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Tech Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Cat B speeds?

Circling area?

A 
Vat 91-120
IAF 120-180
FAF 85-130
circling 135
Missed approach 150
Reversal procedure 140kts

2.66NM (300ft obst. clearance)

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2
Q

Cat C speeds?

Circling area?

A 
Vat 121-140
IAF 160-240
FAF 115-160
Circling 180
missed approach 240
4.2NM (400ft obst. clearance)
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3
Q

Speed and time limitations on holding

A

Below FL140 230IAS (170kts CAT A&B) (1min hold)
FL140 - FL200 240IAS (1.5min hold)
Above FL200 265IAS

Above the highest MSA in turbulence and with ATC permission the lesser or 280kts or M0.8

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4
Q

Qualifying aircraft requirements to use reduced take off minima?
What are the take off minima?
Not qualifying?
limitations to the take-off requirements?

A

Chapter 15 Part 91 MOS

Qualifying multi-engine aeroplane means an IFR aeroplane that is:
(a) either:
(i) a multi-engine jet-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 2 722 kg;
or
(ii) a multi-engine turboprop-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than
5 700 kg that is:
(A) operated by at least 2 pilots; or
(B) operated by 1 pilot and fitted with operative auto-feather; and
(b) in the event of an engine failure — capable of maintaining terrain clearance until
reaching the minimum height for IFR flight.

Able to meet climb gradient requirements
min 800m vis
or 550m if edge lighting is Max 60m intervals and centreline lighting or markings. If no ATC, must be day and at an airport that requires radios

The take-off minima mentioned in this section apply to a take-off that:

(a) is not a low-visibility take-off; and
(b) is not conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane.
(2) The take-off minima are:
(a) a cloud ceiling of 300 ft; and
(b) visibility of 2 000 m.

A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off:
(a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or
(b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to
land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not:
(i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able
to conduct at the aerodrome; or
(ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

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5
Q

What are the minima and requirements for approaches?
NPA
and
PA

A

Part 91 MOS
15.09
Landing minima requirements
(1) Landing minima obtained from an instrument approach chart must be selected in
accordance with:
(a) the specified aircraft performance category; and
(b) aircraft LNAV and VNAV capabilities.
(2) Landing minima must meet the requirements of section 15.10.

Selected minima must never be blow the chart value, AFM or company document(exposition/ops-manual)

15.10
Precision Approach Procedure:
800 m — (ii) the approach lighting system normally available beyond 420 m from the runway threshold is inoperative;
runway threshold is inoperative;
1 200 m — (iv) the approach lighting system normally available beyond 210 m from the runway threshold is inoperative;
1 500 m — but only if the approach lighting system normally available for the
runway is inoperative;

1.5x times either the RVR or the visibility specified on the instrument approach
chart for the IAP being conducted — but only if:
(i) a lighting failure has occurred on a runway at a controlled aerodrome; and
(ii) doubled spacing of runway edge lights results.

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6
Q

What is the missed approach climb gradient?

A

2.5%

provides min 100ft clearance

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7
Q

When can we use the 0.8km visibility criteria?

A

Minima for cat 1 can be used except
1.5km required if HIAL NA
1.2KM required unless:
Aircraft manually flown with FD to DA or with AP to DA coupled to LOC and GS or GLS
Aircraft has warning system for primary attitude and heading reference system failure
High intensity runway edge lighting available
800m required If RVR information in threshold NA

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8
Q

How would we determine this visibility is present?

A

+

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9
Q

Using the attached ILS chart please brief me the approach as if conducting a multi crew
operation?

A

-

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10
Q

What engines are fitted to the aircraft we operate?

A

Prat and Whitney Canada PW100 Series

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11
Q

Describe the emergency decent procedure on your aircraft?

A

Flap up
Gear down
power as required (idle)
Nose down 20degrees

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12
Q

Which ports do we operate to?

A

14 domestic major cities
40 regional cities

Sydney and Melbourne hub ports (Eastern)

Sun state - Brisbane, Cairns and Adelaide (southern)

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13
Q

What is the voltage of the electrical system on your current aircraft?

A

28V system
with a 24V battery and a
28V 70amp alternator

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14
Q

What engines are fitted to the Dash 8 200/300/400?

How many seats

A

Q200 -PW123C 36seats
Q300 -PW123E 50seats
Q400 -PW150A 74seats

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15
Q

Describe the air con system in the aircraft you fly?

A

Direct Ram air.
Heating system.

  • Cold air flows into the shroud through the front stub pipe. The cold air goes around the muffler and gets
    hot. The hot air then flows out through the rear stub-pipe and into the cabin heating system.
  • When either heating lever is moved to on, it closes the bypass valve and the hot air moves through the wing into the cabin.
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16
Q

When can you use the special alternate weather minima at certain aerodromes around Australia?

A

Double asterisk **
Only at some airports as stated on the chart.
Not available if:
Local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available
or
Airport control services are not available.

Must have dual ILS/VOR approach capability.
1. duplicated LOC and
2. duplicated GP and
3. duplicated VOR and
either:
a. dup. DME or 
b. dup. GNSS or 
c. single DME + single GNSS
17
Q

What aircraft do you have the most recent experience on? And what category is it?

A

Da42 Cat A/B

18
Q

How is the threshold crossing speed determined?

A

+

19
Q

What is the minimum en-route obstacle clearance?

A

+

20
Q

What is the circling area for your category aircraft?

A 
Cat A : 1.68 (300ft)
Cat B : 2.66 (300ft)
Cat C : 4.2 (400ft)
Cat D : 5.28 (400ft)
Cat E : 6.94 (500ft)
21
Q

When must you conduct a missed approach?

A

Missed approach requirements:

  1. Not visual at DA/MDA/MAPT
  2. RAIM warning or loss of RAIM after the IAF
  3. outside tolerance
  4. Failure of an aid or suspect aid and bellow MSA
  5. Lost visual reference during circling.
22
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation required on your aircraft?

A

+

23
Q

What would be your actions, if any, if you received a RAIM Warning message after passing the initial approach fix?

A

Missed approach requirements:

  1. Not visual at DA/MDA/MAPT
  2. RAIM warning or loss of RAIM after the IAF
  3. outside tolerance
  4. Failure of an aid or suspect aid and bellow MSA
  5. Lost visual reference during circling.
24
Q

What is the take off separation required on your aircraft?

A
  1. Crossed the upwind threshold
  2. Commenced a turn
  3. RWY longer than 1800m they must be airborne and at least 1800m ahead
  4. <7000kg flowed by <2000kg and slower , 600m ahead of the following aircraft
  5. both <2000kg airborne and 600m ahead of the point of lift off.
  6. preceding landing aircraft is vacated the Runway
  7. aircraft on another runway have crossed or stopped short of crossing runway.

ATC may give a clearance in anticipation that the prescribed separation will exist at the time that your rake-off roll is commenced.

25
Q

When can you descend below the MDA/DA of an instrument approach?

Descent below circling MDA?

A
  1. Visual reference can be maintained
  2. Minima requirements adhered to (vis)
  3. Continuously in a position where landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres to the touchdown zone.

Circling:
1. Remain within the circling area
2. Maintain visibility along the flight path not less than specified on the chart
3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment
and:
a. By Day not less than the minimum obstacle clearance for the aircraft category
b. By day and night only from a position on downwind base or final that allows for normal rates of descent for the aircraft type.

26
Q

At what speeds (Vat/Vref) must your aircraft cross the threshold?

A

Vat is the indicated speed at the threshold which is equal to Vso x1.3 or Vs1g x1.23 Landing config at max landing weight.
If both Vso and Vs1g are available then the higher resulting speed must be used.

27
Q

What is the maximum error allowable for your aircraft altimeters?

A

60ft IFR or 75ft to first location for test
100ft VFR or 110ft above 3300ft.
unserviceable Alt must be placarded and MR endorsed

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