Tech Questions Flashcards by Gavin Shaw

How are the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) indications selected?

Push the STATUS display switch on the display select panel, then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page

Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the AIR synoptic key from the menu page

Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page

Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key

D Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following represents the aeroplane performance in a VNAV descent, after the top of descent?

The FMC creates the descent path with a deceleration at the speed transition altitude VNAV plans a speed target 10 knots below the transition speed to allow for the unknown headwinds

The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV SPD through out the descent. The thrust controls speed in `VNAV SPD and pitch controls speed in VNAV PTH

Above the deceleration point if the speed falls more than 15knots below target speed the FMC changes the pitch mode annunciation from VNAV SPD to VNAV PTH and the FMC message THRUST REQUIRED displays

The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD

D The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How is the hydraulic system synoptic display selected?

Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the INFO synoptic key from the menu page

Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

Push the hydraulic synoptic display switch on the display panel

Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

D Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the first three memory items of the ‘CABIN ALTITUDE’ non-normal checklist?

Don oxygen masks Establish crew communications On passenger oxygen

Establish crew communications Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent

Don oxygen masks Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent

Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate

D Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the EICAS annunciation D-TO 2 +36C displayed in green as a thrust reference mode indicate?

Derate take off thrust, derate 2 climb thrust selected

Derate two take off thrust, derate climb thrust mode

Assumed temperature derated take off thrust

Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust

D Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Upon activating the CHKL OVRD key with a checklist displayed on the ECL, what happens?

All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

A YES NO indication appears to confirm that the checklist is to be overridden

All checklist items turn cyan, CHECKLIST RESET indicator appears

All checklist items turn green, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

A All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Listed below are failures or abnormal situations which will cause the flaps and slats to automatically operate in the secondary mode. Identify the one that is INCORRECT

Flap or slat load relief has occurred

Flap or slat disagree

Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred

A Flap or slat load relief has occurred

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement about the wing anti-ice system is true?

If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing

Wing anti -ice is inhibited when the aeroplane is on the ground by ground/air logic

Automatic wing anti-ice operation is available on the ground above 60knots and in flight

In flight, when the WING ANTI ICE selector is in Auto the wing anti ice system on each wing is powered any time TAT is below 10C

A If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the correct indication of a properly entered emergency access code in the flight deck access keypad?

Entry produces an EICAS caution message and illuminates a red light on keypad

The entry produces an EICAS advisory message and illuminates a green light on the keypad

Entry sound a flight deck chime

Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad

D Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Following the removal of a flight crew mask , how can the headset boom microphone system be reselected?

Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector

Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector

Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

A Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Engine anti ice must be ON during all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. What is the exception to this limitation?

When engine run up is carried out at 15 minute intervals

When aircraft de-icing is immediately planned or has recently taken place

When temperature is below -40degC

When engine anti-icing has been set to AUTO

C When temperature is below -40degC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the correct answer regarding the EEC Alternate mode?

Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode is indicated by the EICAS advisory message ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)

Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward

The Auto throttles disconnect whenever the EEC automatically switches to the alternate mode

The alternate mode schedule (N1 schedule ) provides somewhat less thrust than the normal mode for the same thrust lever position.

B Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What precautions should be observed by the crew members if a halon fire extinguisher is to be discharged in the flight deck area?

Wear smoke goggles to prevent any liquefied spray entering the eyes

No precautions necessary - its and inert gas

Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected

Wear oxygen mask set to 100%

C Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which lateral mode(s) of the AFDS does the BANK LIMIT selector on the mode control panel (MCP) operate?

All modes

LNAV

HDG HOLD

HDG SEL or TRK SEL

D HDG SEL or TRK SEL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following messages in a particular non-normal checklist, indicates that additional, related checklist items requiring completion will be found elsewhere?

CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

CHECKLIST COMPLETE

CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN

CHECKLIST INCOMPLETE

A CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At what IAS does the auto-throttle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?

100 Kts

80 Kts

64 Kts

C 80 Kts

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following solid round symbol (display in Amber) indicate- O +02 ↓

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 200 feet below descending >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm

D Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the memory item of the ‘Aborted Engine Start’ non-normal checklist?

Engine fire switch (affected side) ———-Override and Pull

ENG START Lever (affected side) —————-OFF

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———-RUN

C FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement about the APU fire extinguishing system is correct?

In normal operation on the ground with both engines off, an APU overheat signal from either APU detection loop causes an automatic APU shutdown

There are two APU fire extinguisher bottles. When APU fire switch is pulled rotating the switch in either direction discharges one of the bottles

On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge

The only APU fire bottle discharge mechanism available for in flight and ground use is located on the cockpit overhead panel

C On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What pressurises the centre hydraulic system?

Two air driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps

Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2

Two electrically driven primary pumps and two air-driven demand pumps (AMPs)

Two engine driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps

B Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

On a go around when a valid missed approach path exists, and with Autopilot Engaged when does LNAV activate?

LNAV automatically activates at 400 feet radio altitude

LNAV activates at 200 feet barometric altitude.

It does not engage until ARMEd and above 50 feet radio altitude

LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude

D LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When will Fuel Balance operations be inhibited?

When one or both centre pumps are ON

When the centre tanks are empty

When both centre pumps are OFF

When the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running

A When one or both centre pumps are ON

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Identify the limitations that applies to the use of VNAV and/ or LNAV?

LNAV will not sequence waypoints if more than 18nm off the active route and not on an offset route

When operating the autopilot in the polar region in LNAV the TRUE position on the heading reference switch must be used

VNAV use prohibited with MAG heading selected North or South of 70 degrees Latitude

Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected

D Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

With WX-T selected, the weather radar will detect turbulence within precipitation at all ND display ranges. Within what range of the aeroplane will it display such turbulence?

40 NM

60 NM

100 NM

20 NM

A 40 NM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during normal engine start? All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated. CAC operation is inhibited initial two minutes after the first engine is running using the APU and 3 minutes after when using external power for engine start During start using the APU, only one CAC on each side runs to maximize the system efficiency during the start cycle Only one CAC runs for an engine start using three external power sources in order to maximize the power available to start the first engine

A All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.

Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed? Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

D Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED ????

Which electrical mode (bus) if any , is energized when a single forward external power source is illuminates an AVAIL light? Ground Service Ground Handling Towing Power Standby Power

B Ground Handling

How can the status of the aircraft doors be illustrated? Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page Push the info display switch on the Display select panel and select the Door synoptic Push door synoptic display switch on the display select panel Use the display select switch to transfer to the synoptic from lower display unit to either outboard display unit

A Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page

Where is the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel located Inside the left forward fuselage external power receptacles In the right main gear well In the main gear well left hand side looking forward In the nose wheel well

D In the nose wheel well

How many smoke detection zones exist in each cargo compartment and what level of smoke detection is required to initiate a fire warning on the flight deck? 3 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning 4 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning 4 detection zones, smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning

B 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning

What are the memory items of the 'Dual Eng Fail/Stall' non-normal checklist? RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH AIRSPEED…..Above 280 knots Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run AIRSPEED…..Above 270 knots

C Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second

Above approximately what altitude are the flap maneuvering speeds (for flap retraction or extension) not displayed? 15000 feet 10000 feet 20000 feet 8000 feet

C 20000 feet

The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following square symbol (displayed in RED) indicate? [] -03 ↑ Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

A Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm

With heading reference switch in NORM when the aircraft enters the polar regions True North is automatically referenced for which of the following? HDG HOLD and TRACK HOLD Only LNAV Only HDG HOLD, HDG SEL, TRK HOLD, TRK SEL All AFDS cruise roll modes

D All AFDS cruise roll modes

Which statement correctly describes a function of the VHF Communication System? When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio In the event of an electrical power loss, the right VHF radio and the left TCP continue to operate on standby power Only two VHF radios can operate in the DATA mode at one time Each VHF radio is controlled only through its respective TCP

A When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio

On which Display Units (DU’s) can the Control Display Unit (CDU) be displayed? Only the Lower MFD The F/O's Right inboard DU and the lower Centre DU Any of the MFDs The Captains Left inboard DU and the Lower Center DU

C Any of the MFDs

How is low engine oil quantity displayed on the secondary engine display? Quantity displayed in white, LO shown in black on a white background LO displayed in amber, quantity shown in amber inside amber box LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground OIL LO displayed in Amber

C LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground

Following an engine fire, the first extinguisher bottle has been discharged. This did not extinguish the fire. When should the second bottle be discharged? Immediately After 10 seconds After 30 seconds After 20 seconds

C After 30 seconds

During takeoff with VNAV armed, when will VNAV activate? 400 feet AGL 50 feet RA 200 feet AFE At acceleration height

A 400 feet AGL

On a 3 degree approach, WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height? 15 feet AGL 50 feet AGL 100 feet AGL 200 feet AGL

C 100 feet AGL

What is the turbulent air penetration speed (Severe Turbulence) below 25,000' feet? 260 Kts 280 Kts 300 Kts 290 Kts

D 290 Kts

How is the landing gear held in the UP position after retraction? Uplocks Hydraulic pressure Over-centre struts A locked door structure

A Uplocks

During a cruise descent, the auto-throttle sets a calculated thrust value to achieve approximately what rate of descent? 1250 fpm 750 fpm 1500 fpm 1000 fpm

A 1250 fpm

What is 'shoring' when used in relation to cargo loading? Locking containers together in a hold so that they fill the space available and support each other Using a cargo net to restrain miscellaneous cargo items Method of restraining cargo in Forward, Aft, Vertical and Lateral directions Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load

D Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load

Which of the following is a correct statement about alternate pitch trim switches? They should not be used with the autopilot engaged or during stall or overspeed protection maneuvers They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer They are linked to the stabilizer trim control modules (STOM) via control cables and then mechanically to the stabilizer They do not disconnect the autopilot when the levers are moved with the autopilot engaged, but do move the horizontal stabilizer

B They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer

On a 900 mile route, which page is displayed if the DEP/ARR key is pressed in flight at less than 400 miles from the ORIGIN airfield ? DEP/ARR INDEX ARRIVALS for the origin airport ARRIVALS for the destination airfield DEPARTURES for the origin airfield

B ARRIVALS for the origin airport

The density of the fuel being loaded must be between 0.7549 KG/L (6.3LB/GAL) and 0.8507 KG/L (7.1LB/GAL) Why? It could cause the fuel scavenge system to operate improperly It will be outside the limits for the loadsheet calculation It affects the maximum permitted main tanks lateral fuel imbalance of 680KG (1500LB) It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads

D It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads

Which of the following is a characteristic of an Alternate Action switch? It may have a number of alternate positions - ON; AUTO; OFF A flow bar will be visible when ON It is spring loaded to the extend position When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON

D When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON

Anytime the passenger oxygen deploys. Which one of the following actions also occurs automatically? The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position The aircraft transmits emergency squawk The passenger seatbelts signs are Armed regardless of switch position. The non smoking signs are illuminated regardless of switch position

A The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position

Which EICAS annunciation indicates that the engine anti-ice system is powered (ON)? TAI displayed in green WAI displayed in green EAI displayed in green TAI displayed in amber (orange)

C EAI displayed in green

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Momentary Action switch? It is sprung-loaded to the extend position When pushed in flush with the panel it is ON A flow bar may be visible when ON Bottom half of the switch may indicate systems state PRESS FAIL OFF

A It is sprung-loaded to the extend position

The Hydraulic Centre Demand Pump will operate under which one of the following conditions? When flaps or slats are in motion From commencing the take off run until the gear is up and the gear doors closed In the descent below 2,000 feet until gear is locked down, trucks tilted and gear doors closed On the ground for five minutes after an engine has been started

A When flaps or slats are in motion

Which of the following will cause the speed brake lever to be driven aft from the ARMED position and spoiler extension to occur on landing? On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are in reverse Both thrust levers are not in the take-off range regardless of main gear position On the ground and both thrust levers at idle regardless of main gear truck position On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range

D On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range

From which source does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) receive its attitude information? Left IRS Standby ADRS Right IRS Internal Inertial sensors

D internal inertial | sensors

What does moving the control wheel pitch trim switch do in normal mode when airborne? Resets the elevators to relieve any control loads Changes the trim reference airspeed Resets the stabilizer to cruise speed Directly move the stabilizer

B Changes the trim reference airspeed

Upon completion of a non normal checklist, certain items have been removed to a later referenced normal checklist. How is this illustrated on the non-normal check list? CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR TRANSFERRED ITEMS CHECKLIST ITEMS HAVE BEEN DEFERRED CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

D CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

What does placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position in an unpowered aeroplane do? Initiates the right (R) CCR start up sequence and after the R CCR start up is complete, energizes the Ground Handling Mode Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode Allows the APU to be started and some annunciator lights are illuminated Initiates the start up sequence for both CCRs and after the start up sequence is complete, energizes the On Ground Mode

B Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode

What is the function of the Flight Deck Overhead Door Vent? It opens to protect the fuselage against excessive negative pressure differential Its is used for the emergency egress when the aircraft is on the ground It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions It opens to protect the fuselage against an excessive positive differential

C It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Audio control Panel ACP? The BOOM only switch selects either the oxygen mask or headset boom mike The minimum number of audio receiver switches in use at one time on any single ACP is limited to 3 The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position Pushing the CAB transmitter selects switch twice within one second places a priority call to all cabins stations

C The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position

What is the first memory item of the 'Airspeed Unreliable' non-normal checklist? A/P Disconnect Switch….Push Disconnect Autothrottle switch F/D Switches (both)…..OFF Check pitch attitude and thrust for phase of flight

A A/P Disconnect Switch….Push

How does the EXIT HOLD facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold when executed? Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned Direct to the next waypoint On selected aircraft heading On the current aircraft heading

A Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned

What is the stated minimum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing? 2. 75 degrees 3. 25 degrees 2. 5 degrees 3. 0 degrees

C 2.5 degrees

During Take Off with LNAV armed when will it activate? Above 400 feet radio altitude and at course intercept LNAV engages immediately on lift off Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route Above 400 feet barometric altitude and with 2.5 nm of an active leg

C Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route

Which is the most applicable limitation that applies to the aircraft altimeters? Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet The standby altimeter meets the accuracy requirement for RVSM Capt and F/Os altimeter must agree within 50 feet with Standard pressure set, at all stages of flight Altimeter are subject to position error

A Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component limitation for the aeroplane? 20 Kts 25 Kts 15 Kts 10 Kts

C 15 Kts

With out LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and a glide path angle of 2.5 degree, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height? 50 feet agl 100 feet agl 15 feet agl 200 feet agl

B 100 feet agl

Which colour is used to display the most intense weather radar returns? Red White Magenta Green

A Red

What is the BARO minimums indicator in the HUD? It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale always on view It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed Its is a green pointer line, left of the altitude scale, when BARO minimums are displayed It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when RA Minimums are displayed

B It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed

The Left and Right hydraulic systems are virtually identical. What does the Left system power? Left Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right Wing Spoiler Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Left Wing Spoiler Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Landing Gear Actuation

C Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers

The MENU key on the tuning control panel (TCP) shows that a SYS POWER selection key is available. Pressing this key shows a SYS POWER page for which system? For the GPWS For the L, R and Center TCPs For the L and R HF radios For the Transponder and Weather Radars

D For the Transponder and Weather Radars

What is the stated maximum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing? 3. 0 Degrees 3. 25 Degrees 2. 75 Degrees 2. 5 Degrees

B 3.25 Degrees

The engines can only be started by the auto-start system. Under what circumstance does load shed occur during engine start? Load shed only occurs if the AC Packs are left on Load shed may occur with low output from the APU generator Load shed occurs with only two GPUs available for starting. (Ground Power Units) Load shed always occurs during start

D Load shed always occurs during start

What is the procedure for the use of the Flight Deck Overhead Door as an emergency exit? Remove protective cover, pull vent handle down, open panel inwards, throw rope out Remove protective cover, rotate door handle, push door outwards, access and deploy descent devise Remove cover, push vent handle up, push panel outwards, through descent devise Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise

D Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise

What is the primary and backup power source for the brakes? Large Motor Controller and APU Battery The 115V AC System and Standby Battery Primary 235V AC System and Emergency Battery 28V DC bus system and main battery

D 28V DC bus system and main battery

How many attempts will the auto-start system make for an in-flight start? 3 Attempts, 30 secs apart 2 Full cycles Continuous start attempts Maximum allowed by the Duty Cycle

C Continuous start attempts

What is the minimum permitted oil temperature for engine start? - 25 degC - 30 degC - 10 degC - 40 degC

D -40 degC

The APU can be started on the ground with no fuel pumps operating, and in flight up to what altitude? 14000 feet 12000 feet 22000 feet 10000 feet

A 14000 feet

The approach Reference and Navigation sources annunciation in the top left hand corner of the PFD consists of 3 lines of data. It displays approach data on the first two lines What information is displayed on the third line? Identifies the source that is programmed into the FMC Identifies the source used for LNAV Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale Is used only for instrument lading system (ILS) approaches

C Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale

Following a complete loss of FMC electrical power, what information requires re-entry? POS INIT. PERF INIT DATA RTE DEPARTURE

B PERF INIT DATA

The Ground handling Mode is already active with the aeroplane parked. The Ground Service mode is then activated. What additional significant electrical loads become available? Cargo heat and limited hydraulics Limited cabin systems and lighting Flight Deck equipment, controls and indications PECs (both loops)

B Limited cabin systems and lighting

During the exterior inspection, what is the maximum permitted light coating of frost on the lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel? 1 mm 0 mm 2 mm 3 mm

D 3 mm

During a ground start, which one of the following malfunctions will cause the autostart to abort the start? Hung Start Hot Start No EGT rise The Loss of both starters

D The Loss of both starters

What determines the pack outlet temperature? The master cabin temperature controller The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature The temperature zone requiring the warmest temperature The average demand of all temperature zones

B The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature

Name a method that uses beams under dense cargo in order to provide a larger effective cargo foot print? Shoring Load support and restrain Palletising Linear loading

A Shoring

The fuel balance system is used to correct a lateral fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks. Which of the following best describes its operation? It automatically operates the fuel crossfeed valve to transfer fuel between the main tanks It makes use of the higher pressure generated by the centre tank fuel pump to transfer between the main tanks It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks Operation is automatic and requires no pilot imput

C It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks

What are the maximum Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations? 20, 20 and 25 knots respectively 20, 15 and 25 knots respectively 15, 15 and 20 knots respectively 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively

D 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively

Which statement about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is true? TAP continuously monitors engine data to determine the thrust level from each engine TAP is only available in the normal and secondary flight control modes TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine TAP automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw associated with an engine failure at high thrust settings

C TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

Ground service personnel are unfamiliar with the aircraft and require the aeroplane to be powered to enable operation of the wing fueling panel. Which minimum level electrical mode will be necessary? Ground handling mode On-ground battery only mode Towing mode Ground Service mode

A Ground handling mode

How is the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) TOO LOW GEAR alert inhibited? Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the landing gear panel Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD Press the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the GPWS key from the menu, then select gear override (GEAR OVRD)

C Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD

What is the electrical backup power source with loss of all electrical power to the captain’s and first officers flight instruments in flight? RPDUs Hot Battery Bus Emergency bus (Direct service) Ram Air Turbine(RAT)

D Ram Air Turbine(RAT)

The AFDS provides autopilot guidance using Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) which statement about IAN procedures is true? Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC IAN approaches can be used only in GP and LOC modes IAN supports automatic approaches and landings to CAT11 approach minimums for approaches with FMC generated glide path The LOC or the FAC mode cannot capture selected lateral flight path if the intercept angle exceeds 60 degrees

A Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC

A list of equipment faults that require Minimum Equipment List (MEL) reference for dispatch can be displayed how? Select the SYSTEMS page of the EFB to view the equipment faults Check the Ground database via the EFB Select STATUS message page in an MFD Check the CDU datalink status display

C Select STATUS message page in an MFD

Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding requirement for Route Mode to be automatically selected on the VSD whist on the ground? VNAV armed A departure runway has been selected An active flight plan has been entered LNAV is armed

A VNAV armed

What is the nose wheel steering range (in either direction from neutral) when using the tiller? 90 degrees 70 degrees 80 degrees 40 degrees

B 70 degrees

The weather radar should not be operated in a hangar or within what distance of any fuel spill? 15.25 metres 100 metres 75 feet 125 feet

A 15.25 metres

During ground starts the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start when? Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation Loss of one starter, or no oil pressure rise Hung start, no EGT rise or no oil pressure rise Loss of both starters, compressor stall, or no N1 rotation

A Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation

What is the first memory item of the Engine Limit Exceed L or R non normal checklist? Fuel control switch affected side…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..RETARD Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side)…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..IDLE

C Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side…..Confirm…..OFF

Icing idle is selected when engine anti-ice is ON. Why does the EEC select approach idle when flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, OR the landing gear is selected DOWN? To decrease acceleration time for go-around So the engines will produce maximum anti-icing bleed air To prevent idle thrust asymmetry To prevent the engine Thrust Ramping

A To decrease acceleration time for go-around

The engine auto-relight function is activated on the ground and in-flight under which of the following circumstances? Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN For in-flight starts, auto-relight makes continuous start attempts until either the engine either starts or the pilot aborts the start attempt. Operates continuously whenever flaps are out of up and when engine anti-icing is ON or AUTO Both systems are activated for in-flight starts

A Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

What is the primary source of power for the Flight Control Electronic’s? Directly from the Mains Battery The Main 235v AC System 28v DC distribution system Three PMGs

D Three PMGs

Which statement is correct concerning ATC route modification clearances received via datalink? ATC datalink logon is automatic to participating ATC facilities, as is the transfer to adjacent ATC facilities The FMC receives route modification clearances which can be transferred to the EFB for the confirmation and return to the FMC for acceptance When a clearance is of a type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page

C When a clearance is of a type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window.

When using the oxygen mask and goggles in a non normal situation, which of the following is a correct statement? 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed EMErGENCY position is selected when positive pressure is not needed 100%oxygen will provide a positive pressure in the mask and goggles to remove contaminates Normal position is sufficient to keep flight deck air concentrates out of the mask and goggles

A 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed

How many electric cabin air compressors (CACs) supply and regulate outside air to the aeroplane? 2 4 6 8

B 4

The VSD can display a FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line for approaches that have a designated approach angle. Choose the relevant correct answer? It has a 3 degree green reference during the final approach that extends to 15nm It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point It has a solid magenta line that extends 10nm for situational awareness that is anchored to the runway thresshold It indicates current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed

B It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point

MFD communications functions are used to control datalink features. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding a datalink feature? The MFD L or R button on the Glareshield panel and the MCP controls the COMM display Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by EICAS ATC A digital departure ATIS request can be made by selecting MANAGER, confirm the Airport code, select DEPARTURE, Then select SEND Datalink messages not used by the FMC can be displayed on the MFDs but not printed

B Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by an EICAS •ATC

How is the top-of-climb identified on the navigation display (ND)? Green circle labeled T/C Cyan (blue) Circle labeled TOC Green circle labeled TOC Cyan (blue) Circle labeled T/C

A Green circle labeled T/C

In normal mode, during high speed flight which control surfaces provide roll control? Ailerons Some spoilers Flaperons and Spoilers Flaperons and Ailerons

C Flaperons and Spoilers

What happens when the Alternate Gear switch is selected to Down? C2 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down. A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks C1 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down. Electric motors mechanically release the doors, the gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.

B A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks

When will the PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed on the PFD? Below 1500”RA and the gear is down Only when the gear is down Below 20,000' When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up

D When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up

Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed? Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay

B Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

With WINDOW HEAT switches ON, what surface protection is provided to the forward flight deck window? Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing Both interior and exterior surface anti fogging Interior surface anti icing, exterior surface anti fogging Both interior and exterior surface anti- icing.

A Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing

What flap settings can be used for automatic landings with one engine inoperative? Flaps 15,20 or 30 Flaps 20 or 25 Only Flaps 25 or 30 Only Flaps 20, 25 or 30

D Flaps 20, 25 or 30

During an approach in VNAV with VNAV PATH annunciated and at command speed, when does the reference thrust limit change from CRZ to GA? Selecting flaps 20 Extending the Landing Gear 1500' RA Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1

D Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1

Navigation Performance scale (NPS) Indicators are displayed on the PFD. Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning when the NPS is displayed? When TO/GA Roll Mode is ACTIVE When VNAV is ACTIVE When LNAV is armed or ACTIVE All of the above

D All of the above

What are the first three memory items of the FIRE ENG L,R non-normal checklist? Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Fuel control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..ROTATE A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF ThrustLever…..Confirm…..IDLE Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

D A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

Which of the following braking actions provide the greatest aircraft deceleration rate on a dry runway in the landing mode? Auto brakes selection 4 Auto brakes selection 1 Full pedal braking Auto brakes selection MAX AUTO

C Full pedal braking

What is the minimum height for engaging the autopilot after takeoff? 50 feet AGL 200 feet AGL 100 feet AGL 400 feet AGL

B 200 feet AGL

During an external inspection a warning horn is heard from the nose wheel well area. What does this indicate? The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally The IRS have been left ON with the aeroplane unmanned for more than 30 minutes The APU fire waring has been set off It is a low battery aural warning for ground crew

A The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally

Whilst on the ground during the take off run an RTO is initiated. Above what groundspeed will the RTO auto braking setting command maximum braking pressure? 90 Kts 85 Kts 80 Kts 75 Kts

B 85 Kts

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning weather radar operation? Turbulence due precipitation and Clear Air turbulence are both sensed by the weather radar The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude The system self tests only on initial start up Weather radar returns on the ND and mini map will show out to 640 nm range

B The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude

On the ground with both engines shutdown, what will cause the APU to shutdown and the extinguisher bottle to discharge? Can only be manually shutdown from the flight deck or nose wheel well An overheat detected in both loops A fire detected in both loops A fire detected in either loop

D A fire detected in either loop

What is the maximum time that Wing Anti-ice may be load shed during high electrical loads? It is never load shed at any time One Minute Ninety Seconds Thirty Seconds

D Thirty Seconds

On the PFD, what condition is indicated by an amber line through a FMA mode annunciator and a flight director bar removed? Is the Autopilot still engaged? The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data The applicable mode has reverted to CWS and autopilot remains engaged Autopilot disengages. Applicable mode has disengaged, but the autopilot remains engaged.

A The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data

How is an item identified as an open loop item on the electronic checklist (ECL)? Gray box to the left of the item Item appears in green text Black square box to the left of the item Green tick in the box to the left of item

A Gray box to the left of the item

There are a number of situations that will cause the speed brake lever to be automatically operated regardless of its initial position. Identify the one which is INCORRECTLY described Driven UP on take off with ground speed above 60 kts when either thrust lever is retarded to idle Driven to the DOWN position when in the air when eith thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range Driven to the DOWN position when on the ground and either thrust lever is moved to the take off range

C Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range

How is a closed loop item identified on the electronic checklist (ECL)? When the control is in the required position, the line item displays a green 'complete' indicator left of the line item. Closed loop line items can be distinguished from open loop line items by display of the closed loop indicator, a grey box located to the left of the line item. When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item. Closed loop conditional line items are followed by selections labelled YES and NO. The cursor is placed adjacent to the YES - NO line, requiring the pilot to use the cursor to select the appropriate answer.

C When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.

How is the TCAS airspace display mode selected? To set airspace above , normal or below press menu on the TCP, then select TCAS, then press the line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW To set airspace above, normal or below press the systems(SYS) display switch on the DSP, select TCAS, then choose the desired setting from menu Airspace above, normal or below is selected with the TCAS rotary selector on the transponder panel

B To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW

Where is the list of aircraft systems which are affected by load shedding shown? Individual equipment Caution messages The ECL Non Normal CL The Electric synoptic Individual “Load Shed” EICAS Message

C The Electric synoptic

What is the correct method for entering an along track waypoint 25 miles after MWH on the present route? MWH25 MWH/25 MWH/-25 MWH-25

B MWH/25

With the APU providing electrical power on the ground and both pack switches in Auto, how many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) will be operating? 3 1 2 4

C 2

Which of the following is correct concerning the landing gear and brakes? The normal nose wheel hydraulic system is powered by the right hydraulic system The alternate brake system is powered by the backup electrical power source The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units The aft axle of each main gear pivot in order to improve turning radius

C The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units

Which hydraulic system(s) provides power to the main landing gear actuation and nose gear steering? Right Left Either Left or Right via Nose Gear and Steering Isolation valves Centre

D Centre

What is the action required following an alert by cabin staff of smoke forming in the rear cabin? Immediately don oxygen masks, IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF Confirm by EICAS message Smokes Fire or Fumes Open ECL Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist, select Smoke Fire or Fumes removal Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes

D Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes

What is the maximum duration for which a fully charged remote battery will provide power to emergency lighting system? 20 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 10 minutes

D 10 minutes

How is low hydraulic reservoir quantity shown on the status display? QTY is displayed in white LO is displayed in white LO is displayed in amber (orange) QTY is displayed in amber (orange)

C LO is displayed in amber (orange)

With the Cargo Fire Arm switch selected to ARM during a non normal procedure where are the outflow positioned? Both valves Close to reduce through flow of air Out flow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air stability Forward Valve opens, Aft motors Closed to vent smoke via forward valve Forward Valve Closes, Aft motors Open to vent smoke via the rear valve

B outflow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air flow stability

The ram air turbine (RAT), when deployed, provides hydraulic power to the primary fight controls connected to which of the hydraulic system(s)? Centre Right Left Left, centre and right

A Centre

What cools the large motor power distribution? Conditioned air ducted from the passenger cabin The Integrated Cooling System (ICS) The Miscellaneous Cooling System The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)

D The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)

What is the function of the Nitrogen Generation system on board? To slightly pressurize the main, surge and centre fuel tanks to add fuel feed To overpressure the centre fuel tanks to empty first and also assist any fuel jettison rate To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability To maintain stable fuel temperatures to avoid ice crystals forming or fuel overheating

C To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability

Thrust control malfunction Accommodation is an EEC function that provides thrust asymmetry protection under what circumstances? At any time a thrust asymmetry is detected by the EEC In the event of of an engine failure on take off below 1000 feet AGL Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground During a go-around at light weights and aft center of gravity

C Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground

What is the stated maximum allowable runway slope limitation? +/- 3 deg +/- 1.5 deg +/- 1.5% +/- 2%

D +/- 2%

Inflight, the FMC gives priority to which of these systems to determine present position? Global Positioning System and Inerial Reference System Global Positioning System, navigation radios and ADIRU ADIRU and the co-located VOR/DME Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data

D Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data

In a VNAV descent the vertical path to the first altitude constrain is based on off idle thrust , speedbrake retracted and what else? Economy descent target speed, distance to the first constraint, no anti ice FMC cruise wind applicable target speed wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page and the predicted use of anti-ice FMC wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed FMC cruise wind, the predicted use of anti-ice, and economy target speed of VMO/MMo-16knots

B • FMC cruise wind • applicable target speed • wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page • predicted use of anti-ice

What are the memory items of the 'Engine Severe Damage/Sep L,R' non-normal check list? A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL and rotate Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

``` A A/T ARM switch (affected side) . . . . . . Confirm . . . . OFF Thrust lever (affected side) . . ……………. . Confirm . . Idle FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) . Confirm .CUTOFF Engine fire switch (affected side) . ….. . Confirm . . . Pull ```

In case of a minor fuel imbalance, how may manual fuel cross-feed be initiated? Open the cross-feed valve switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side Switch OFF pumps on the low quantity side and open the both cross-valve Switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side and open the cross-feed valve Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side

D Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the Alternate Navigation Page? It displays data about each leg of the entered route when using alternate navigation It is where navigation radios are tuned and related parameters display when utilizing the alternate navigation system It is access through the CDU and is used as an alternate navigation system operatng with the alternate navigation radio pages It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability

D It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability

What are the maximum Headwind Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations? 20, 20 and 25 knots respectively 15, 15 and 25 knots respectively 20, 15 and 20 knots respectively 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively

D 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively

Which statement is true about the VHF page display function? Scratchpad frequencies, can only be entered into the standby windows. The previously active frequency is deleted from the page display New frequencies are entered into scratchpad. the decimal and or following zeros for this frequency are required VHF pages 2,3 and 4 can contain up to 4 stored frequencies for each radio For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency

D For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency

Which of the following is correct regarding the automatic ice detection system? It is never inhibited at any time It causes bleed air to be directed to the engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems It consists of two electrically heated engine inlet mounted ice detectors It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems

D It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems

Which of the following GPWS voice annunciations indicate an atltitude loss with flaps and /or gear UP, after Take off or go around? SINK RATE DON'T SINK TOO LOW, FLAPS TOO LOW, GEAR

B DON'T SINK

With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, which fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck switch position? Left forward Fuel pump Left center fuel pump Right Aft Fuel Pump Left Aft Fuel Pump

D Left Aft Fuel Pump

What is indicated by the ALIGN HUD message in Head Up Display? The pilot must adjust his,her seat to ensure correct eye position relative to the display The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector The system is awaiting IRS alignment to supply data to the HUD The system is awaiting ADRS alignment to supply data to the HUD

B The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector

The stabiliser takeoff trim greenband indicates the allowable takeoff trim limits based on data from the FMC. What other source provides sets of validation limits to confirm that the computed green band is correct? Information from two nose gear pressure transducers Main and nose gear pressure data Information from main gear and nose gear oleo proximity switches Main gear truck tilt sensor data

A Information from two nose gear pressure transducers

Which of the following is correct concerning the use of MEL performance penalty data? Added MEL items are automatically applied to enroute landing performance selections Performance penalty data can only be added by reference to MEL handbook There is no indication of confirming MEL performance adjustments have been made Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data

D Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data

Which of the following is a true statement when the PFD is operating in Reversion Mode? VNAV speed band and minimum maneuvering speed indications fail The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window The flight Mode Annunciators and Navigation Source References are inhibited Instrument approaches with FMC computed glide path paths are not displayed

B The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window

Which of the following best describes the probe heats? Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated Wing mounted pitot probes are heated in flight to protect against ice accretion The angle of attack probe will operate once both engines have been started Three TAT (Total Air Temperature) probes are electrically heated for ice protection

A Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated

Following the initial memory items of the CABIN ALTITUDE non normal checklist What is the correct sequence of actions to commence the descent? Move thrust levers to idle Extend speedbrakes Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO Disengage the autopilot Move thrust levers to idle Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO Extend speedbrakes Move thrust levers to idle Descend at VMO/MMO Accomplish Rapid Descent checklist Move thrust levers to idle Disengage the autopilot Extend speedbrakes Descend at VMO/MMO

A •Move the thrust levers to idle •Extend the speedbrakes •If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads •Descend at Vmo/Mmo

Where can the Flight Crew oxygen pressure be checked? Bottom of the left EICAS display EICAS maintenance page Accessory panel Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT

D Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT

Whats does the TAMS display on the PDF indicate? The Auto Throttle has reverted to Thrust Alternate Mode due to asymmetry The Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed system is controlling thrust The Thrust Asymmetry Monitoring System has failed (Red) The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry

D The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry

How many temperature zones is the aeroplane divided into? 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones 3, Flight Deck and 2 passenger zones 2 Flight Deck and Passenger 4, Flight deck and 3 passenger zones

A 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones

What EICAS annunciation indicates that a thrust reverser is in transit? REV display in green RVSR display in green REV displayed in amber (orange) RVSR displayed in amber (orange)

C REV displayed in amber (orange)

Below what airspeed is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground? 75 Kts 60 Kts Vr 100 Kts

A 75 Kts

Which FMC page can be used to calculate/display clean and drag descent pages? DESCENT FORECAST OFFPATH DES APPROACH REF ARRIVALS

B OFFPATH DESCENT

Tech Questions Flashcards

(163 cards)