Tech Bell212 Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
Main rotor diameter?
A
48’
2
Q
Tip of rotor to tip of tail?
A
57’ 3.25”
3
Q
What is the size of the baggage compartment?
A
28-cubic feet
4
Q
How are the elevators positioned
A
Inverted
5
Q
How many electrical power systems does the a/c have?
A
2, AC and DC
6
Q
How is the primary electrical power supplied?
A
Two 30-Volt 200 Ampere starter generators (derated to 150) and a 24v, 34amp hour nickel-cadmium battery.
7
Q
VDC of the starter generator?
A
28 VDC
8
Q
How is the secondary power supplied?
A
Two 115/26 VAC Solid state inverters with a 3rd as back up.
9
Q
How many red captions on the CPW?
A
7
10
Q
What are the A/C engines?
A
Pratt and Whitney PT6T-3B “TwinPac” rated at 1,800 shaft horsepower.
11
Q
When does the particle separator come on at?
A
53 +/- 2%
12
Q
What else may cause the particle separator to go off
A
Fire Pull Handle
13
Q
Which electrical buses distribute DC power to the aircraft?
A
No 1 and 2 Main DC Buses
14
Q
Which of the following methods is used to assist the pilot in identifying and separating electrical circuit breakers on the overhead console?
A
Separating No1 and 2 buses and system breakers.
15
Q
What functions do the Battery Bus switches provide?
A
To activate the battery bus relays
16
Q
What is displayed on the DC voltmeter?
A
No1 and 2 essential DC bus voltage.
17
Q
What is displayed on the AC voltmeter?
A
Voltage on the no 1 and 2 115 vac buses
18
Q
What does the duel ammeter indicate?
A
Ammperage load on each generator
19
Q
What is the maximum allowable difference in amps, between ammeter indications during normal operations?
A
20
20
Q
What does the illumination of the battery caution panel annunciator indicate?
A
Both battery bus relays are in the same position
21
Q
What does illumination of the Battery Temp caution panel annunciator indicate?
A
High battery temperature
22
Q
When will the nonessential buses be automatically powered?
A
Only when both generators are operating online.
23
Q
When starting both engines using external power, which Battery bus switch must be on?
A
Both the no1 and no2?
24
Q
What does illumination of the External power caution annunciator indicate?
A
The external power door is open.
25
What is the minimum recommended N1 Rpm to be attained before turning a generator on?
71%
26
What type electrical power are used for a generator-assisted start of the second engine?
Generator and battery power
27
When the second generator is switched ON, which switch or switches should automatically change position?
Battery BUS switch 1.
28
What does the illumination of a DC Generator caution panel annunciator indicator?
The generator relay is open and the generator is not online.
29
What does the illumination of a GEN OVHT caution panel annunciator indicate?
The generator cooling air is hot.
30
What cockpit gauge will provide a positive indication of DC essential bus failure?
The retrospective DV voltmenter drops to 0 volts.
31
What is the source of AC electrical power on the Bell212?
Two or three solid-state inverters powered by airframe DC power.
32
What does illumination of an INVERTER caution panel indicate?
Loss of 115-volt inverter output.
33
Which AC electrical buses are lost if one inverter fails?
The respective AC emergency buses.
34
Where are the majority of lighting system controls located?
Overhead console
35
What controls the passenger compartment dome lights?
Knob and a toggle switch
36
What is the shape and colour of the light beam that the pilots and copilots cockpit lights project?
Wide white light, wide red light, narrow white or red,
37
When do the baggage compartment lights illuminate?
When the baggage compartment door is opened and the non-essential buses are powered.
38
Where are the controls of the landing light and search light located?
Pilots collective control head
39
What does moving the PILOT INSTR LT knob out of the OFF position do?
Allows dimming of the caution panel annnunciators
40
The symbolized no smoking/fasten seat belts light?
Illuminates anytime DC power is on in the aircraft.
41
All the caution/warning panel can be illuminated by;
Selecting the Test position of the Test/Reset switch on the caution panel.
42
An electrical power failure to the cation panel is indicated by?
Illumination of both MASTER caution and of the CAUTION PANEL annunciation on the caution panel
43
If the BRIGHT-DIM switch on the caution panel is moved to the DIM position then?
If the pilots instrument light know is on then all illuminated caution/warning annuniciators on the caution panel reduce to one-half brightness.
44
Illumination of a caution/warning annunciator on the caution panel indicates
The system malfunction has occurred
45
How to test the Caution Panel annunciator?
Move the MASTER Caution switch to test
46
Can Jet A and B be used in the Bell 212?
Yes
47
How man fuel cells are in the standard airframe fuel system?
5
48
What is the usable fuel capacity of a Bell212 without aux tanks?
217 US Gallons =
49
How does fuel consumption effect CogG?
The CofG moves forward then aft.
50
Where would you find the fuel boost pump, fuel injector pump and fuel flow switch?
Lower fuel cells
51
Which device actuates the illumination of the FUEL BOOST caution panel light if a fuel boost pump fails?
The fuel flow switch
52
What is the purpose of the ejector pumps?
To transfer fuel from the upper cells to the lower cells.
53
What malfunctions causes the illumination of a FUEL BOOST caution panel light?
Failure of the boost pump, blockage of a flow switch and ejector pumps.
54
What conditions activates the fuel float switches and illuminates the FUEL LOW caution panel light?
70 pounds remaining in the respective lower fuel cell.
55
What is the recommended pilot action if FUEL LOW caution panel is illuminated in flight?
Position the fuel intercon switch to open.
56
To electronically operate the fuel sump drain valves, which electrical and fuel switches must be used?
A battery bus switch on and the appropriate fuel switch off.
57
What is the purpose of the fuel interconnect valves?
To equalize lower cell fuel if one cells fuel becomes low, To access lower cell fuel if a boost pump fails and to separate the two independent fuel systems
58
After the pilot has moved the fuel switch to ON, the FUEL VALVE caution panel light illuminates momentarily and then extinguishes. What does this indicate?
The fuel valve and the fuel switch are in agreement, the fuel valve has moved to the full open position.
59
What other airframe system also control over each engine's fuel valve?
The respective FIRE PULL handle.
60
Where is the fuel pressure sensed?
After the fuel valve
61
Which causes the cross-feed valve to open?
A boost pump failure sensed by the associated flow switch.
62
What is the purpose of the FUEL XFEED TEST switch?
To test fuel crossfeed valve operation on both essential buses.
63
What does a fuel pressure guage reading 4-6 psi below normal pressure indicate during the fuel crossfeed valve check?
A malfunctioning check valve in the boost pump output line.
64
What is the result of a complete loss of AC electrical power to the fuel quantity system?
The fuel quantity gauge sticks at its last position and the fuel quantity selector switch is inop
65
What is the cockpit indication of a boost pump failure if all fuel system switches are in the normal in-flight positions?
Illumination of the respective FUEL BOOST caution panel light, A fuel boost caution light and no indicated fuel pressure and engine if above 5000' pressure altitude.
66
How may an indicated boost pump failure be verified after the helicopter is safely on the ground?
Close the fuel valve, and check fuel pressure.
67
What two identical units does the Pratt and Whitney of Canada PT6T-3B twinpac consist of?
Free turbine turboshaft engines driving a combining gearbox
68
Which unit is the primary drive responsibility of the gas producer (N1) section?
The n1 accessory section
69
The starter-generator, fuel control unit, and the N1 tachometer generator are mounted on the?
N1 accessory section.
70
The overall combining gearbox does?
Reduces the N2 RPM, Combines both engines power output and, mounts and drives various N2 and Cbox accessories.
71
The combining gearbox is actually divided into?
Divided into three sections, two for gear reduction and one for .
72
N1 tachometer generator signals are used to indicate the percent of each engines n1 RPM on the N1 gauge and to ?
Actuate each engines ENGINE OUT warning annuniciator and particle separator system.
73
Inter turbine temperature (ITT) indications are?
self generating but require correction by the ITT trim compensator unit
74
N2 tachometer generator signals provide?
Cockpit N2 indications on the triple tachometer indicators.
75
Engine torque indication is a function of ___ which operates a sensor unit in the _____.
Engine oil pressure, combining section of the gearbox.
76
Transmission torque is displayed on the dual torque meter by?
Combining engine torque signals within the duel torque meter.
77
Optimum compressor efficiency and anti-stall operation during engine starting and N1 acceleration are provided by?
A compressor air bleed valve.
78
The engine oil-to-fuel heat exchanger regulates fuel heating by means of thermostatic valve which is controlled by engine.....?
Oil temperature exiting the heat exchanger.
79
The engine fuel filter system includes?
A fuel filter caution annunciator and a bypass.
80
The engine-driven fuel pump puts out high pressure to operator the?
Fuel control unit, flow divider and dump valve.
81
The fuel control unit on each PT6T-3B engine is?
Hydro pneumatic with automatic or manual operation.
82
The flow divider and dump valve do what?
Separate fuel flow between the primary and secondary fuel manifolds and nozzles and drains fuel from them after engine shutdown,
83
Engine ignition occurs;
Only if the fuel switch is in ON and the starter is activated.
84
Power plant lubrication systems all function similarly since they all follow the same procedure of ___ the oil.
Pressurizing, cooling, filtering and using.
85
There are ____ engine oil pumps,_____.
Three, one for pressure and two for scavenge.
86
The primary indication of the low engine oil pressure is the engine's?
Oil Pressure gauge.
87
The loss of engine oil pressure results in ?
A loss of engine torque indication.
88
Excessive engine oil temperature should be treated in the same manner as?
A loss of engine oil pressure.
89
The engine chip detector system includes?
Two chip detectors and an engine CHIP caution annunciators.
90
Overfilling the C-box oil system results in?
Excessive oil being vented from the filler cap.
91
A remote indicator for the C-box oil system indicates?
The c-box oil filter is bypassed.
92
Loss of C-box oil pressure results in?
Erroneous hour meter readings.
93
The C-box oil system include?
A CHIP C BOX caution and C BOX OIL PRESS and C BOX OIL TEMP warnings.
94
Excessive C-Box oil temperature;
Requires landing as soon as possible
95
The type of FCU malfunction should be determined from the ?
Triple tachometer
96
The high side FCU malfunctions may?
A) May be controlled by reducing throttle from full open or B) May require entering manual FCU mode of operation.
97
At what N1 engine rpm do the bypass doors of the PSS automatically close?
53 +/-2% decreasing
98
When a PART SEP switch is placed in the OVERD ON position, what happens to the PSS bypass door?
It opens regardless of engine N1 RPM
99
When a FIRE PULL handle is actuated, what is the effect on the bypass door?
It closes regardless of PART SEP switch position.
100
When does the PART SEP OFF caution light illuminate?
When the bypass door opens.
101
What does the effect of a loss of DC electrical power to the PSS have on the PART SEP OFF caution light?
It illuminates regardless of door position, engine N1, RPM, or FIRE PULL handle position.
102
Particle separation is achieved by what?
An inertial bypass.
103
If the PART SEP OFF caution light remain illuminated after engine start, what action should the pilot take?
Move the respective PART SEP switch to the OVRD ON position.
104
How is anti-icing for the pitot tubes and static ports accomplished?
28-VDC electrical power
105
What verifies proper operation of the pilot tubes and static ports anti-icing system?
Each ammeter load increases as the system is turned on.
106
When should pitot-static anti-icing be turned on?
With an OAT of 4degC or below and visible moisture of the possibility of icing exists.
107
How are the pilots and copilots wind shield system wipers operated?
Electrically and controlled with a single switch.
108
What heat source does the windshield defrosting system use?
Either heated air or cockpit ventilating air.
109
How is the winshield defrosting system activated?
By activating the cockpit heating system and moving the DEFROST lever to ON.
110
What heat source does the windshield defogging system use?
Either heated air or cockpit ventilating air, depending on OAT.
111
When should the windshield defrosting system not be activated?
At an OAT above 21degC.
112
How are the engine fire extinguisher bottles checked during the walk-around engine inspection?
By visually ensuring the pressure gauge needle is in the green arc and the red blowout indicators are intact
113
Which of the following compartment have fire warning lights?
The engine and baggage compartments.
114
What causes illumination of a FIRE PULL handle warning light?
Excessive heat.
115
What are the action necessary to extinguish an engine compartment fire?
Pull the illuminated fire handle, and select main or reserve fire extinguisher bottles.
116
Which of the following is true for the engine fire-extinguisher system?
Neither bottle is automatically selected by pulling a FIRE PULL handle.
117
What causes the BAGGAGE FIRE warning light to illuminate?
Heat, Smoke and Flickering light patterns
118
What actions are necessary to extinguish a baggage compartment fire?
Reduce collective to min required, radios/transponder, passengers/crew, land immediately..
119
Which provide in-flight fire protection?
The crew and passenger compartments and the engine compartments
120
What is indicated by illumination of a fire detection warning light?
That immediate actions are required
121
How many heat sensing elements for fire detection are in each engine compartment?
two
122
What is the purpose of the FIRE EXT PRESS TO TEST button?
It provides a means to test the fire detection system circuitry.
123
Which switch allows activation of the fire extinguisher agent into an engine compartment?
MAIN-OFF-RESERVE
124
What is the purpose of the curvic-splined couplings on the main drive shaft?
T compensate for misalignment between transmission mounting
125
How are the curvic-splined couplings on the main driveshaft lubricated?
Pack with grease and should be inspected daily.
126
What is the reason for the templates on the main drive shaft and couplings?
To indicate overheating of the couplings
127
What is the primary attachment between the main transmission and the airframe?
Lift link
128
How is lubrication for the main transmission provided?
By a self contained pressure lubrication system driven by the main transmission
129
What does the lubrication system for the main transmission include?
Both internal and external coolers and filters and a sump chip detector
130
IF the CHIP XMSN caution annunciator illuminates, what should the pilot do?
Land as soon as possible with single indication
131
What type of main rotor system is used on the Bell212?
Semi-rigid, flapping type.
132
What component of the rotor system provides for blade flapping?
Trunnion
133
What is the best way to describe the main rotor blades?
Symetrical airfoils of metal construction
134
What are the main rotor rpm limits for powered flight?
97-100%
135
What systems provide a warning of low rotor rpm?
RPM lights and audio tone
136
What systems provide a warning of high rotor rpm?
RPM caution lights only
137
What component of the rotor system provides for blade-pitch change?
Blade grips
138
What type of tail rotor is used on the bell 212?
A semi rigid tractor with a delta hinge
139
What actions are allowed by the tail rotor yoke flex-beams?
Collective blade pitch change
140
What is the purpose of the tail rotor blade grip plates and doublers?
To mount the spherical self lubricating pitch change bearings
141
How does tail rotor blade pitch change occur?
About the spherical pitch change bearings in the yoke
142
How are the tail rotor and blades balanced?
Chordwise, spanwise and electronically tracked
143
What materials are used in the construction of the tail rotor blades?
Bonded aluminum alloy with a stain-less-steel leading edge spar.
144
What is the purpose of the tail rotor cross head assembly and pitch links?
To convert flight control movement to blade pitch change
145
Whats is the purpose of the counterweight assemblies?
To reduce strain on the crosshead bearing assembly and to prevent wandering in the event of loss of tail control.
146
How many independent hydraulic systems are used on a Bell212?
Three
147
How many servos are used for main rotor system control?
Three
148
How are the No1 and No2 hydraulic pumps driven?
Mechanically by the main transmission
149
Does the pressure hydraulic filter have a bypass?
Yes
150
At what pressure does the pressure relief valve open?
1,100 psi
151
How is each electrical solenoid valve controlled?
By the associated hydr sys switch on the center pedestal
152
How does a loss of electrical power effect the hydraulic system that is switched off?
The system comes back on
153
What device illuminates the Hydraulic caution panel annunciator?
The pressure switch at 650 PSI.
154
What is the purpose of the return fluid shutoff valve?
To trap return fluid within the servo loops
155
How may the pilot check if any of the hydraulic filters are clogged?
Check the remote indicator in the pilots chin window.
156
What is the approximate hydraulic fluid operating temperature difference between the number 1 and 2 systems?
The No2 system operates 15deg hotter
157
What is the purpose of the temperature switch?
To illuminate the Hydraulic caution light 88deg.
158
Which flight control hydraulic servo is operated by the No1 hydraulic system?
Anti-torque
159
When should the rotor break be used?
Only at or below 40% nr after engine shutdown.
160
How should the rotor brake be applied?
Fully on until the rotor has almost stopped.
161
What condition illuminates the rotor brake caution lights?
Movement of the brake pads out of retracted position.
162
What main rotor blade movement results from collective flight control movement?
Simultaneous pitch change in both blades
163
Which collective flight control component moves up when the collective is pulled up?
The collective sleeve assembly
164
What is included in the collective flight control system?
Adjustable friction, a down lock and a servo actuator.
165
What action results from cyclic flight control movement?
Tilting the rotor disc in the desired direction of flight
166
To what units are cycle flight control movements directed prior to going to the cyclic servo actuators?
The cyclic mixing unit
167
In which direction do the cyclic servo actuators move if the cyclic stick is moved laterally to the right or left?
Both actuators move equally in the opposite direction
168
What is part of the cyclic control system?
Force trim , adjustable friction and two servo actuators
169
Which type of tail rotor blade pitch change occurs when the antitorque pedals are moved?
Collective
170
Which of the following is not included in the collective flight control system?
Force trim
171
What is the purpose of the helicopters force trim system?
To provide cyclic stick and anti torque pedal positioning and provide artificial feel for cyclic and pedals.
172
Name components of the force trim system
Electrically actuated magnetic brakes, Mechanical force gradient assemblies and cyclic mounted force trim release switches
173
What is the purpose of the synchronized elevator?
To increase pitch stability and CG range
174
What controls the movement of the synchronized elevator?
Force and aft cyclic flight control linkage
175
What is the requirement for AFCS on bell212 helicopters?
AFCS is required on all IFR equipped helicopters
176
Which AFCS mode is used during hands off flying
ATTD
177
What is the primary way in which the AFCS moves the flight control linkage?
Electro hydraulic series actuators
178
In order to transmit and receive on a VHF comms radio , what action must the pilot take?
Select the appropriate comm position and have the radio on
179
What may the OFF flag on the right side of the HSI indicate?
The information from the directional gyro in the three axis gyro is invalid
180
What does the HSI course deviation bar respond to?
Only no1 navigation radio course information
181
When are the MAG-DG switches in the DG position on the compass control panels generally used?
In area of high magnetic disturbance
182
How is DME station frequency selection accomplished?
By positioning the switch on the instrument face to either n1 or n2
183
What purpose does the red push-button switch on the marker beacon indicator serve?
It test the three lights in the instrument
184
Where is bearing information for the ADF radio displayed?
It may be switched between the no1 and 2 bearing pointers
185
What does activating the TEST button on the radio altimeter accomplish?
The altitude pointer is driven to 100 +/-20 ft
186
What is the air source for cockpit and cabin heating?
ventilating air, engine bleed air and ram air
187
What is the air source for chin bubble defogging?
Engine bleed air
188
How does the pilot activate the helicopter heating system?
By positioning the system selector switch to heater and by setting the temperature rheostat to the desired temperature
189
An overheat switch mounted in the outlet of the mixing valve activates and closes the bleed-air valves at what temperature?
220deg
190
How is the cockpit ventilating air activated?
By pulling either push pull knob out
191
How is the cabin ventilation system activated?
By opening the desired overhead nozzles as desired
192
What benefits does the winterization heater add to the normal heating system?
Increases the existing bleed air capacity, add extra outlets and ducting and uses a larger mixing valve and noise suppressors.
193
What is the basis for the helicopter performance charts?
The engine manufacturers specification engine power
194
What if any limitations apply if the helicopters is flown with the passenger compartment door open?
In flight airspeed is restricted to 60 kts
