs) are rated at ?
40kVA, 115VAC, 400Hz, three-phase
36
When will the FADEC command the starter to cut out during the START sequence?
50% N2
37
On a ground start when will the FADEC supply fuel to the engine?
20-25% N2
38
Which action closes the fire wall Fuel shut off valve of Engine 2?
Pulling Fire handle 2 (Not turning)
39
During normal engine start:
The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically.
40
Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will;
Test the engine and APU fire detection system as well as the cargo smoke detection system.
41
In the event of annunciation of a cargo fire in flight, the pilot presses the associated cargo compartment button. This;
discharges the high rate bottle and after 1 minute the low rate bottle will be discharged automatically.
42
Pulling down either engine fire handle on the flight deck will:
close the respective fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves.
43
Which of the following systems are not commanded by Fly-by-Wire System technology?
The ailerons
44
When the Ram Air Turbine is the only source of power:
The slats and flaps will operate at half speed.
45
What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?
Back up, Captain, First Officer, FCM
46
How are the ailerons controlled?
Hydro-mechanical
47
The two aileron PCU's per side operate the ailerons surface:
In an active/active configuration
48
When the Ram Air Turbine RAT is operating what is the Maximum Flap and Slat setting?
Position 3
49
What is the primary means of radio tuning?
MCDU
50
Which of these statements is correct? The Flight Director source annunciation shows...
A green arrow indicating the selected AFCS source.
51
How many minutes of cockpit audio can be DVDR record?
120 minutes
52
What does SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?
Reduces the sweep angle to +/-30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24 spm
53
When manual airspeed is selected by the flight crew, how is it displayed on the PFD?
Cyan
54
The airspeed trend vector white bar projects what the airspeed will be in:
10 seconds time
55
During abnormal operations the ADS the 1st reversion for the Captains is to:
ADS 3
56
On A/C power up (on ground) the aircraft cannot be moved while IRS 1 and 2 align, how long will this take
Up to 17 minutes
57
When LOW 1 is selected on the fuel control panel?
Fuel cross feed valve opens and AC pump 2 activates.
58
The DC fuel pump:
Is located in the right wing tank and can be used in flight and on the ground.
59
With the engines running, which fuel pumps are providing the fuel flow from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engines and the APU?
The primary ejector pumps
60
How is overpressure in the integral wing tanks prevented?
A high capacity pressure relief valve opens.
61
Which Electric Hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for Take-Off and Landing?
System 1 and 2
62
What effect does the FADEC have on 1 and 2 hydraulic system during an engine flame out?
Depressurise the respective EDP to reduce torque loads.
63
Hydraulic system 3 powers which flight controls?
Elevator (Right Hand Outboard), Rudder (Lower), Ailerons (Left and; Right Outboard)
64
Which power sources are used to drive the three hydraulic systems?
System 1 and; 2 are powered by an EDP and backed up an ACMP, system 3 is powered by an ACMP and backed up by another ACMP
65
With the wing ice protection button on the ice protection panel pushed in, so that the button is dark (no light), the wing anti-ice system:-
Operates in either the AUTO or ON mode as selected with the MODE selector knob.
66
When required the MCDU operates the anti-ice system and inhibits the ice detectors activation logic during takeoff until:
the aircraft reaches 1700 ft AGL or 2 minutes after lift off.
67
Once activated how long after icing conditions are no longer detected will the wing and engine anti-ice valves remain open?
2 minutes
68
For normal operation of the windshield heating system:
at least 2 AC sources are required
69
The brake Control Modules main functions are;
Locked wheel protection, Anti-skid protection, Automatic wheel braking and Touchdown protection.
70
Hydraulic system 2 provides hydraulic pressure for the following landing gear systems;
Inboard brakes, nose wheel steering, landing gear (retraction and; extension) and emergency/parking brake
71
With the hydraulic system 2 pressurised how is the nose wheel steering system engaged?
By pressing down on the steering handle with the external steering disengage switch in the engaged position.
72
The oxygen mask rotary knob has three positions. Which statement is correct?
EMERG supplies pure oxygen under positive pressure, 100% supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, NORM supplies an oxygen/air mixture on demand.
73
How are the Pilots Oxygen Mask microphones activated?
Open the door of the stowage box or press the Test/Reset
74
Where is the Flight Crew Oxygen cylinder stored?
In the forward Cargo compartment
75
What do the high-density red dots on the EGPWS terrain warning display mean?
Terrain is more than 2000ft above the airplane.
76
Which warning overrides all other warnings and voice messages?
Stall
77
"Proximate" traffic is shown:
as a cyan solid diamond
78
In order for TCAS to be operative it requires that other aircraft are:
Mode "A", "C" or "S" equipped
79
When is the wind shear detection system activated?
Between 10 and 1500ft
80
A vertical arrow displayed at the right side of a TCAS TA/RA traffic symbol indicates?
Vertical motion greater than 550ft/min
81
The dark and quiet cockpit principle assumes that when inflight with systems normal:
Panels have no lights on, no aural warnings, selector knobs positioned 12 o'clock
82
On the EICAS display there are amber, cyan and white arrows pointing up and down with similar coloured numbers next to them. What does this signify?
There are more than 15 messages on the screen. To read them select cursor to the EICAS then using the CCD scroll either up or down.
83
The handling pilots PFD has failed, how can the display be regained?
The display will automatically revert to the pilot MFD screen provided the display selector knob is set to auto.
84
Above what Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will the "AIRSPEED ROLLING DIGITS" be displayed?
30 kts
85
A dedicated Page on the MFD is available for pilots to view status information about:
Battery, Engine Oil Level, Crew Oxygen, Doors
86
When will EICAS AUTO de-clutter?
30 seconds after TO and gear and flaps up
87
What button selection on the Guidance Panel will enable or disable LNAV mode (FMS selected lateral modes)?
NAV
88
What is the "ACTIVE FLIGHT PLAN"?
The Flight Plan currently being flown.
89
Which 3 databases are normally contained in the FMS memory?
Navigation, custom and aircraft
90
FMS speed/mach values are displayed on the PFD using which colour?
Magenta
91
Which MCDU page would you normally select in order to initiate a DIRECT TO function?
FPL
92
What is the recall item for SMOKE EVACUATION procedure after Don Oxygen Masks and Establish Communication?
Pressurisation Dump Button... PUSH IN.
93
In which data base are pilot entered waypoints stored?
Custom Database
94
With regard to the ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE or SEPARATION memory items, which is the correct statement?
N1 (Operative Engine) must be AT LEAST 5% ABOVE N1 IDLE
95
Text followed by (_) means:
Either condition applies
96
What are the memory items for a Dual Engine Failure?
Airspeed 265 kts minimum. RAT MAN deploy lever pull.
97
In an emergency descent after "Thrust Levers to Idle", the next memory item?
Speed Brake FULL OPEN
98
What is the first action of the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?
EMERG/PARK Brake ON
99
You receive a BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP MSG, what action would you take?
Associated BATT OFF
100
A continuous bell rings together with an EICAS warning message and FIRE annunciation is in the associated ITT indicator. What are the RECALL items?
AT disengage / N1 of the operative engine to a least 5% above idle / Thrust Level to IDLE / START/STOP selector to STOP / PULL the Fire Extinguishing Handle
101
Where is the precooler?
The nacelle
102
Where is the ATS line?
It is after the precooler, precooler uses fan air only.
103
Cabin altitude high comes on
9700ft
104
Abort mode not available
Above FL100
105
APU closes down in flight for what reasons
Over speed , under speed or critical failure.
106
Turning the IDG off
Opens contractor and de energises the field
107
How is the AC standby bus powered
Battery to static inverter AC power
108
Igniters on ground/ air
1 ground , 2. Air
109
What systems are tested with APU fire test
APU, cargo fwd and aft, engine plus extinguisher system
110
If the rudder pedals jam
Yaw damper, rudder control trim and high functions
111
Loss of indicated airspeed what happens to trim
Reduces to half rate
112
Which services are anti ice pneumatically
Outboard slats and flap, engine intake
113
Flats/slats are deployed
Electro-mechanically
114
In normal TCAS mode
2700ft above - 2700ft below
115
Engine start perameter time on ground
90secs/10 secs 90/10 secs 90/5 mins 90/5mins
116
How many Wind screen wiper positions
4
117
Min oil pressure on an engine
25psi
118
White trend line for altimeter
6 seconds
119
When do the AC pumps come on
Flaps greater than 0, thrust levers set T/o or ground speed greater 50kts
