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Tech Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What is TODA, TODR, TORA?

A

TODA. Takeoff distance available
TODR. Takeoff distance required
TORA. Takeoff run available

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2
Q

Flying from AKL To Perth on a great circle, what happens to heading?

A

Heading will increase as a great circle is concave to the equator on a Mercator chart

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3
Q

Flying AKL to Perth on a great circle, is it a straight or curved line on a lambert chart ?

A

Great circles are straight on lambert charts (slightly curved towards parallels of origin)

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4
Q

Constant IAS what happens to Mach and TAS in a climb

A

Mach and TAS both increase

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5
Q

Constant Mach number what happens to IAS and TAS in a climb.

A

Both decrease

-ECTM+ =EAS,CAS,TAS,Mach

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6
Q

At Constant TAS what happens to Mach and IAS in a climb?

A

IAS decreases and Mach increases

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7
Q

Constant Mach number what happens to IAS and TAS in a descent.

A

(+ECTM-)

Both increase

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8
Q

Constant IAS what happens to Mach and TAS in a descent.

A

Both decrease

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9
Q

At Constant TAS what happens to Mach and IAS in a descent?

A

IAS increases

Mach decreases

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10
Q

What is the temperature at 39,000ft?

A

-56.5°C (temperature constant from 36,090ft)

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11
Q

At what altitude does temperature stay constant at -56.5°C

A

36,090ft

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12
Q

How do you work out local speed of sound?

What is LSS at sea level ISA conditions?

A

LSS=38.94x√(Kelvin Temp)

38.94x√273+15(sea level)=660.83kts

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13
Q

When flying east are days shorter or longer?

A

Shorter

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14
Q

What do you need before entering IMC from an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

QNH and Traffic

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15
Q

How long can you wait before notifying ATC of a delay to your departure time from an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

30min

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16
Q

What is MCRIT?

A

Critical Mach number. The speed at which airflow over a certain part of the airframe reaches M1.0(most likely the point of max camber)

MCRIT is increased through slimness and use of sweepback.

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17
Q

Which part of a swept back wing stalls first?

Why?

A

The wing tips.
The total airflow over the swept wing includes a span
wise vector. The flow of air outwards along the wing causes the boundary layer on a swept wing
to drift outwards towards the tips resulting in an undesirably thick boundary layer in the region
of the tips. The retardation of the air by the boundary layer is one of the major causes of the
stall. A thick boundary layer will encourage the stall. The boundary layer is thicker at the
wingtips therefore the tip is likely to stall before the root.
When a tapered wing is also swept, the tip stalling trend is enhanced by the span wise airflow
towards the tip, particularly at low speed and high lift hence the need to avoid a grossly large
taper ratio.
The degree of this trend is modified by the varying use of built-in wing twist; span wise aerofoil
variation, vortex generators, in the gear/flap configuration, and leading edge and trailing edge
devices. Reducing sweepback using crescent shaped wings may be a possibility

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18
Q

Does a Jet have a critical engine?

Explain why.

A

On a jet there is no critical engine in a nil wind situation. Its VMCA in the flight manual is a fixed
speed and does not change with the effects of a crosswind (during certification VMCA tests are
conducted in zero wind and no nose-wheel steering)
In a crosswind situation the preferred engine to lose would be the outboard downwind engine
as the crosswind will aid in directional control opposing the yaw caused by the failed engine (due
to weather cocking action of the cross wind against the vertical stabiliser). This effect will be
exactly the same on the reverse side Thus on a 4 engine aircraft taking off with wind from right
to left the No4 engine (right hand outboard) would be the critical engine (reference: Stanley
Stewart – Flying the Big Jets)
In the cruise the outboard engines in a 4 engined aircraft are considered to be the critical
engines

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19
Q

How do you stop Duch roll?

A

A yaw damper will prevent Dutch roll but if this fails use aileron.
A yaw damper is a gyro system sensitive to changes in yaw which feeds a signal into the rudder
which then applies rudder to oppose the yaw. With this device, a Dutch roll will not develop
because the yaw which triggers it all off is not allowed to develop. It applies the rudder in the
correct direction and in the correct amount, thus preventing the slip starting or building up and
stopping all rolling tendency Apart from the swept wing, the basic cause of Dutch rolling
tendency is lack of effective fin and rudder area.

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20
Q 
What happens to TOD point with increased weight?
Or ... In a descent at a constant speed of
300 kts (which is > Vmin drag) the glide angle will be (shallower / steeper) at a higher weight?
A

TOD will be closer to point of origin in order to reduce angle of descent (forward component of
weight greater at higher weights)

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21
Q

What effect does an aft C of G have on range?

A

For maximum range it would be best to load it with an aft CoG as this would require an upward
force from the tailplane (or less of a downward force required from the tailplane) which acts in
the same direction as lift and hence opposes some of the aircraft’s weight. Less lift from the
mainplanes means less drag therefore less thrust is required, less thrust means reduced fuel
flow and hence more range can be obtained for the amount of fuel on board.

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22
Q

How many satellites are required for RAIM detection? Number of satellites required for RAIM
detection AND exclusion?

A

RAIM is a software algorithm that is available in some GPS receivers which gives an indication if
the position solution given by the GPS receiver is OK to use.
It is OK to use if the position solutions (latitude, longitude and altitude), worked out from any
four of at least five or more GPS satellites, all fall within a pre-defined tolerance. If the solution
falls outside this tolerance then a RAIM warning is given which is indicated on the receiver. This
means that the accuracy of the position on the receiver can not be guaranteed at that point in
time and so it is advisable not to use the GPS for navigation until this warning disappears.
The RAIM availability (or ability of a GPS receiver to provide a RAIM warning) is dependent on
the number of satellites available or in view by the GPS receiver. Remembering we need a
minimum of five satellites to provide a RAIM warning.
For RAIM detection and exclusion 6 satellites required.
So, if there are less than this number at any point in time at some location then this is identified
as a ‘RAIM hole’ (or RAIM unavailability).
It is basically a function of the geometry of the GPS satellites overhead of the receiver.
Additionally, some satellites may have been taken out for ‘maintenance’ by the owners of the
GPS constellation - the U.S. Department of Defence (DoD). GPS NOTAMS or Notice Advisories to
Navstar Users (NANUs as they are called) are disseminated by the DoD prior to any planned GPS
satellite outage.
Baro-aiding may be used to improve RAIM availability since the additional altitude information
provided by baro-aiding effectively acts as an additional satellite. Baro-aiding will be made
mandatory for IFR GPS use and will be included in New Zealand Civil Aviation Rules Part 91.
IMPORTANT NOTE: GPS receivers that also provide RAIM prediction do not take into account
GPS satellites which have been taken out of service for maintenance by the United States
Department of Defence. Their RAIM predictions may not be accurate therefore. The RAIM
Prediction Service takes both the satellite geometry and maintenance outages into account
giving more accurate predictions.
The RAIM Prediction Service provides RAIM outage information for aerodromes with a published
GPS approach and some additional aerodromes as a check of RAIM coverage.
RAIM outage data is computed once per day (at 1400 UTC) or when a satellite outage NOTAM
has been received. The computation is for the following 72 hour period

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23
Q

What is V1? V2? VMCA? VMCG? VA?

A

V1 = The speed on which from a balanced field takeoff it is possible to either reject the takeoff
and stop within the available stopping distance or to continue after engine failure and clear a
screen height of 35 feet at the end of the surface available. In effect V1 is a “go speed”.

V2 is the take-off safety speed or initial target climb speed. It is the speed to be attained at or
before 35’ following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients are achieved and hence
obstacles are cleared by the required margins.

VMCA is the minimum airspeed at which, when sudden and complete failure of the critical engine
occurs at that speed, at 50feet (takeoff flap and max power on live engine, failed engine not
feathered) it is possible to recover the airplane and maintain it in straight flight at that speed,
either with zero yaw or with an angle of bank not in excess of 5°. Must be greater than or equal
to 1.2VS (with undercarriage retracted and flaps in takeoff position)

VMCG is the minimum speed on the ground during the take off run, at which it is possible to
recover control of the aircraft with the use of primary aerodynamic controls and the takeoff can
be continued safely, when the critical engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with the remaining
engines at takeoff thrust. Usually VMCG is higher than VMCA as cannot use 5° bank.

VA is the design manoeuvring speed, the maximum speed at which application of full available
rudder, aileron or elevator will not overstress the aircraft.

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24
Q

What is this abbreviation? FG

A

FG = Fog

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25
Q

What is this abbreviation? BR

A

BR = Mist (Brume)

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26
Q

What is this abbreviation? VA

A

VA = Volcanic Ash

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27
Q

What is this abbreviation? GR

A

GR = Hail (GS = Small hail)

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28
Q

What is this abbreviation? SN

A

SN = Snow

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29
Q

What is this abbreviation? SQ

A

SQ = Squall

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30
Q

What is this abbreviation? TS

A

TS = Thunderstorm

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31
Q

What is this abbreviation? SG

A

SG = Snow grains

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32
Q

What is this abbreviation? PRFG

A

PRFG = Partial Fog (covering part of aerodrome)

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33
Q

What is this abbreviation? PL

A

PL = Ice pellets

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34
Q

What is this abbreviation? MIFG

A

MIFG = shallow fog

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35
Q

What is this abbreviation? FU

A

FU = smoke

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36
Q

What is this abbreviation? BCFG

A

BCFG = fog patches

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37
Q

What is a katabatic wind?

A

A katabatic wind is a down-slope wind that develops as air cools in contact with cold ground and
slips down the side of the hill

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38
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 1?

A

1 Explosives

Ammunition, explosives, fireworks

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39
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 2?

A

2 Gases

Aerosols, lighter refills, sparklet bulbs

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40
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 3?

A

3 Flammable liquids

Paint, paint thinners

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41
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 4?

A

4 Flammable solids

Calcium carbide

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42
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 5?

A

5 Oxidisers

Catalysts, pool chlorine

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43
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 6?

A

6 Toxic

Agricultural chemicals

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44
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 7?

A

7 Radioactive

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45
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 8?

A

8 Corrosives

Caustic cleaners

46
Q

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 9?

A

9 Miscellaneous

Mercury, motor vehicles

47
Q

Centreline lighting becomes alternating red/white at what distance to the end of the
runway? Centreline lighting becomes Red how much distance remains?

A

Lighting will be coded to show white from the threshold to a point 914m from the runway end;
alternating red and white from 914m to 300m from end; and red between 300m and runway
end.

48
Q

What are the 3 types of hold entries?

How are the conducted?

A

Offset entry = Sector 2
Having reached fix aircraft is turned to fly track of 30° from reciprocal of inbound track (on side of
pattern). Fly outbound for appropriate distance or time, then turned to intercept inbound track.

Direct entry = Sector 3
Having reached fix aircraft is turned to follow holding pattern

Parallel entry = Sector 1
Turn onto outbound heading and fly to DME limiting outbound distance then turn onto holding side
to intercept inbound heading.
For entry from DME Arc either parallel or direct entry is required.

49
Q

Hydroplaning speed of rotating wheel (100psi)

A

Theoretical minimum hydroplaning speeds = 9 x √tyre pressure…So 90 knots

50
Q

what is the rough crosswind component for winds at 30, 45 and 60 degrees to your direction of travel in a percentage?

A 
30 = 50%xwind (90% head)
45 = 70%xwind (70% head)
60 = 90%xwind (50%head)
51
Q

Flying Wellington to Chathams ETP of 1hr 50min, you are 10min ahead of flight plan (tail wind)
what effect on ETP? Will it be closer to Wellington or Chathams?

A

Closer to Wellington (moves into wind)

52
Q

What does sweepback do for stability and critical mach?

A

The primary purpose of sweepback is to increase the value of MCRIT for a given aircraft. Since
only the component of the relative airflow across the wing which is parallel with the chord
line can be considered as producing/creating lift, only the vector speed of this chordwise
component is significant when considering MCRIT. In effect, the wing is persuaded to believe
that it is flying slower than it really is; this means that the airspeed can be increased before
the effective chordwise component becomes sonic and thus the critical Mach # is raised.
This is why a high speed a/c has a swept wing. As the thickness/chord ratio defines the
amount of acceleration imposed on the upper surface stream it follows that the thinner the
wing, the lower the acceleration, and the higher will be the airspeed before, for this reason
alone, the upper flow becomes sonic. This is why a high speed a/c has a thin swept wing.

Lateral stability (about the longitudinal axis) is reduced. If a straight wing aircraft is yawing it
also rolls; this tendency is increased in a swept wing aircraft because the effective spans on
both wings are altered. With yaw, both values of V and CL are increased on the outer wing
and reduced on the inner wing posing a very marked tendency to roll the aircraft.

Longitudinal stability (about the lateral axis) is also reduced due to the effects of mach tuck

53
Q

Dihedral provides what stability about what axis? Why do we use dihedral?

A

Dihedral is the angle between the mainplanes (or tailplane) and the horizontal. If the planes are
inclined upwards towards the wingtips this is positive and is called dihedral, if downwards this is
negative and called anhedral. Anhedral is used for dynamic stability.
Dihedral is an aid to lateral stability (about the aircraft longitudinal axis).

54
Q

Static vent blocked effect on altimeter in climb (over read/under read)?

A

Altimeter will read at altitude where it became blocked as it only reads static pressure –
therefore under-read.

55
Q

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?
With reference to Part 91

Pressurised Aircraft when cabin exceeds
10,000ft

A 
Crew supplemental oxygen to be
used
Crew supplemental and portable
oxygen to be used if away from
station
56
Q

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?
With reference to Part 91

Pressurised aircraft between FL350-410

A 
1 pilot at controls must be wearing
mask whenever cabin is above
FL130
Or if 2 pilots at controls must have
access to masks in 5 seconds
57
Q

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?
With reference to Part 91

Pressurised aircraft above FL410

A

I pilot at controls wearing mask at

all times

58
Q

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?
With reference to Part 91

Pressurised aircraft in event of
pressurisation failure

A 
Unless aircraft can descend below
FL140 in 4 minutes then
supplemental oxygen for each
passenger to be used whenever
cabin is above FL140
59
Q

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules?
With reference to Part 91

Unpressurised Aircraft

A

When above FL130 continuous

oxygen for pax and crew
Between 10,000 and FL130 for

more than 30 minutes continuous
oxygen for crew and supplemental
for passengers

60
Q

Definition of ISA ( be specific i.e. units and 3 decimal places )

A

Pressure 1013.25 hpa reducing by 1 Hpa per 27 feet
Temperature 15°celcius
Density 1.225 kg/m3
Temperature Lapse Rate is 1.98°C per 1000’ up to 36 090’ then –56.5°C
Gravity 9.82 m/s2

61
Q

WX Radar return shows steep gradient and hollow centre to the cloud in front of you. What
does this indicate?

A

This is indicative of a storm cell – where there is a very sharp change from light to heavy rain. A
sharp shear zone is defined as a radar return showing less than three miles between a
contoured hollow or “hole” and an area of no returns. To avoid severe turbulence avoid areas
showing a sharp shear zone by at least 5nm.

62
Q

Definitions of Tempo and Inter.

A

TEMPO
Changes are expected to last for a period of less than an hour and sufficiently infrequently for
the prevailing conditions to remain as reported.
INTER
Intermittent changes are expected to last for a period of less than 30 minutes and take place
sufficiently infrequently for the prevailing conditions to remain unchanged

63
Q

Which part and stage of a thunderstorm will have the most ice and turbulence?

A

Icing – worst at point just above the freezing level from 0° to -10°c
Turbulence – worst ahead of and below CB

64
Q

Advection / sea fog?

A

Advection fog occurs when a warm moist air mass moves over a progressively colder surface.
Moist air masses move pole wards over progressively colder waters – resulting in sea fog and
most commonly occurs in the warm sectors of depressions. Maybe widespread and persistent
even in moderate winds.

65
Q

If two aircraft are approaching each other head on and are 225 nm apart at 0000 UTC, what
time will they pass if aircraft 1 is doing 420 kts and aircraft 2 is doing 480 kts?

A

Closing speed is 900 knots: 225/900 = 0.25 = 15 minutes = 0015UTC

66
Q

TAS 120kts, Tailwind 60 kts (a-b), Fuel burn 100 kgs/hr. If the aircraft burns 100 kgs in a
journey from a-b what will it burn from b-a.

A

A-B = 1 hour @ GS 180 knots = 180 nm. GS for return = 60 knots = 3 hours = 300kg

67
Q

Burn 8kg/nm. Range with a ton of gas?

A

Specific range = 125 nm

68
Q

What is a Balanced Field Length

A

A balanced field exists when the TODA (take off distance available) = ASDA (accelerate stop
distance available) i.e. when the clearway is also the end of the stopway.

69
Q

What is the definition of the second segment?

A

The second segment is from gear retraction to level acceleration altitude, which is normally a
minimum of 400’ above the takeoff surface. In this segment the gear is retracted, the flaps are in
the takeoff position and the aircraft is set in takeoff power. The speed is equal to V2 (initial climb
out speed) and the required minimum gross gradient of climb, in a two engined aircraft, is 2.4%.
The net flight path gradient is the gross flight path gradient reduced by 0.8%, i.e. 1.6%.
Conditions:
 Landing gear is retracted
 The flaps are still in the takeoff position
 The speed is V2
 The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4%
 The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6%; and
 Takeoff power is still set.

70
Q

In what situation is MCRIT at its lowest value

A

When the aircraft is at high altitude – as cold temperature means that LSS is lower than at sea
level

71
Q

If climbing at constant Mach No. What happens to TAS and LSS?

A

LSS will decrease with a decrease in temperature so at a constant Mach number the TAS will
decrease in the climb

72
Q

What happens to MCRIT with decrease in weight?

A

A decrease in weight will increase MCRIT due to reduced angle of attack required

73
Q

How would an aircraft reach MCRIT for the lowest TAS?

A

When LSS is at its lowest value; i.e. for any range of options the highest and coldest option

74
Q

Effect of flap on drag

A

An increase in flap setting increases lift and drag

75
Q

Effect of flap on angle of attack at the point of stall

A

The use of flap increases the CL of the wing by increasing the camber, therefore a higher angle
of attack can be reached before the stall when compared with a flapless wing. Flap increases
the angle of attack at the stall.

76
Q

Boundary layer does what as airflow goes from laminar to turbulent?

A

The boundary layer thickens in depth and produces more drag and less lift

77
Q

Reason for all-moving tailplane?

A

Requirement of a large C of G range (large weight changes).
Need to cover a large speed range
Need to cope with large trim changes due to wing loading and trailing edge high lift devices
without limiting the amount of elevator remaining.
Need to reduce trim drag.

78
Q

What assists longitudinal stability?

Fin, Tailplane or dihedral

A

Tailplane

79
Q

To correct for a nose heavy aircraft with a variable incidence tailplane, the angle of incidence
would ___________ and the leading edge would __________?

A

To balance this a downwards force, or a reduction in upwards force is required from the
tailplane therefore the angle of incidence would decrease (maybe even negative) and the
leading edge would lower

80
Q

In a roll to the right which spoiler extends and which aileron goes down?

A

Right spoiler extends and left aileron goes down.

81
Q

What is the definition of Part 121?

A

Part 121 is to prescribe the operating requirements for air operations of aeroplanes that have a
passenger seating configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member
seat, or a payload capacity of more than 3410 kg, carried out by the holder of an Airline Air
Operator Certificate issued under Part 119 of the Rules

82
Q

Instrument rating currency requirement?

A

Every 12 months IFR renewal check
6 hours of instrument time every 3 months, 2 of which must be instrument flight time
(including approach of each type – precision / non precision)

83
Q

Documents required on an international flight?

A

121.855 Documents to be carried
(a) Each holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that the following documents are
carried on each individual air operation—
(1) details of the operational flight plan; and
(2) NOTAM and aeronautical information service briefing documentation appropriate to the
operation; and
(3) meteorological information appropriate to the operation; and
(4) the load manifest; and
(5) notification of dangerous goods; and
(6) copies of the relevant flight guide charts and plates; and
(7) in the case of a regular air transport service, a route guide covering each route flown and
alternate aerodromes that may be used.
(b) The holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that separate copies of the documents
referred to in paragraph (a)(7) are available for
each pilot performing flight crew duties on the flight.
 C of A
 AFM
 Aircraft Registration
 Flight Crew Licences
 Valid Maintenance. Release
 Load Sheet
 Flight records
 List of Crew & Passengers
 Cargo bills of lading and manifests
 List of disposable stores and spare parts
 Route Guide (if scheduled)
 Flight Plan
 Met information
 Flight Guide
 Dangerous goods notification

84
Q

How far out can an ETA be before you must tell ATC?

A

2 minutes (part 91.412)

85
Q

When can you descend below MDA on circling approach?

A

When cloud base and visibility permit and the approach and landing can be made using normal
manoeuvres

86
Q

If you go IMC circling downwind? Do you execute the MAP for the “Active” runway or
“approach” runway?

A

Execute the missed approach procedure for the approach that you were on
It is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and
overhead the aerodrome where the pilot will establish the aircraft on the missed approach
track. Different patterns will be required to establish the aircraft on the prescribed missed
approach course depending on its position at the time that visual reference is lost.

87
Q

What separation is provided by between IFR and VFR traffic in class C and D airspace?

A

Class C = IFR separation from IFR, VFR and SVFR

Class D = IFR from IFR and SVFR but from VFR only at night

88
Q

Explain ETOPS 10 lines or less with respect to part 121

A

ETOPS stands for Extended Range Twin Engine Operations and is the term used to govern
regulations and procedures pertinent to twin engine commercial aircraft operating on extended
global or domestic routes with poor off track alternates. The basic premise regarding this topic is
related to the concept of redundancy and failures of the powerplant/hull. The basis of ETOPS is
the improved engine reliability shown by new age aircraft.

The rules state that any aircraft with two engines must be capable of flying to an adequate
airport where it can land safely within 90 minutes at normal cruise speed or 60 minutes at single
engine cruise speed (in still air conditions). It the aircraft can not comply with the above
regulation – it is then required to become an ETOPS rated aircraft.

With an ETOPS rating, this rule is extended up to 90mins, 120mins, 138mins and 180mins

Individual aircraft must be specifically authorised. As new aircraft are introduced to the fleet a
proving period is implemented at 120 min before a higher classification is considered.

Air New Zealand currently operates B737 on 120min ETOPs and B767 on 180 min ETOPs.
However when suitable alternates exist for 120 min ETOPS it may be advantageous to operate to
this criteria as opposed to 180 min. These advantages are in the area of MEL dispatch and
minimum fuel reserves to be carried.

The ETOPS times stipulated simply determine the single engine time in still air from which an
aircraft must remain from a suitable alternate.

89
Q

If you are under ATC speed control, how close to the assigned airspeed must you fly?

A

Within 10 knots of speed assigned by ATC

90
Q

If the marker beacons are NOTAM U/S for an ILS; what minima can you go to?

A

To ILS minima as long as alternate fix altitudes are nominated on the IAC or NOTAM and are
used for altitude checks. NZ60!!!! Erroneous Glideslope

91
Q

What errors does the mach meter NOT suffer from?

A

Compressibility and density

92
Q

When will TCAS II not give an RA

A

Below 1000ft

93
Q

If GPS satellites orbit the earth every 12 hours, how does a GPS receiver know where to look
when first turned on?

A

The GPS database carries an “Almanac” of satellite positions and any changes are transmitted
to the GPS receiver by means of Service messages

94
Q

How is AC voltage Regulated?

A

Through use of a CSD (Constant Speed Drive)

95
Q

How do you control AC current?

A

Through a Generator Control Unit (GCU)

96
Q

Why do we heat fuel?

A

To prevent fuel freezing due to low ambient temperatures

97
Q

Purpose of bonding regarding static charges?

A

To ensure that all sections of the airframe have the same potential and therefore prevent arcing

98
Q

How do you calculate distance on an arc? (Formula)

A

(DME x ARC degrees) / 60

Which means 60/DME = Degrees per mile

or remember

DME           Degree per mile
30                           2
20                           3
15                            4
12                            5
10                            6
9                              7
8                              8
7                              9
6                             10
99
Q

Your on a 10 DME Arc with 30 degrees to go. How many track miles remain on the ark?

A

5nm = (10x30)/60

100
Q

How much Cross wind is there on RWY 34 if the wind is 010/30

A

15kts

30 degrees off heading = 50% xwind
45 degrees off heading = 70% xwind
60 degrees off heading = 90% xcwind

101
Q

AT 290KTS, HOW FAR WILL YOU TRAVEL IN 58 MINUTES?

A

280.333333 nm

102
Q

AFTER TRAVELLING 128NM IN 58 MINUTES WHAT IS YOUR GROUNDSPEED?

A

132.4 nm

103
Q

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C

Vat

A

A <91
B 91 - 120
C 121 - 140

104
Q

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C
Final approach speed?
(range)

A

A 70 - 100
B 85 - 130
C 115 - 160

105
Q

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C

Max speed for Circling?

A

A 100
B 135
C 180

106
Q

Speeds for CAT : A, B ,C

Max Missed Approach Speed?

A

A 110
B 150
C 240

107
Q

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C

Initial approach / reversal speed

A

A 90 - 150 (110)*
B 120 - 180 (140)*
C 160 - 240

  • Max speed for reversal
108
Q

What is the Max IAS for holding?
At which altitudes?
Normal and Turbulent air….

A

Normal Turbulent
14,000 below 230 (170) 280 (170)
14-20,000 240 280 M 0.8
20-34,000 265 280 M 0.8
34,000 above M 0.83 M 0.83

109
Q

Circling area for CAT A, B, C , D

A

A 1.68
B 2.66
C 4.2
D 5.28

110
Q

What is a hung start?

A

A hung start is when normal lightoff occurs but the engine fails to reach idle rpm.
You will see an EGT (exhaust gas temp) rise, but the rpm will hang. A hung start could be the sign of a weak starter.

111
Q

What are the Takeoff minima?

A

The default take-off minima for any aerodrome in
New Zealand is 300ft ceiling and 1500m visibility unless otherwise prescribed in the
AIPNZ.

Minima below 0ft-800m is only available to operators certificated under
Civil Aviation Rule Parts 121, 125 or 129.

OPS below 800m visibility available to operators authorised by
CAA New Zealand only and subject to availability of serviceable
secondary power supply and automatic switch‐over

Study tech Q's (2 decks)

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