Tech Q's

Question 1

What is TODA, TODR, TORA?

Answer 1

TODA. Takeoff distance available
TODR. Takeoff distance required
TORA. Takeoff run available

Question 2

Flying from AKL To Perth on a great circle, what happens to heading?

Answer 2

Heading will increase as a great circle is concave to the equator on a Mercator chart

Question 3

Flying AKL to Perth on a great circle, is it a straight or curved line on a lambert chart ?

Answer 3

Great circles are straight on lambert charts (slightly curved towards parallels of origin)

Question 4

Constant IAS what happens to Mach and TAS in a climb

Answer 4

Mach and TAS both increase

Question 5

Constant Mach number what happens to IAS and TAS in a climb.

Answer 5

Both decrease

-ECTM+ =EAS,CAS,TAS,Mach

Question 6

At Constant TAS what happens to Mach and IAS in a climb?

Answer 6

IAS decreases and Mach increases

Question 7

Constant Mach number what happens to IAS and TAS in a descent.

Answer 7

(+ECTM-)

Both increase

Question 8

Constant IAS what happens to Mach and TAS in a descent.

Answer 8

Both decrease

Question 9

At Constant TAS what happens to Mach and IAS in a descent?

Answer 9

IAS increases

Mach decreases

Question 10

What is the temperature at 39,000ft?

Answer 10

-56.5°C (temperature constant from 36,090ft)

Question 11

At what altitude does temperature stay constant at -56.5°C

Answer 11

36,090ft

Question 12

How do you work out local speed of sound?

What is LSS at sea level ISA conditions?

Answer 12

LSS=38.94x√(Kelvin Temp)

38.94x√273+15(sea level)=660.83kts

Question 13

When flying east are days shorter or longer?

Answer 13

Shorter

Question 14

What do you need before entering IMC from an uncontrolled aerodrome?

Answer 14

QNH and Traffic

Question 15

How long can you wait before notifying ATC of a delay to your departure time from an uncontrolled aerodrome?

Answer 15

30min

Question 16

What is MCRIT?

Answer 16

Critical Mach number. The speed at which airflow over a certain part of the airframe reaches M1.0(most likely the point of max camber)

MCRIT is increased through slimness and use of sweepback.

Question 17

Which part of a swept back wing stalls first?

Why?

Answer 17

The wing tips.
The total airflow over the swept wing includes a span
wise vector. The flow of air outwards along the wing causes the boundary layer on a swept wing
to drift outwards towards the tips resulting in an undesirably thick boundary layer in the region
of the tips. The retardation of the air by the boundary layer is one of the major causes of the
stall. A thick boundary layer will encourage the stall. The boundary layer is thicker at the
wingtips therefore the tip is likely to stall before the root.
When a tapered wing is also swept, the tip stalling trend is enhanced by the span wise airflow
towards the tip, particularly at low speed and high lift hence the need to avoid a grossly large
taper ratio.
The degree of this trend is modified by the varying use of built-in wing twist; span wise aerofoil
variation, vortex generators, in the gear/flap configuration, and leading edge and trailing edge
devices. Reducing sweepback using crescent shaped wings may be a possibility

Question 18

Does a Jet have a critical engine?

Explain why.

Answer 18

On a jet there is no critical engine in a nil wind situation. Its VMCA in the flight manual is a fixed
speed and does not change with the effects of a crosswind (during certification VMCA tests are
conducted in zero wind and no nose-wheel steering)
In a crosswind situation the preferred engine to lose would be the outboard downwind engine
as the crosswind will aid in directional control opposing the yaw caused by the failed engine (due
to weather cocking action of the cross wind against the vertical stabiliser). This effect will be
exactly the same on the reverse side Thus on a 4 engine aircraft taking off with wind from right
to left the No4 engine (right hand outboard) would be the critical engine (reference: Stanley
Stewart – Flying the Big Jets)
In the cruise the outboard engines in a 4 engined aircraft are considered to be the critical
engines

Question 19

How do you stop Duch roll?

Answer 19

A yaw damper will prevent Dutch roll but if this fails use aileron.
A yaw damper is a gyro system sensitive to changes in yaw which feeds a signal into the rudder
which then applies rudder to oppose the yaw. With this device, a Dutch roll will not develop
because the yaw which triggers it all off is not allowed to develop. It applies the rudder in the
correct direction and in the correct amount, thus preventing the slip starting or building up and
stopping all rolling tendency Apart from the swept wing, the basic cause of Dutch rolling
tendency is lack of effective fin and rudder area.

Question 20

What happens to TOD point with increased weight?
Or ... In a descent at a constant speed of
300 kts (which is > Vmin drag) the glide angle will be (shallower / steeper) at a higher weight?

Answer 20

TOD will be closer to point of origin in order to reduce angle of descent (forward component of
weight greater at higher weights)

Question 21

What effect does an aft C of G have on range?

Answer 21

For maximum range it would be best to load it with an aft CoG as this would require an upward
force from the tailplane (or less of a downward force required from the tailplane) which acts in
the same direction as lift and hence opposes some of the aircraft’s weight. Less lift from the
mainplanes means less drag therefore less thrust is required, less thrust means reduced fuel
flow and hence more range can be obtained for the amount of fuel on board.

Question 22

How many satellites are required for RAIM detection? Number of satellites required for RAIM
detection AND exclusion?

Answer 22

RAIM is a software algorithm that is available in some GPS receivers which gives an indication if
the position solution given by the GPS receiver is OK to use.
It is OK to use if the position solutions (latitude, longitude and altitude), worked out from any
four of at least five or more GPS satellites, all fall within a pre-defined tolerance. If the solution
falls outside this tolerance then a RAIM warning is given which is indicated on the receiver. This
means that the accuracy of the position on the receiver can not be guaranteed at that point in
time and so it is advisable not to use the GPS for navigation until this warning disappears.
The RAIM availability (or ability of a GPS receiver to provide a RAIM warning) is dependent on
the number of satellites available or in view by the GPS receiver. Remembering we need a
minimum of five satellites to provide a RAIM warning.
For RAIM detection and exclusion 6 satellites required.
So, if there are less than this number at any point in time at some location then this is identified
as a ‘RAIM hole’ (or RAIM unavailability).
It is basically a function of the geometry of the GPS satellites overhead of the receiver.
Additionally, some satellites may have been taken out for ‘maintenance’ by the owners of the
GPS constellation - the U.S. Department of Defence (DoD). GPS NOTAMS or Notice Advisories to
Navstar Users (NANUs as they are called) are disseminated by the DoD prior to any planned GPS
satellite outage.
Baro-aiding may be used to improve RAIM availability since the additional altitude information
provided by baro-aiding effectively acts as an additional satellite. Baro-aiding will be made
mandatory for IFR GPS use and will be included in New Zealand Civil Aviation Rules Part 91.
IMPORTANT NOTE: GPS receivers that also provide RAIM prediction do not take into account
GPS satellites which have been taken out of service for maintenance by the United States
Department of Defence. Their RAIM predictions may not be accurate therefore. The RAIM
Prediction Service takes both the satellite geometry and maintenance outages into account
giving more accurate predictions.
The RAIM Prediction Service provides RAIM outage information for aerodromes with a published
GPS approach and some additional aerodromes as a check of RAIM coverage.
RAIM outage data is computed once per day (at 1400 UTC) or when a satellite outage NOTAM
has been received. The computation is for the following 72 hour period

Question 23

What is V1? V2? VMCA? VMCG? VA?

Answer 23

V1 = The speed on which from a balanced field takeoff it is possible to either reject the takeoff
and stop within the available stopping distance or to continue after engine failure and clear a
screen height of 35 feet at the end of the surface available. In effect V1 is a “go speed”.

V2 is the take-off safety speed or initial target climb speed. It is the speed to be attained at or
before 35’ following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients are achieved and hence
obstacles are cleared by the required margins.

VMCA is the minimum airspeed at which, when sudden and complete failure of the critical engine
occurs at that speed, at 50feet (takeoff flap and max power on live engine, failed engine not
feathered) it is possible to recover the airplane and maintain it in straight flight at that speed,
either with zero yaw or with an angle of bank not in excess of 5°. Must be greater than or equal
to 1.2VS (with undercarriage retracted and flaps in takeoff position)

VMCG is the minimum speed on the ground during the take off run, at which it is possible to
recover control of the aircraft with the use of primary aerodynamic controls and the takeoff can
be continued safely, when the critical engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with the remaining
engines at takeoff thrust. Usually VMCG is higher than VMCA as cannot use 5° bank.

VA is the design manoeuvring speed, the maximum speed at which application of full available
rudder, aileron or elevator will not overstress the aircraft.

Question 24

What is this abbreviation? FG

Answer 24

FG = Fog

Question 25

What is this abbreviation? BR

Answer 25

BR = Mist (Brume)

Question 26

What is this abbreviation? VA

Answer 26

VA = Volcanic Ash

Question 27

What is this abbreviation? GR

Answer 27

GR = Hail (GS = Small hail)

Question 28

What is this abbreviation? SN

Answer 28

SN = Snow

Question 29

What is this abbreviation? SQ

Answer 29

SQ = Squall

Question 30

What is this abbreviation? TS

Answer 30

TS = Thunderstorm

Question 31

What is this abbreviation? SG

Answer 31

SG = Snow grains

Question 32

What is this abbreviation? PRFG

Answer 32

PRFG = Partial Fog (covering part of aerodrome)

Question 33

What is this abbreviation? PL

Answer 33

PL = Ice pellets

Question 34

What is this abbreviation? MIFG

Answer 34

MIFG = shallow fog

Question 35

What is this abbreviation? FU

Answer 35

FU = smoke

Question 36

What is this abbreviation? BCFG

Answer 36

BCFG = fog patches

Question 37

What is a katabatic wind?

Answer 37

A katabatic wind is a down-slope wind that develops as air cools in contact with cold ground and slips down the side of the hill

Question 38

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 1?

Answer 38

1 Explosives | Ammunition, explosives, fireworks

Question 39

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 2?

Answer 39

2 Gases | Aerosols, lighter refills, sparklet bulbs

Question 40

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 3?

Answer 40

3 Flammable liquids | Paint, paint thinners

Question 41

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 4?

Answer 41

4 Flammable solids | Calcium carbide

Question 42

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 5?

Answer 42

5 Oxidisers | Catalysts, pool chlorine

Question 43

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 6?

Answer 43

6 Toxic | Agricultural chemicals

Question 44

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 7?

Answer 44

7 Radioactive

Question 45

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 8?

Answer 45

8 Corrosives | Caustic cleaners

Question 46

What is Dangerous Goods Class type 9?

Answer 46

9 Miscellaneous | Mercury, motor vehicles

Question 47

Centreline lighting becomes alternating red/white at what distance to the end of the runway? Centreline lighting becomes Red how much distance remains?

Answer 47

Lighting will be coded to show white from the threshold to a point 914m from the runway end; alternating red and white from 914m to 300m from end; and red between 300m and runway end.

Question 48

What are the 3 types of hold entries? | How are the conducted?

Answer 48

Offset entry = Sector 2 Having reached fix aircraft is turned to fly track of 30° from reciprocal of inbound track (on side of pattern). Fly outbound for appropriate distance or time, then turned to intercept inbound track. Direct entry = Sector 3 Having reached fix aircraft is turned to follow holding pattern Parallel entry = Sector 1 Turn onto outbound heading and fly to DME limiting outbound distance then turn onto holding side to intercept inbound heading. For entry from DME Arc either parallel or direct entry is required.

Question 49

Hydroplaning speed of rotating wheel (100psi)

Answer 49

Theoretical minimum hydroplaning speeds = 9 x √tyre pressure...So 90 knots

Question 50

what is the rough crosswind component for winds at 30, 45 and 60 degrees to your direction of travel in a percentage?

Answer 50

``` 30 = 50%xwind (90% head) 45 = 70%xwind (70% head) 60 = 90%xwind (50%head) ```

Question 51

Flying Wellington to Chathams ETP of 1hr 50min, you are 10min ahead of flight plan (tail wind) what effect on ETP? Will it be closer to Wellington or Chathams?

Answer 51

Closer to Wellington (moves into wind)

Question 52

What does sweepback do for stability and critical mach?

Answer 52

The primary purpose of sweepback is to increase the value of MCRIT for a given aircraft. Since only the component of the relative airflow across the wing which is parallel with the chord line can be considered as producing/creating lift, only the vector speed of this chordwise component is significant when considering MCRIT. In effect, the wing is persuaded to believe that it is flying slower than it really is; this means that the airspeed can be increased before the effective chordwise component becomes sonic and thus the critical Mach # is raised. This is why a high speed a/c has a swept wing. As the thickness/chord ratio defines the amount of acceleration imposed on the upper surface stream it follows that the thinner the wing, the lower the acceleration, and the higher will be the airspeed before, for this reason alone, the upper flow becomes sonic. This is why a high speed a/c has a thin swept wing. Lateral stability (about the longitudinal axis) is reduced. If a straight wing aircraft is yawing it also rolls; this tendency is increased in a swept wing aircraft because the effective spans on both wings are altered. With yaw, both values of V and CL are increased on the outer wing and reduced on the inner wing posing a very marked tendency to roll the aircraft. Longitudinal stability (about the lateral axis) is also reduced due to the effects of mach tuck

Question 53

Dihedral provides what stability about what axis? Why do we use dihedral?

Answer 53

Dihedral is the angle between the mainplanes (or tailplane) and the horizontal. If the planes are inclined upwards towards the wingtips this is positive and is called dihedral, if downwards this is negative and called anhedral. Anhedral is used for dynamic stability. Dihedral is an aid to lateral stability (about the aircraft longitudinal axis).

Question 54

Static vent blocked effect on altimeter in climb (over read/under read)?

Answer 54

Altimeter will read at altitude where it became blocked as it only reads static pressure – therefore under-read.

Question 55

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules? With reference to Part 91 Pressurised Aircraft when cabin exceeds 10,000ft

Answer 55

``` Crew supplemental oxygen to be used Crew supplemental and portable oxygen to be used if away from station ```

Question 56

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules? With reference to Part 91 Pressurised aircraft between FL350-410

Answer 56

``` 1 pilot at controls must be wearing mask whenever cabin is above FL130 Or if 2 pilots at controls must have access to masks in 5 seconds ```

Question 57

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules? With reference to Part 91 Pressurised aircraft above FL410

Answer 57

I pilot at controls wearing mask at all times

Question 58

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules? With reference to Part 91 Pressurised aircraft in event of pressurisation failure

Answer 58

``` Unless aircraft can descend below FL140 in 4 minutes then supplemental oxygen for each passenger to be used whenever cabin is above FL140 ```

Question 59

At what cabin alt does crew require supplemental O2? What are the oxygen rules? With reference to Part 91 Unpressurised Aircraft

Answer 59

When above FL130 continuous oxygen for pax and crew Between 10,000 and FL130 for more than 30 minutes continuous oxygen for crew and supplemental for passengers

Question 60

Definition of ISA ( be specific i.e. units and 3 decimal places )

Answer 60

Pressure 1013.25 hpa reducing by 1 Hpa per 27 feet Temperature 15°celcius Density 1.225 kg/m3 Temperature Lapse Rate is 1.98°C per 1000’ up to 36 090’ then –56.5°C Gravity 9.82 m/s2

Question 61

WX Radar return shows steep gradient and hollow centre to the cloud in front of you. What does this indicate?

Answer 61

This is indicative of a storm cell – where there is a very sharp change from light to heavy rain. A sharp shear zone is defined as a radar return showing less than three miles between a contoured hollow or “hole” and an area of no returns. To avoid severe turbulence avoid areas showing a sharp shear zone by at least 5nm.

Question 62

Definitions of Tempo and Inter.

Answer 62

TEMPO Changes are expected to last for a period of less than an hour and sufficiently infrequently for the prevailing conditions to remain as reported. INTER Intermittent changes are expected to last for a period of less than 30 minutes and take place sufficiently infrequently for the prevailing conditions to remain unchanged

Question 63

Which part and stage of a thunderstorm will have the most ice and turbulence?

Answer 63

Icing – worst at point just above the freezing level from 0° to -10°c Turbulence – worst ahead of and below CB

Question 64

Advection / sea fog?

Answer 64

Advection fog occurs when a warm moist air mass moves over a progressively colder surface. Moist air masses move pole wards over progressively colder waters – resulting in sea fog and most commonly occurs in the warm sectors of depressions. Maybe widespread and persistent even in moderate winds.

Question 65

If two aircraft are approaching each other head on and are 225 nm apart at 0000 UTC, what time will they pass if aircraft 1 is doing 420 kts and aircraft 2 is doing 480 kts?

Answer 65

Closing speed is 900 knots: 225/900 = 0.25 = 15 minutes = 0015UTC

Question 66

TAS 120kts, Tailwind 60 kts (a-b), Fuel burn 100 kgs/hr. If the aircraft burns 100 kgs in a journey from a-b what will it burn from b-a.

Answer 66

A-B = 1 hour @ GS 180 knots = 180 nm. GS for return = 60 knots = 3 hours = 300kg

Question 67

Burn 8kg/nm. Range with a ton of gas?

Answer 67

Specific range = 125 nm

Question 68

What is a Balanced Field Length

Answer 68

A balanced field exists when the TODA (take off distance available) = ASDA (accelerate stop distance available) i.e. when the clearway is also the end of the stopway.

Question 69

What is the definition of the second segment?

Answer 69

The second segment is from gear retraction to level acceleration altitude, which is normally a minimum of 400’ above the takeoff surface. In this segment the gear is retracted, the flaps are in the takeoff position and the aircraft is set in takeoff power. The speed is equal to V2 (initial climb out speed) and the required minimum gross gradient of climb, in a two engined aircraft, is 2.4%. The net flight path gradient is the gross flight path gradient reduced by 0.8%, i.e. 1.6%. Conditions:  Landing gear is retracted  The flaps are still in the takeoff position  The speed is V2  The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4%  The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6%; and  Takeoff power is still set.

Question 70

In what situation is MCRIT at its lowest value

Answer 70

When the aircraft is at high altitude – as cold temperature means that LSS is lower than at sea level

Question 71

If climbing at constant Mach No. What happens to TAS and LSS?

Answer 71

LSS will decrease with a decrease in temperature so at a constant Mach number the TAS will decrease in the climb

Question 72

What happens to MCRIT with decrease in weight?

Answer 72

A decrease in weight will increase MCRIT due to reduced angle of attack required

Question 73

How would an aircraft reach MCRIT for the lowest TAS?

Answer 73

When LSS is at its lowest value; i.e. for any range of options the highest and coldest option

Question 74

Effect of flap on drag

Answer 74

An increase in flap setting increases lift and drag

Question 75

Effect of flap on angle of attack at the point of stall

Answer 75

The use of flap increases the CL of the wing by increasing the camber, therefore a higher angle of attack can be reached before the stall when compared with a flapless wing. Flap increases the angle of attack at the stall.

Question 76

Boundary layer does what as airflow goes from laminar to turbulent?

Answer 76

The boundary layer thickens in depth and produces more drag and less lift

Question 77

Reason for all-moving tailplane?

Answer 77

Requirement of a large C of G range (large weight changes). Need to cover a large speed range Need to cope with large trim changes due to wing loading and trailing edge high lift devices without limiting the amount of elevator remaining. Need to reduce trim drag.

Question 78

What assists longitudinal stability? | Fin, Tailplane or dihedral

Answer 78

Tailplane

Question 79

To correct for a nose heavy aircraft with a variable incidence tailplane, the angle of incidence would ___________ and the leading edge would __________?

Answer 79

To balance this a downwards force, or a reduction in upwards force is required from the tailplane therefore the angle of incidence would decrease (maybe even negative) and the leading edge would lower

Question 80

In a roll to the right which spoiler extends and which aileron goes down?

Answer 80

Right spoiler extends and left aileron goes down.

Question 81

What is the definition of Part 121?

Answer 81

Part 121 is to prescribe the operating requirements for air operations of aeroplanes that have a passenger seating configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or a payload capacity of more than 3410 kg, carried out by the holder of an Airline Air Operator Certificate issued under Part 119 of the Rules

Question 82

Instrument rating currency requirement?

Answer 82

Every 12 months IFR renewal check 6 hours of instrument time every 3 months, 2 of which must be instrument flight time (including approach of each type – precision / non precision)

Question 83

Documents required on an international flight?

Answer 83

121.855 Documents to be carried (a) Each holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that the following documents are carried on each individual air operation— (1) details of the operational flight plan; and (2) NOTAM and aeronautical information service briefing documentation appropriate to the operation; and (3) meteorological information appropriate to the operation; and (4) the load manifest; and (5) notification of dangerous goods; and (6) copies of the relevant flight guide charts and plates; and (7) in the case of a regular air transport service, a route guide covering each route flown and alternate aerodromes that may be used. (b) The holder of an air operator certificate shall ensure that separate copies of the documents referred to in paragraph (a)(7) are available for each pilot performing flight crew duties on the flight.  C of A  AFM  Aircraft Registration  Flight Crew Licences  Valid Maintenance. Release  Load Sheet  Flight records  List of Crew & Passengers  Cargo bills of lading and manifests  List of disposable stores and spare parts  Route Guide (if scheduled)  Flight Plan  Met information  Flight Guide  Dangerous goods notification

Question 84

How far out can an ETA be before you must tell ATC?

Answer 84

2 minutes (part 91.412)

Question 85

When can you descend below MDA on circling approach?

Answer 85

When cloud base and visibility permit and the approach and landing can be made using normal manoeuvres

Question 86

If you go IMC circling downwind? Do you execute the MAP for the “Active” runway or “approach” runway?

Answer 86

Execute the missed approach procedure for the approach that you were on It is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome where the pilot will establish the aircraft on the missed approach track. Different patterns will be required to establish the aircraft on the prescribed missed approach course depending on its position at the time that visual reference is lost.

Question 87

What separation is provided by between IFR and VFR traffic in class C and D airspace?

Answer 87

Class C = IFR separation from IFR, VFR and SVFR | Class D = IFR from IFR and SVFR but from VFR only at night

Question 88

Explain ETOPS 10 lines or less with respect to part 121

Answer 88

ETOPS stands for Extended Range Twin Engine Operations and is the term used to govern regulations and procedures pertinent to twin engine commercial aircraft operating on extended global or domestic routes with poor off track alternates. The basic premise regarding this topic is related to the concept of redundancy and failures of the powerplant/hull. The basis of ETOPS is the improved engine reliability shown by new age aircraft. The rules state that any aircraft with two engines must be capable of flying to an adequate airport where it can land safely within 90 minutes at normal cruise speed or 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed (in still air conditions). It the aircraft can not comply with the above regulation – it is then required to become an ETOPS rated aircraft. With an ETOPS rating, this rule is extended up to 90mins, 120mins, 138mins and 180mins Individual aircraft must be specifically authorised. As new aircraft are introduced to the fleet a proving period is implemented at 120 min before a higher classification is considered. Air New Zealand currently operates B737 on 120min ETOPs and B767 on 180 min ETOPs. However when suitable alternates exist for 120 min ETOPS it may be advantageous to operate to this criteria as opposed to 180 min. These advantages are in the area of MEL dispatch and minimum fuel reserves to be carried. The ETOPS times stipulated simply determine the single engine time in still air from which an aircraft must remain from a suitable alternate.

Question 89

If you are under ATC speed control, how close to the assigned airspeed must you fly?

Answer 89

Within 10 knots of speed assigned by ATC

Question 90

If the marker beacons are NOTAM U/S for an ILS; what minima can you go to?

Answer 90

To ILS minima as long as alternate fix altitudes are nominated on the IAC or NOTAM and are used for altitude checks. NZ60!!!! Erroneous Glideslope

Question 91

What errors does the mach meter NOT suffer from?

Answer 91

Compressibility and density

Question 92

When will TCAS II not give an RA

Answer 92

Below 1000ft

Question 93

If GPS satellites orbit the earth every 12 hours, how does a GPS receiver know where to look when first turned on?

Answer 93

The GPS database carries an “Almanac” of satellite positions and any changes are transmitted to the GPS receiver by means of Service messages

Question 94

How is AC voltage Regulated?

Answer 94

Through use of a CSD (Constant Speed Drive)

Question 95

How do you control AC current?

Answer 95

Through a Generator Control Unit (GCU)

Question 96

Why do we heat fuel?

Answer 96

To prevent fuel freezing due to low ambient temperatures

Question 97

Purpose of bonding regarding static charges?

Answer 97

To ensure that all sections of the airframe have the same potential and therefore prevent arcing

Question 98

How do you calculate distance on an arc? (Formula)

Answer 98

(DME x ARC degrees) / 60 Which means 60/DME = Degrees per mile or remember ``` DME Degree per mile 30 2 20 3 15 4 12 5 10 6 9 7 8 8 7 9 6 10 ```

Question 99

Your on a 10 DME Arc with 30 degrees to go. How many track miles remain on the ark?

Answer 99

5nm = (10x30)/60

Question 100

How much Cross wind is there on RWY 34 if the wind is 010/30

Answer 100

15kts 30 degrees off heading = 50% xwind 45 degrees off heading = 70% xwind 60 degrees off heading = 90% xcwind

Question 101

AT 290KTS, HOW FAR WILL YOU TRAVEL IN 58 MINUTES?

Answer 101

280.333333 nm

Question 102

AFTER TRAVELLING 128NM IN 58 MINUTES WHAT IS YOUR GROUNDSPEED?

Answer 102

132.4 nm

Question 103

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C | Vat

Answer 103

A <91 B 91 - 120 C 121 - 140

Question 104

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C Final approach speed? (range)

Answer 104

A 70 - 100 B 85 - 130 C 115 - 160

Question 105

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C | Max speed for Circling?

Answer 105

A 100 B 135 C 180

Question 106

Speeds for CAT : A, B ,C | Max Missed Approach Speed?

Answer 106

A 110 B 150 C 240

Question 107

Speeds for CAT : A, B , C | Initial approach / reversal speed

Answer 107

A 90 - 150 (110)* B 120 - 180 (140)* C 160 - 240 * Max speed for reversal

Question 108

What is the Max IAS for holding? At which altitudes? Normal and Turbulent air....

Answer 108

Normal Turbulent 14,000 below 230 (170) 280 (170) 14-20,000 240 280 M 0.8 20-34,000 265 280 M 0.8 34,000 above M 0.83 M 0.83

Question 109

Circling area for CAT A, B, C , D

Answer 109

A 1.68 B 2.66 C 4.2 D 5.28

Question 110

What is a hung start?

Answer 110

A hung start is when normal lightoff occurs but the engine fails to reach idle rpm. You will see an EGT (exhaust gas temp) rise, but the rpm will hang. A hung start could be the sign of a weak starter.

Question 111

What are the Takeoff minima?

Answer 111

The default take-off minima for any aerodrome in New Zealand is 300ft ceiling and 1500m visibility unless otherwise prescribed in the AIPNZ. Minima below 0ft-800m is only available to operators certificated under Civil Aviation Rule Parts 121, 125 or 129. OPS below 800m visibility available to operators authorised by CAA New Zealand only and subject to availability of serviceable secondary power supply and automatic switch‐over