Technical

Question 1

(RF) Indication is displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity:

Answer 1

When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B // and the aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

Question 2

What are the 737-800 dimensions

Answer 2

• 35.8m wide
• 39.5m long
• 12.5m high

Question 3

What are the 737-800 maximum masses?

Answer 3

• MZFM: 61 688 kg
• MTOM: 70 535 -78 244 kg
• MTaxiM: 70 762 -78 442 kg (delta 227kg)
• MLM: 65 317 kg

Question 4

A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

Answer 4

The temperature mix valves to drive full cold

Question 5

A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:

Answer 5

take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation.

Question 6

A Fuel CONFIG alert is when?

Answer 6

• Centre tank > 726kg and Centre pumps OFF or LO PRESS
• Goes away when Centre tank quantity less than 363kg

Question 7

A good visual scan method is

Answer 7

a sequence of intense, fixated observations

Question 8

A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by:

Answer 8

left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light

Question 9

A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU?

Answer 9

The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost

Question 10

A leak in the No 2 engine driven hydraulic pump or associated lines can result in a total loss of hydraulic system B pressure:

Answer 10

Yes, but it drains to top of standpipe (both pumps feed from standpipe). Volume still remains but only PTU operation is still available’

Question 11

A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct?

Answer 11

The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72%

Question 12

A Mach trim system provides speed stability at airspeeds above:

Answer 12

Mach .615

Question 13

A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator on the PFD indicates:

Answer 13

Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected

Question 14

A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert?

Answer 14

A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed.

Question 15

A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect?

Answer 15

There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL.

Question 16

A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and „-07”. This means:

Answer 16

The traffic is descending at minimum of 500fpm

Question 17

A TCAS Resolution Advisory is generated when:

Answer 17

The conflicting aircraft is 25 seconds from point of closest approach

Question 18

A valid FMC PERF INIT page Scratch Pad entry for actual FUEL is:

Answer 18

Actual fuel is displayed automatically and cannot be entered manually

Question 19

A WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicates:

Answer 19

A leak in the bleed air duct system

Question 20

What are the 5 conditions for aborted engine start on GND?

Answer 20

1. No N1 Rotation - ST SW OFF
2. No EGT increase within 15s of moving st lever to IDLE - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
3. Little or no N1 or N2 increase after EGT increase - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
4. EGT quickly approaches or exceeds limit line - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
5. No oil pressure indication by engine idle - ST SW C/O, When N2<20% ST SW GND, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF

Question 21

Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:

Answer 21

8.35 psi

Question 22

Above what windspeed should Entry or Cargo Doors not be opened?

Answer 22

40 knots.

Question 23

Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage. How do you activate the flow of oxygen?

Answer 23

Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.

Question 24

AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs display?

Answer 24

MCP SPD | CWS R (in amber, below the FMA) |ALT HOLD.

Question 25

After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude?

Answer 25

N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 26

After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?

Answer 26

15\*, then * if 2 - V₂ * otherwise V₂+20 After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain an airspeed of V2 + 20 knots until another pitch mode is engaged. V2 + 20 knots is the optimum climb speed with takeoff flaps. It results in the maximum altitude gain in the shortest distance from takeoff. Acceleration to higher speeds reduces the altitude gain

Question 27

After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?

Answer 27

V2 plus 20kts.

Question 28

After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb?

Answer 28

It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370.

Question 29

After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?:

Answer 29

* SPEED BRAKE lever moved to down detent during RTO or landing * Manual brakes applied * Thrust lever(s) advanced during landing * Landing with RTO or RTO selected on the ground * Malfunction exists

Question 30

After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET IRS POS lines is missing. What is required?

Answer 30

Nothing, this is a normal indication once both IRSs have entered the NAV mode

Question 31

After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:

Answer 31

'800 feet RA'

Question 32

After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?

Answer 32

60 seconds

Question 33

After normal engine start, what should be done if the DUAL BLEED light is illuminated:

Answer 33

Place the APU bleed switch to OFF

Question 34

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?

Answer 34

Blank, requiring reloading

Question 35

After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?

Answer 35

Up to 30 seconds

Question 36

After the Centre Tank has emptied the auto shutoff logic stops the pumps, how do the pumps then function?

Answer 36

Switching the pumps to OFF and then back to ON recycles the auto shutoff logic and the pumps will again activate.

Question 37

After the loss of all generators, two fully charged batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:

Answer 37

60 minutes

Question 38

Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through

Answer 38

The Mix Manifold

Question 39

All TCAS alerts are inhibited:

Answer 39

By GPWS and windshear warnings.

Question 40

All window heat is selected ON. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The likely reason is:

Answer 40

System is at correct temperature

Question 41

Alternate brakes are operated by:

Answer 41

system A

Question 42

Altitude alerting occurs when approaching or departing from the MCP selected altitude. When is the altitude alerting system inhibited?

Answer 42

Glide slope is captured, or trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or greater.

Question 43

Altitude alerting, consisting of a tone and highlighted boxes, occurs at a set distance before reaching the selected attitude. How many feet before the selected altitude do the altitude alert highlighted boxes no longer show?

Answer 43

300 feet

Question 44

When do you get an Amber Fuel IMBAL alert ?

Answer 44

* Fuel Quantity btw Main 1 and 2 \> 453kg * Goes away when IMBAL \<91kg

Question 45

When do you get an Amber Fuel LOW alert ?

Answer 45

* Fuel Quantity in Main tank \< 453kg * Goes away when \> 567kg

Question 46

Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates

Answer 46

Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.

Question 47

An Air Traffic Advisory Service is a service

Answer 47

Which is provided within Class F airspace to ensure separation, in so far as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans.

Question 48

An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:

Answer 48

The Captains and First Officers altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.

Question 49

An amber AoA DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:

Answer 49

The Captains and First Officers AoA differ more than 10\* for more than 10 seconds.

Question 50

An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:

Answer 50

A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.

Question 51

An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:

Answer 51

A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units.

Question 52

An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates:

Answer 52

The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range

Question 53

An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:

Answer 53

The Captains and First Officers roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees.

Question 54

An auto relight protection is provided by EEC activating both igniters when a flameout is detected and there is a rapid uncommanded decrease in:

Answer 54

N2, or N2 below idle.

Question 55

An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ___ times the fluid volume of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

Answer 55

6 times

Question 56

AN OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the ND. To view the TA or RA an appropiate action would be:

Answer 56

Increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel.

Question 57

An overheat condition in the cooling cycle:

Answer 57

Causes the pack valve to close and the PACK light to illuminate

Question 58

An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean?

Answer 58

The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated

Question 59

Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:

Answer 59

LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.

Question 60

Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/APR page:

Answer 60

'Both origin and destination airport are available'

Question 61

As well as using the DISCH switch on the Fire Protection panel in the flight deck, an APU fire can be extinguished by discharging the APU fire extinguisher using the APU Ground Control Panel (shown below), which is located in a quick release access panel immediately forward and below the APU

Answer 61

False It’s located in the wheel well.

Question 62

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

Answer 62

GA | LNAV armed (white) | TO/GA

Question 63

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

Answer 63

GA | --- | TO/GA

Question 64

At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:

Answer 64

"PLUS HUNDRED"

Question 65

At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:

Answer 65

and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.

Question 66

At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates:

Answer 66

when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load.

Question 67

At what altitude (in feet) do the RA callouts begin?

Answer 67

TWENTY FIVE HUNDRED.

Question 68

At what altitude are the TCAS INCREASE DESCENT RAs inhibited?

Answer 68

1500 feet RA.

Question 69

At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?

Answer 69

350 feet RA.

Question 70

At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?

Answer 70

14,000 feet

Question 71

At what rotational speed is the Start Lever moved to the IDLE position?

Answer 71

Max Motoring - 25% N2.

Question 72

At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?

Answer 72

Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.

Question 73

Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?

Answer 73

Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM

Question 74

Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:

Answer 74

The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips

Question 75

Autopilot trim and main stabiliser trim use:

Answer 75

Single electric trim motor

Question 76

Battery power is provided by:

Answer 76

Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment.

Question 77

Below which RA should FLARE mode be armed during AUTOLAND?

Answer 77

1500 RA.

Question 78

True or false? Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply

Answer 78

TRUE

Question 79

BLEED TRIP OFF, what does it mean, what do you do?

Answer 79

Too high Temperature or Over Pressure in the Bleed air du ct system. The ENG Bleed Air Valve has Closed 1. Trip RESET 2. If Still get light - PACK OFF

Question 80

Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted, one is a rapid discharge bottle which is fully discharged immediately upon pressing the DISCH switch on the Cargo Fire Panel, the second bottle is a slow discharge bottle that is released 1 minute after the discharge of the first bottle, and discharges slowly over several minutes to provide a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression in the cargo holds. This second slow discharge fire extinguisher bottle is NOT fitted in any Ryanair B737-800 aircraft.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:

Answer 81

Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.

Question 82

Can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?

Answer 82

BLEED TRIP OFF

Question 83

Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:

Answer 83

* DC bus 1 (Left side, loop A) and * DC bus 2 (Right side, loop B)

Question 84

Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:

Answer 84

Centre tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps

Question 85

Conditioned air from the left hand pack flows directly to the Flight Deck from the Mix Manifold.

Answer 85

FALSE

Question 86

Crew are warned of exceeding the maximum allowed airspeed by which of the following?

Answer 86

Aural Clacker, speedtape red and black band.

Question 87

Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:

Answer 87

Within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT

Question 88

Cruising at FL370. The motorised Overboard Exhaust valve will open in flight if:

Answer 88

Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.

Question 89

Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed:

Answer 89

when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above

Question 90

What are the different DEU display lights on the PFD?

Answer 90

* CDS fault (amber) - DEU Failed on GND. No dispatch * CDS MAINT (white) - DEU hiccup. Dispatch allowed * DSPLAY SRCE (amber) - DEU Failed inflight

Question 91

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose? (700, 800 & 8200)

Answer 91

700 - 9.8 Meters 800 - 7.4 Meters 8200 - 7.1 Meters

Question 92

Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:

Answer 92

Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.

Question 93

Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats are anti-iced:

Answer 93

By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by switching ON the PROBE HEAT switches

Question 94

Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?

Answer 94

The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.

Question 95

During a dual channel A/P ILS approach, at which altitude (AGL) should the FLARE mode engage?

Answer 95

50 feet

Question 96

During a normal engine start, which engine indications do you have before selecting GND?

Answer 96

Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine startswitch to GRD.

Question 97

During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?

Answer 97

A manual F/D Go-around is available

Question 98

During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch

Answer 98

F/D roll commands hold current ground track

Question 99

What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?

Answer 99

Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.

Question 100

During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:

Answer 100

The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)

Question 101

During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means

Answer 101

The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums

Question 102

During an impending hot start the flashing white box surrounding EGT digital read out, resets:

Answer 102

When the start lever is moved to CUT OFF or Engine reaches idle N2.

Question 103

During an In-flight start, if a wet start is detected, when will the EEC turn off ignition and fuel to the engine?

Answer 103

No in-flight abnormal start protection.

Question 104

During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?

Answer 104

15% N2

Question 105

During cruise you note both centre tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. There is still 460 kg (or 320 kg) in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:

Answer 105

There will be no indication on CDS but the Master Caution will illuminate

Question 106

During descent, the pressurization descent mode is activated when:

Answer 106

Activated when the airplane descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT

Question 107

During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting:

Answer 107

High pressure bleed air from the 5th stage is adequate and the high stage valve remains closed // the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure from the 9th stage.

Question 108

During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?

Answer 108

15 seconds.

Question 109

During engine start the maximum time allowance for EGT indication after start lever is moved to idle is:

Answer 109

15 seconds

Question 110

During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?

Answer 110

When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only

Question 111

During flight with hydraulic system B inoperative (no fluid in system B):

Answer 111

The standby hydraulic system operates the leading edge slats and leading edge flaps to fully extended position only

Question 112

During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable?

Answer 112

No

Question 113

During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening:

Answer 113

that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.

Question 114

During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:

Answer 114

Both loop A and B is sensing a FIRE or OVHT

Question 115

During normal operations, hydraulic quantity indications vary when:

Answer 115

Raising or lowering the landing gear or leading edge devices

Question 116

During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the correct consequence?

Answer 116

With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.

Question 117

During preflight the temperature selectors on the 737-700 should be set to

Answer 117

Automatic and the desired temperature

Question 118

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

Answer 118

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.

Question 119

During primary charge cycle operation, battery voltage can be as high as:

Answer 119

30 Volts

Question 120

During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected to OFF:

Answer 120

The pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones

Question 121

During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?

Answer 121

Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains illuminated

Question 122

During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from

Answer 122

0° to 1100° C

Question 123

During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are normally positioned to:

Answer 123

NAV

Question 124

During 'TO/GA - Takeoff' pitch mode, the AFDS commands (up to 60kts)

Answer 124

10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS

Question 125

During undercarriage retraction:

Answer 125

the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels.

Question 126

During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:

Answer 126

The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate // Position information is contradictory

Question 127

During VNAV PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message 'OVERSPEED DISCONNECT' means:

Answer 127

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots

Question 128

Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

Answer 128

The No 1 transfer bus if available if AC power is not available, battery power is used.

Question 129

Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:

Answer 129

Airspeed and stabiliser position

Question 130

Emergency exit light can be activated from:

Answer 130

Flight deck and aft cabin attendant station

Question 131

Engaging LVL CHG descent mode does what to A/T ?

Answer 131

automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle

Question 132

Engine bleed air is obtained from:

Answer 132

5th and 9th stage of the compressor section

Question 133

Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open?

Answer 133

No

Question 134

Equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working

Answer 134

TXPDR with MODE C and ALT ON OR Mode S TXPDR

Question 135

Extending the airstairs using the exterior system:

Answer 135

Bypasses the door open requirement

Question 136

Extending//Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:

Answer 136

by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits

Question 137

Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the

Answer 137

EXT TEST switch

Question 138

F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions?

Answer 138

Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not in takeoff mode

Question 139

Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by

Answer 139

“Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall

Question 140

Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by

Answer 140

Illumination of the Master Caution

Question 141

Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:

Answer 141

Only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires

Question 142

Flight spoilers are operated:

Answer 142

2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B

Question 143

Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?

Answer 143

At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation

Question 144

For a good visual scan what ratio would you be looking outside/inside?

Answer 144

Outside 75%, Inside 25%

Question 145

For approach, what altitude must the second Autopilot be selected for dual Autopilot operation?

Answer 145

800 feet RA

Question 146

For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed:

Answer 146

on the Forward Attendant's panel

Question 147

For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?

Answer 147

453 Kgs.

Question 148

For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?

Answer 148

50 feet

Question 149

For what airspace does VFR traffic not need an ATC clearance?

Answer 149

Class E

Question 150

For which leading edge devices does the wing anti-ice system provide protection for?

Answer 150

The three inboard leading edge slats on each wing.

Question 151

From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?

Answer 151

Weather Radar System

Question 152

From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?

Answer 152

From the ADIRUs.

Question 153

Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:

Answer 153

Left side of the fuel manifold. ('No 1 main tank, AC pump')

Question 154

What are the Fuel Temperature Limits?

Answer 154

* MIN: 3 degrees above the fuel freezing point (Jet A1 -47\*C) or -43\*C, whichever is higher (approx -44\*C) * MAX: +49\* C

Question 155

Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:

Answer 155

7 degrees.

Question 156

Galley busses are powered from:

Answer 156

The AC transfer busses

Question 157

How are crew alerted to a deviation from the selected altitude?

Answer 157

A warning tone sounds once deviation is 300 feet from selected altitude, the current altitude

Question 158

How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position?

Answer 158

They are DC activated and pneumatically//pressure operated

Question 159

How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced in the flight deck?

Answer 159

Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel

Question 160

How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?

Answer 160

The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open

Question 161

How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF?

Answer 161

Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off.

Question 162

How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?

Answer 162

Slow the aircraft speed to below Vmo/Mmo

Question 163

How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well?

Answer 163

Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib.

Question 164

How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?

Answer 164

Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)

Question 165

How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

Answer 165

They both should supply the same pressure

Question 166

How does the Stall Identification system help the pilot identify and prevent further movement into a stalled condition?

Answer 166

Elevator Feel Shift Module increase, hydraulic system A pressure to the Elevator Feel and Centering Unit, significantly increasing the force required to move the control column rearwards to continue into a stalled condition.

Question 167

How far from projected impact will the "TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP" aural warning be given?

Answer 167

20 to 30 seconds.

Question 168

How far must you pull the handle before the related landing gear uplock is released?

Answer 168

Approximately 61cm

Question 169

How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck?

Answer 169

By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights

Question 170

How is hydraulic oil pressure stopped from entering the system when the Engine Driven Pumps (EDPs) are switched to OFF?

Answer 170

A blocking valve in the pump is energised allowing it to close and stop pressure entering the system

Question 171

How is the auxiliary battery charger powered?

Answer 171

Through the AC Ground Service Bus

Question 172

How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced?

Answer 172

By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel.

Question 173

How is the decision height (DH) display set on the CDS?

Answer 173

Set independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel.

Question 174

How is the engine fuel heated prior to entering the engine?

Answer 174

Heated by passing through IDG oil heat exchanger and engine oil heat exchanger.

Question 175

How is the hard alternate mode entered?

Answer 175

When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch

Question 176

How long are the navigation databases valid for?

Answer 176

28 Days.

Question 177

How long does the PBE, stored under the flight deck left jump seat, provide oxygen once activated?

Answer 177

Approximately 15-20 minutes

Question 178

How long should a fast realignment take to complete?

Answer 178

30 seconds

Question 179

How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system?

Answer 179

1

Question 180

How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?

Answer 180

1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.

Question 181

How many fire extinguishers are located on the flight deck, what type of extinguisher are they and where are they located?

Answer 181

1 Chemical fire extinguisher, located behind the FO

Question 182

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there totally for engine and APU fires?

Answer 182

3

Question 183

How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

Answer 183

16 (6 in each wing and 4 in the centre tank)

Question 184

How many fuel pumps does each tank have, and where are they located?

Answer 184

The centre tank has 2 AC fuel pumps mounted on the rear wall of the centre tank. The No1 tank has 2 AC pumps mounted in the centre tank - 1 on the front wall and one one the rear wall. The No2 tank has 2 AC pumps mounted in the centre tank - 1 on the front wall and 1 on the rear wall. There is also a Jet pump mounted in the centre tank discharging into No1 tank

Question 185

How many ILS receivers are installed in Ryanair B737-800 aircraft?

Answer 185

2 receivers.

Question 186

How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the Autopilot Director System (AFDS)?

Answer 186

2

Question 187

How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800?

Answer 187

Three. One manual and two automatic - 'AUTO - ALTN - MAN'

Question 188

How many oxygen masks are provided from each passenger service unit?

Answer 188

4

Question 189

How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800?

Answer 189

2

Question 190

How many spark igniters are there on each engine?

Answer 190

2

Question 191

How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system?

Answer 191

Unlimited number of times

Question 192

How many Trim Air Pressure Regulators are there in the Air Conditioning system?

Answer 192

1

Question 193

How might it be possible to determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Select all that apply

Answer 193

Extinguisher discharge nozzles change colour from flat black to aluminum grey. Temperature indicator placard in lavatory changes colour from white to black

Question 194

How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

Answer 194

6 times greater.

Question 195

Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:

Answer 195

After failure of the No 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up

Question 196

What systems does Hydraulic System A power?

Answer 196

1. Autopilot A 2. Alternate Brakes 3. No1 Reverser 4. Flight Spoilers (2,4,9,11) 5. NWS 6. GND Spoilers 7. Rudder 8. Aileron 9. Elevator and ELEV FEEL 10. L/G

Question 197

What systems does Hydraulic System B power?

Answer 197

1. Autopilot B 2. Normal Brakes 3. No2Reverser 4. Flight Spoilers (3,5,8,10) 5. Altn NWS 6. Yaw Damper 7. Rudder 8. Aileron 9. Elevator 10. TE Flaps 11. AutoSlat + LE Flaps and LE Slats

Question 198

Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from:

Answer 198

combined engine and electric pump outputs.

Question 199

Idle Descent path but will descend to meet the altitude restriction. After achieving the altitude restriction which of the indicated flight paths will the aircraft follow for the rest of the decent?

Answer 199

Path A

Question 200

If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:

Answer 200

The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue

Question 201

If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?

Answer 201

a magenta "X-BLD" above the N2 dial.

Question 202

If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect?

Answer 202

20% full

Question 203

If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:

Answer 203

When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses). The ground spoilers will deploy when the right main gear strut compresses.

Question 204

if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see?

Answer 204

The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue

Question 205

If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?

Answer 205

Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHTDET switch selected to A and then B.

Question 206

If airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:

Answer 206

will display box prompts

Question 207

If alignment is lost in flight, what action can be taken?

Answer 207

The navigation mode remains unavailable for the rest of the flight, but ATT mode can be selected to provide attitude reference.

Question 208

If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?

Answer 208

The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.

Question 209

If an altitude restriction is entered before TOD, the aircraft will commence the descent early to follow a new idle descent path to achieve the descent restriction. If ALT INTV is then selected after the descent restriction, which of the paths, shown in the diagram below, will the aircraft follow?

Answer 209

Path B. Descends to achieve restriction then descends at 1000 fpm until intercepting original idle descent path

Question 210

If an engine fails in flight which FMC page can you use to get info?

Answer 210

The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.

Question 211

If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:

Answer 211

On the inboard display unit

Question 212

If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:

Answer 212

The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.

Question 213

If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset. (not A/C YE003):

Answer 213

A single GPS sensor unit has failed

Question 214

If one cargo fire detector loop loses power

Answer 214

The system automatically converts to a single loop detection system

Question 215

If one of the two fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?

Answer 215

It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test

Question 216

If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:

Answer 216

Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.

Question 217

If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?

Answer 217

position the pump switch to OFF

Question 218

If the APU is the only electrical source in flight, which automatic shedding occurs?

Answer 218

Automatic shedding of all galley and main busses. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed.

Question 219

If the APU is the only electrical source on the ground, which automatic shedding occurs?

Answer 219

Initially attempts to carry a full electrical load. If overload is sensed, automatic shedding of galley and main busses until within limits.

Question 220

If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?

Answer 220

The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 feet of selected altitude.

Question 221

If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs?

Answer 221

CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.

Question 222

If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?

Answer 222

Do not take-off

Question 223

If the FAULT Light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:

Answer 223

A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected

Question 224

If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:

Answer 224

System A HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched off.

Question 225

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?

Answer 225

The switched hot battery bus

Question 226

If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?

Answer 226

A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight.

Question 227

If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to?

Answer 227

Soft alternate mode.

Question 228

If the spoilers become jammed:

Answer 228

The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons

Question 229

If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:

Answer 229

After 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate

Question 230

If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?

Answer 230

A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.

Question 231

If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain

Answer 231

15 degrees nose up

Question 232

If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?

Answer 232

APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel has been pulled up

Question 233

If you engage Level Change by pressing the LVL CHG switch on the MCP and the green light illuminates, what other indications will occur as this mode engages?

Answer 233

Speed window opens to show target speed, MCP SPD annunciated for pitch mode, N1 or RETARD/ARM annunciated for thrust mode. In

Question 234

If you want to find out if you will be flying through class E, class F or class G airspace, what documents can you refer to?

Answer 234

HI/LO enroute chart, Airfield brief, RTOW watermark, Area chart of destination

Question 235

Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates:

Answer 235

This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.

Question 236

Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates:

Answer 236

the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus

Question 237

Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:

Answer 237

Both detector loops for an engine have failed.

Question 238

Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?

Answer 238

Engine Bleed Air valve

Question 239

Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the overhead panel indicates:

Answer 239

IDG low oil pressure.

Question 240

Illumination of the APU DET INOP Light will cause the following lights to illuminate:

Answer 240

'Both MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET'

Question 241

Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:

Answer 241

Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.

Question 242

Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:

Answer 242

Possible back pressure of the APU due APU Bleed Air Valve open and engine no.1 bleed air valve ON and isolation valve OPEN.

Question 243

Illumination of the 'GND POWER AVAILABLE' light indicates:

Answer 243

Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards

Question 244

Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF lights indicates

Answer 244

AC standby bus unpowered

Question 245

Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:

Answer 245

Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.

Question 246

In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic System through the...

Answer 246

Standby Rudder PCU

Question 247

In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?

Answer 247

Captain -  receive and transmit only on VHF-1 F/O - receive and transmit only on VHF-2 Observer - receive and transmit only on VHF-1

Question 248

In case of an engine overheat:

Answer 248

Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.

Question 249

In case of cargo compartment fire

Answer 249

Select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button

Question 250

In Europe the upper limit of uncontrolled airspace is:

Answer 250

Different according to State

Question 251

In flight a fuel imbalance between No1 and No2 tanks can be corrected by:

Answer 251

Open the Crossfeed cock, turn off the pumps on the low side until the Fuel Quantity Indicators are balanced.

Question 252

In flight below 2000 feet RA, on an ILS Autopilot approach with flare armed, what happens if you push a TO/GA switch once?

Answer 252

Autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced Go-Around N1.

Question 253

In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:

Answer 253

Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft Automatically below 1200 feet RA (1800'RA for RDR-4000)

Question 254

In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:

Answer 254

None of RECIRC fans will operate.

Question 255

In flight with the 'STANDBY POWER' switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators will result in:

Answer 255

AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery.

Question 256

In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC receiving flap or anti-ice signals; at what altitude would the Approach Idle schedule begin?

Answer 256

Below 15,000 MSL.

Question 257

In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn lights, silence the fire waring bell, and …

Answer 257

Resets the system for additional warnings

Question 258

In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?

Answer 258

Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.

Question 259

In flight, with Autopilot engaged in CMD B, which FCC controls the logic for the flight directors on the Captain's PFD.

Answer 259

FCC B

Question 260

In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?

Answer 260

A motor supplied from DC standby bus

Question 261

In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when

Answer 261

Both loops sense an overheat or fire

Question 262

In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?

Answer 262

FMC.

Question 263

In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source:

Answer 263

2 minutes

Question 264

In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows:

Answer 264

The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.

Question 265

In the event of the loss of all engine and APU IDGs, the Standby Power system will provide what electrical power?

Answer 265

115V AC and 24V DC

Question 266

In the IAS/MACH Display, to the left of the displayed figure, what does a flashing "A" indicate?

Answer 266

Underspeed limiting, FMC or selected speed can not be reached.

Question 267

In the PACK TRIP OFF or PACK FAIL non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:

Answer 267

Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack

Question 268

In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?

Answer 268

The fuel will be suction feed only, and at high altitudes fuel vapour might release and obstruct the suction feed line

Question 269

In what conditions do most mid air collisions occur?

Answer 269

Daylight, very good visibility

Question 270

In what modes will a **TCAS Traffic Alert message** ("TRAFFIC" displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?

Answer 270

All modes Note: The TCAS RA & TA symbols will only show on MAP, MAP CTR, VOR and APP modes with TFC switch ON.

Question 271

In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?

Answer 271

'Both main tanks'

Question 272

In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?

Answer 272

on the ground or in flight

Question 273

In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?

Answer 273

It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps ( fuel tank bypass valve)

Question 274

Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative?

Answer 274

No

Question 275

Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?

Answer 275

Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of ground speed.

Question 276

Landing gear uplock is released when (for manual gear extension) ?

Answer 276

manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).

Question 277

MACH TRIM FAIL what are the implications?

Answer 277

dual channel failure, Max speed 280 KCAS / M.82

Question 278

Manual IRS entries of present position or magnetic heading are normally accomplished on the:

Answer 278

POS INIT page or the ISDU

Question 279

Minimum fuel for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is:

Answer 279

760 kgs in the related main tank

Question 280

Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:

Answer 280

3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or - 43 degrees, whichever is higher.

Question 281

No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What should you do?

Answer 281

Turn HYD Pump (Aff. Side) OFF

Question 282

Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:

Answer 282

3000psi.

Question 283

Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?

Answer 283

-800: MAINT -8200: DOOR

Question 284

On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which?

Answer 284

Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light

Question 285

On landing, when do the ground spoilers extend?

Answer 285

Compression of the right main landing gear strut.

Question 286

On later aircraft YW059 through YW164, what is the default Vertical Required Navigational Performance (VRNP) used by the FMC for oceanic, en route, and terminal phases of flight?

Answer 286

400 feet.

Question 287

On later aircraft YW130 through YW164, the VHF NAV switch changes the source of the data that the DEUs use for the NDs. What data is transferred by this switch?

Answer 287

DME, ILS/GLS, VOR, MCP course.

Question 288

On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see

Answer 288

Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate

Question 289

On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?

Answer 289

Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition

Question 290

On the Audio Control Panel (ACP) the Cabin Call lights comes ON. It will illuminate until:

Answer 290

Remains illuminated for 40 seconds

Question 291

On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:

Answer 291

As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.

Question 292

On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?

Answer 292

The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position

Question 293

On the ground, what would cause the TR UNIT light to illuminate (amber)?

Answer 293

Any TR has failed

Question 294

On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:

Answer 294

Only the *Right* recirculation fan will operate and the *Left* recirculation fan will shut down

Question 295

On the navigation display, how is the display presented in VOR, Approach and Plan modes?

Answer 295

VOR = heading up, Approach = heading up, Plan = true north up.

Question 296

On the PFD, what does the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL in amber annunciation indicate?

Answer 296

The EFIS control panel on the side the annunciation is displayed has failed

Question 297

On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?

Answer 297

POS REF page 2

Question 298

On which page of the FMC is the IRS position initially set?

Answer 298

POS INIT page.

Question 299

Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply:

Answer 299

flows for approximately 12 minutes

Question 300

Once activated, the APU DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:

Answer 300

An AC fuel pump pressurises the manifold

Question 301

Once an alert has occurred for deviating from the selected altitude, how is it cancelled?

Answer 301

return to within 300 feet of selected altitude or deviate by more than 900 feet from selected

Question 302

Once the thrust reverse auto-stow circuit is activated:

Answer 302

The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position

Question 303

One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:

Answer 303

There is no paralleling of the AC power sources (one source at a time) or; when connecting a new source, the excisting one is automatically disconnected.

Question 304

One of the purposes of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

Answer 304

Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route with a radial or distance from a known fix.

Question 305

Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:

Answer 305

Does not require the BAT switch to be ON

Question 306

Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:

Answer 306

Discharges the total contents of the Cargo Compartment Fire Bottle into the FWD or AFT cargo hold

Question 307

Operating the EXT TEST Switch:

Answer 307

To position 1 or 2 test bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles

Question 308

Overheat detection is available for

Answer 308

Engines

Question 309

Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:

Answer 309

Tests * overheat and fire detection loops on both engines , * fire detection on the APU, * and wheel well fire detector (latter only if AC power connected)

Question 310

Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:

Answer 310

The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.

Question 311

Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF:

Answer 311

Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running

Question 312

Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:

Answer 312

Sets stick shaker logic (stall and speed bars) for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON. For the remainder of the flight if WAI has been used. Does not update the Vref speeds in the FMC.

Question 313

Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:

Answer 313

Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on air speed tape and remains set for the remainder of the flight.

Question 314

Prior to returning to the oil tank, engine oil passes through:

Answer 314

-800: The scavenge pump and filter and main engine oil cooler - 8200: Scavenge pump only

Question 315

PROBE HEAT switches are ON. What does this indicate?

Answer 315

They are Heated. No lights should be visible

Question 316

Pulling an engine FIRE WARNING switch up:

Answer 316

1. Arms 1 squib on each bottle 2. Closes both eng and spar fuel shutoff valves 3. Closes HYD valve 4. Deactivates LOW PRESSURE light 5. Closes bleed air valve 6. Trips Generator Relay and GCB 7. Disables Thrust Reverser

Question 317

Pulling the APU Fire switch up

Answer 317

Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature

Question 318

Pulling the No 2 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:

Answer 318

Engine driven pump in system B

Question 319

Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will

Answer 319

isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure.

Question 320

Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:

Answer 320

1. Trips the generator control relay and breaker, 2. Arms the associated extinguisher 3. Closes the bleed air valve, 4. Closes the fuel shutoff valve, 5. Closes the APU inlet door.

Question 321

Pushing cargo fire TEST switch:

Answer 321

Test the fwd and aft cargo fire loops only and continuity of the extinguisher bottle squib circuit

Question 322

Pushing the ATTEND call switch in the flight deck:

Answer 322

Sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights

Question 323

Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:

Answer 323

Removes Auto Squelch; improves reception of weak signals

Question 324

Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude FL290, the cabin altitude should read:

Answer 324

Approximately 6000 feet

Question 325

Refer to the thermal anti-ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI is shown above each N1 indicator:

Answer 325

If green, the cowl anti- ice valve is open and the related engine anti- ice switch is ON

Question 326

Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?

Answer 326

Idle thrust position

Question 327

What systems does the Standby Hydraulic System power?

Answer 327

1. No1+No2 Reversers 2. SBY Yaw Damper 3. SBY Rudder 4. AutoSlats + LE Flaps and LE Slats

Question 328

Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds:

Answer 328

60 seconds

Question 329

Selecting the Cockpit Voice Recorder to ON has what effect?

Answer 329

Powers the cockpit voice recorder until first engine is started, then trips to AUTO.

Question 330

Selecting the Flap lever to the FLAP 1 Gate causes the LE Flaps to move to what position?

Answer 330

Fully Extended

Question 331

Selecting Wx+T on the weather radar (-700)

Answer 331

Shows turbulence within 50 miles

Question 332

Separation is provided between IFR and VFR traffic in which Classes of airspace

Answer 332

Classes A, B and C

Question 333

Setting the ADF mode selector switch to ANT has what effect?

Answer 333

No ADF bearing data available and audio reception optimised.

Question 334

Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are: MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights, ENG OVERHEAT light, Master FIRE WARN lights and the red fire switch light. There is one more indication?

Answer 334

The fire warning bell rings

Question 335

SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM what are the implications

Answer 335

Speedbrakes INOP, extend manually

Question 336

Spoilers will deploy automatically:

Answer 336

Flight Spoilers: Aircraft’s radio altitude is less than 10ft, Thrust levers are in the IDLE position, Landing gear strut is compressed, Main landing gear wheels spin faster than 60 knots. Ground Spoilers: The right main landing gear strut is compressed.

Question 337

STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light. What is it, what do you do?

Answer 337

+ A/P P/RST (red) if \<800' RA on 2CH ILS AP is not trimming correctly 1. DISCO AP+AT 2. Trim Manually On 2CH G/A Might not Level Off Correctly - ALT ACQ INHIBIT

Question 338

Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:

Answer 338

energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.

Question 339

Switching the CAB/UTIL switch OFF removes all 115v AC from the galley busses and:

Answer 339

Left and right recirculation fans

Question 340

Give the levels of protection and CPA for TA, RA and Proximate and Other Traffic

Answer 340

* RA: CPA: 25s * TA: CPA: 40s * Proximate Traffic: \<6nm and \<1200' or NO ALT * Other Traffic: \>6nm, \>1200'

Question 341

Give the TCAS Inhibits by Level

Answer 341

* \<1500 RA: "Increase Descent" RA Inhibit * \<1100' RA "Descent" RA Inhibit * \<1000' RA, all RA Inhibits * \<500' RA, all TCAS Voice Inhibits

Question 342

TCAS TA Only mode is enabled automatically:

Answer 342

Below 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected

Question 343

The 250kt speed limit does not apply to IMC or night time operations in D, E, F or G airspace

Answer 343

FALSE

Question 344

True or false? The 250kt speed limit in D, E, F and G airspace can be removed by ATC using the phrase 'No speed restriction"

Answer 344

FALSE

Question 345

The 250kt speed limit only applies when you are on schedule

Answer 345

FALSE

Question 346

The 737-600/700/800 is powered by two:

Answer 346

CFM 56-7 engines

Question 347

The 737-700 displays a white bug when Vref is selected, this indicates:

Answer 347

Vref+15

Question 348

The 737-700 is how much shorter than the -800?

Answer 348

5.8m shorter than the 737-800

Question 349

The 737-700 is fitted with:

Answer 349

A single recirculation fan One overwing exit (Each Side) No tailskid

Question 350

The 737-700 Right Duct Overheat sensor is located:

Answer 350

Downstream of the Mix Manifold

Question 351

The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:

Answer 351

Position, attitude, altitude and speed

Question 352

The air/ground system receives logic signals from:

Answer 352

Six sensors, two on each landing gear

Question 353

True or false? The Aircraft battery need to be selected ON for STANDBY operation of the Forward Airstairs from the FWD Attendant's Panel?

Answer 353

TRUE

Question 354

The aircraft is not certified for operations:

Answer 354

Above 82N or below 82S

Question 355

The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL. When would the recorder start recording ?

Answer 355

The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and with engine is operating.

Question 356

The airspeed range for fully enabled speed trim operation is:

Answer 356

100 KIAS - Mach 0.60 (Fadeout until 0.68 to 0)

Question 357

The amber annunciation on the lower part of the PFD (INSTR SWITCH) indicates what?

Answer 357

The IRS switch on the Forward Overhead panel is not selected to NORMAL

Question 358

The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?

Answer 358

Nothing, this is normal condition before engine start

Question 359

The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:

Answer 359

91 kgs

Question 360

The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light:

Answer 360

Is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight

Question 361

The amber LOW PRESSURE Light for System B Electric Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What are the other indications?

Answer 361

MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights illuminate

Question 362

The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT Light illuminates. What does this indicate?

Answer 362

The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the flight altitude window.

Question 363

The amber Standby Hydraulic System LOW PRESSURE Light is armed:

Answer 363

Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated

Question 364

The amber 'STANDBY POWER OFF' light will illuminate if:

Answer 364

AC standby bus unpowered.

Question 365

The APU can supply both transfer buses:

Answer 365

On the ground or in the air.

Question 366

The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:

Answer 366

On the ground only

Question 367

The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:

Answer 367

17,000 feet

Question 368

The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to:

Answer 368

10,000 feet

Question 369

The APU start cycle may take as long as ____ seconds.

Answer 369

120 seconds

Question 370

The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:

Answer 370

41,000 feet

Question 371

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is:

Answer 371

RTO mode selected on the ground.

Question 372

The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together with ALTN light. What does it indicate?

Answer 372

This indicates a single controller failure.

Question 373

The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.

Answer 373

This indicates a dual controller failure.

Question 374

The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of:

Answer 374

The Autopilot, Flight Directors (AFDS) and the Autothrottles (A/T)

Question 375

The automatic temperature controller on a 737-700 controls:

Answer 375

The Hot Air Mix Valve and the Cold Air Mix valve

Question 376

True or false? The Autoslat system drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approaches a stall and is powered by Hydraulic System B

Answer 376

True

Question 377

The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers:

Answer 377

May indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation

Question 378

The blue APU MAINT light means that:

Answer 378

APU may be operated

Question 379

The brake accumulator is pressurised by which hydraulic system?

Answer 379

Hydraulic system B

Question 380

The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:

Answer 380

Parking brake system

Question 381

The bug below that indicates V2 + 15 is displayed at what stage of flight, and when is it removed?

Answer 381

Displayed at Takeoff, removed at first flap retraction or when Vref entered in CDU.

Question 382

The cabin begins to pressurize:

Answer 382

On the ground at high power settings

Question 383

The Captain observes the word ROLL displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during takeoff. This means:

Answer 383

'The Captains and First Officers roll angle displays differ by 5 degrees or more'

Question 384

The Cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation

Answer 384

Both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert

Question 385

The cargo compartments have

Answer 385

Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and DC bus 2

Question 386

The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?

Answer 386

High pressure (N2)

Question 387

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased by:

Answer 387

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set

Question 388

The Cockpit Voice Recorder uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for a maximum of:

Answer 388

120 minutes

Question 389

The columns and wheels are connected through transfer mechanisms which allow the pilots to bypass a jammed control or surface. If the ailerons control system is jammed, force applied to:

Answer 389

force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers. The ailerons and the Captain’s control wheel are inoperative.

Question 390

The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft:

Answer 390

While taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open.

Question 391

The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:

Answer 391

The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.

Question 392

The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:

Answer 392

Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.

Question 393

The Crossfeed valve must be closed for which stages of flight?

Answer 393

Closed for Takeoff and Landing

Question 394

The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments, it represents, with range greater than 20 NM?

Answer 394

Predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals

Question 395

The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:

Answer 395

Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel

Question 396

The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct? Think about: - positive / negative pressure relief valves - differential pressure

Answer 396

There are 2 positive pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1psi. There is 1 negative relieve valve which prevents external atmospheric pressure from exceeding internal cabin pressure.

Question 397

The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right window?

Answer 397

Minutes remaining until alignment is complete.

Question 398

The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:

Answer 398

Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine

Question 399

The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?

Answer 399

Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch onthe aft overhead panel.

Question 400

The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:

Answer 400

N1 and N2 in both the normal and alternate modes

Question 401

The EGPWS contains a terrain database, which it uses for look-ahead terrain alerting. Which of the following statements is correct for this terrain database?

Answer 401

Man-made obstructions are not accounted for in all EGPWS terrain databases

Question 402

The EGT display, both box and dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine if:

Answer 402

The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground start.

Question 403

The ELEC light will illuminate on the ground if:

Answer 403

A fault exists in the DC or standby system The ELEC light **only** operates on the ground, it does not operate in flight

Question 404

The electric motor driven hydraulic pumps are cooled and lubricated by hydraulic oil passing through them - this oil is then cooled by passing through a fuel cooled oil cooler located in each main tank. What quantity of fuel must there be in each main tank to operate the electric driven pumps on the ground?

Answer 404

760 kg

Question 405

The elevator control column override mechanism allows:

Answer 405

'The control columns to be physically separated in the event of an elevator jam'

Question 406

The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position:

Answer 406

Illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off

Question 407

The End of Descent altitude on the PATH DES page is:

Answer 407

The altitude restriction for the end of descent waypoint

Question 408

The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to ON in flight. The stall warning logic:

Answer 408

Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the airspeed indicator.

Question 409

The ENG FAIL Alert on the EGT display remains until:-

Answer 409

Engine fire switch pulled

Question 410

The engine and APU fire detection systems are run from the

Answer 410

Battery Bus

Question 411

The engine bleed air valve acts as:

Answer 411

A pressure regulator and shutoff valve

Question 412

When do the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve close?

Answer 412

When the respective Engine Start Lever is placed to CUTOFF

Question 413

The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.

Answer 413

'False'.

Question 414

True or false? The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s)

Answer 414

True

Question 415

The equipment cooling system comprises:

Answer 415

4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct

Question 416

The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?

Answer 416

Detecting smoke only

Question 417

The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

Answer 417

The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more

Question 418

The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:

Answer 418

Protection for LE devices and TE flaps if two or more LE flaps or LE slats moves from commanded position

Question 419

The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:

Answer 419

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude

Question 420

The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks / regulators with pressure breathing starting at:

Answer 420

27,000 feet

Question 421

The flight directors must be ON to engage the AFDS in Go around mode?

Answer 421

FALSE

Question 422

The flight spoilers will start to extend on the down going wing with a control wheel deflection at approximately:

Answer 422

10 degrees

Question 423

The FMC Advisor Message DRAG REQUIRED indicates the aircraft is:

Answer 423

10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO

Question 424

The FMC Alerting Message INSUFFICIENT FUEL means:

Answer 424

You will have less than 907kg (2000lbs) of fuel at the destination

Question 425

The forward cabin temperature control fails:

Answer 425

FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally and cabin temperature maintained at average of FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings.

Question 426

The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides:

Answer 426

protection and indication for TE Flap asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion.

Question 427

The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is:

Answer 427

Total fuel on board, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system.

Question 428

The FWD and AFT cargo compartments each have smoke detectors

Answer 428

In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert

Question 429

The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat.

Answer 429

The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch

Question 430

The Galley busses are powered from:

Answer 430

the AC Transfer busses.

Question 431

The GPWS will provide an aural alert of "BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE" under which of the following circumstances?

Answer 431

When roll angle exceeding 35, 40 and 45 degrees.

Question 432

The green LE FLAPS EXT light:

Answer 432

illuminates for all LE devices fully extended (TE flap positions 10 - 40).

Question 433

The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:

Answer 433

The AC ground power cart has been disconnected

Question 434

The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:

Answer 434

Can be performed only on the ground

Question 435

The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?

Answer 435

To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.

Question 436

The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and:

Answer 436

Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi

Question 437

The IDNT button on the 737-700 weather radar:

Answer 437

Activates the ground clutter reduction feature

Question 438

The indications for the Cargo Fire test

Answer 438

Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates

Question 439

The indications of an engine overheat are:

Answer 439

Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate.

Question 440

The isolation valve is _____ operated?

Answer 440

AC

Question 441

The isolation valve switch is in AUTO, both engine bleeds are ON and both pack switches in AUTO. The isolation valve:

Answer 441

Is fully closed

Question 442

The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO position, both engine bleed switches are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO position and the R PACK switch is in the HIGH position. What is the position of the isolation valve?

Answer 442

Closed

Question 443

The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:

Answer 443

With the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)

Question 444

The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red when:

Answer 444

All landing gear are DN, and the gear handle in OFF position

Question 445

The Landing Gear Transfer Unit:

Answer 445

Ensures System B can assist raising the gear on loss of System A

Question 446

The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?

Answer 446

On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked

Question 447

The left IRS is electrically powered from:

Answer 447

Normally AC Standby bus and in emergency from Switched Hot Battery Bus

Question 448

The LOCKOUT PIN is installed in the steering depressurisation valve. What does this do?

Answer 448

'Allows aircraft pushback or towing without depressurising the hydraulic systems'

Question 449

What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?

Answer 449

Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing push back or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.

Question 450

The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:

Answer 450

Within 2000 feet barometric altitude

Question 451

The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC's alternate mode. What is correct?

Answer 451

The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters

Question 452

True or false? The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground.

Answer 452

True

Question 453

The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning:

Answer 453

A clacker

Question 454

The main wheel well has

Answer 454

Fire detection only

Question 455

The maximum differential pressure is:

Answer 455

9.10 psi

Question 456

The maximum thrust rating available on the 737-700 is:

Answer 456

22k

Question 457

The minimum equipment requirement for RA's to be generated is:

Answer 457

The other aircraft has a working Mode C transponder

Question 458

The Navigation Display (ND) wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:

Answer 458

Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots

Question 459

The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are:

Answer 459

4

Question 460

The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:

Answer 460

2

Question 461

The number of LE slats located on each wing are:

Answer 461

4 outboard of each engine

Question 462

The operation of the over-wing emergency exits depends on:

Answer 462

Engine speed, thrust position, air/ground sensors, door status, DC power

Question 463

The outflow valve position idicator indicates the position of the outflow valve

Answer 463

In all modes

Question 464

True or false? The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.

Answer 464

'True'.

Question 465

The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?

Answer 465

Passenger oxygen system is activated

Question 466

The picture below shows that there is a fault in the left engine Overheat/Fire Detection Loops. How would you determine which of the 2 loops had failed?

Answer 466

Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B

Question 467

The power source for Fire Extinguisher is:

Answer 467

The Hot Battery Bus

Question 468

The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:

Answer 468

Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.

Question 469

The Predictive Windshear alerts are available:

Answer 469

'Automatically below 1200 feet RA' BUT Inhibited during TO & LDG when >100kts and <50'

Question 470

The predictive windshear symbol radials, which extend from the predictive windshear symbol to help identify the location of a windshear event, are displayed in what colours?

Answer 470

Amber.

Question 471

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors:

Answer 471

Takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors

Question 472

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light is inhibited:

Answer 472

At all times in flight, when the thrust levers are advanced toward takeoff power at any time and for 30 seconds after landing.

Question 473

The PSEU light will illuminate along with a Master Caution and an OVERHEAD annunciator light, under which of the following situations?

Answer 473

Illuminates 30 seconds after the ground/air system senses ground mode, if an overwing emergency exit flight lock has failed locked or a fault is detected.

Question 474

The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:

Answer 474

Automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No 1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up.

Question 475

The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON position. What does this indicate?

Answer 475

The right elevator pitot is not heated

Question 476

The RA aural alert 'CLIMB' CLIMB NOW' means:

Answer 476

Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA. This would have initially been descent RA, but now you must stop descending and startclimbing.

Question 477

The rain removal system for the forward windows comprises of the following:

Answer 477

Windshield wipers, hydroscopic rain repellent coating.

Question 478

The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?

Answer 478

Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).

Question 479

The retractable landing lights may only be extended below the following airspeed.

Answer 479

Can be extended at ANY speed.

Question 480

The right IRS is electrically powered from:

Answer 480

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

Question 481

The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:

Answer 481

Is controlled by the left pack standby control

Question 482

The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated - what area is affected?

Answer 482

Right engine strut

Question 483

The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:

Answer 483

When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually' + causing VNAV to disengage'

Question 484

The speedbrake load alleviation feature

Answer 484

Limits the deployment of the speed brakes under certain high gross weight/airspeed combinations

Question 485

The STAB button on the weather radar

Answer 485

Automatically adjusts antenna tilt to correct for airplane attitude changes

Question 486

The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Aft Electronic Panel, when set to OVERRIDE:

Answer 486

Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel

Question 487

The Stall Warning requirement is determined by what system component?

Answer 487

Two independent SMYD Computers.

Question 488

The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for:

Answer 488

40 navaids and 6 airports

Question 489

The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:

Answer 489

Stabilizer trim is not in the green band when throttles advanced for takeoff (among others)

Question 490

The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:

Answer 490

A solid white diamond

Question 491

The TCAS system generates a Traffic Advisory, whenever another aircraft is what distance from point of closest approach?

Answer 491

40 seconds.

Question 492

The terrain displayed in the Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from

Answer 492

EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position

Question 493

The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator:

Answer 493

if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON

Question 494

The thrust mode display on the upper DU shows A/T LIM in white. This means

Answer 494

the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC

Question 495

The thrust reverser may be deployed:

Answer 495

When the air/ground sensor is in the ground mode

Question 496

The thrust reverser on engine No1 is operated with hydraulic power from:

Answer 496

System A

Question 497

The TR UNIT amber light illuminates if:

Answer 497

GND - Any TR has failed. AIR - TR1 OR (TR2 and TR3) failed.

Question 498

On a non-short field performance aircraft (YF501 - YW097), with the TE flaps set to position 15, what is the correct indication that should be seen on the Aft Overhead panel for the leading edge devices?

Answer 498

All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green

Question 499

True or false? The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.

Answer 499

False **Not** for Wing-body overheat, could be a leak in the system! **Yes** Zone Temp / Duct Pack Bleed Trip Off

Question 500

The TRIP RESET switch on the 737-700:

Answer 500

resets BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK TRIP OFF or DUCT OVERHEAT lights

Question 501

The TRs (Transformer rectifier) converts:

Answer 501

115 volts AC to 28 volts DC

Question 502

The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds:

Answer 502

400 feet per minute

Question 503

The wheel well is monitored by a ___ fire detector loop with a ____ based limit

Answer 503

Monitored by a **single** fire detector loop. As the **temperature** of the detector increases above a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition

Question 504

The window heat PWR TEST:

Answer 504

Provides a confidence test

Question 505

The wing ANTI-ICE:

Answer 505

Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.

Question 506

The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?

Answer 506

AIR COND

Question 507

The yaw damper indicator:

Answer 507

indicates main yaw damper movement of rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not indicated.

Question 508

The yaw damper provides inputs to the rudder to provide which of the following, and what effect does it have on the rudder pedals?

Answer 508

Provides Gust Dampening, Dutch roll prevention and Turn coordination. The rudder pedals are not displaced by yaw damper operation.

Question 509

There are CDS fuel alerts indications for:

Answer 509

Fuel quantity low in main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.

Question 510

There is a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel. These lights:

Answer 510

Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights

Question 511

There is a speed restriction for IFR flights of 250 KIAS below FL100 in which Classes of airspace?

Answer 511

Class D, E, F, G

Question 512

To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on page?

Answer 512

CLB

Question 513

To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:

Answer 513

POS REF page 2/3

Question 514

To silence the fire bell you can press one of two buttons. One is the fire warning bell cutout on the glareshield; where is the second one located?

Answer 514

On the fire protection panel

Question 515

True or false? The First Officer's No 2 window can be opened from outside the aircraft?

Answer 515

TRUE

Question 516

True or false? The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest.

Answer 516

TRUE

Question 517

True or false? Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.

Answer 517

False, the **5th** and 9th stage

Question 518

True or false? Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted to the B737-800. Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.

Answer 518

True

Question 519

True or false? Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.

Answer 519

True

Question 520

True or false? Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.

Answer 520

True

Question 521

True or false? If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.

Answer 521

True

Question 522

True or false? The APU fire bottle can be discharged by operating the switch on the APU Ground Control Panel even if the APU Fire Control handle has not been pulled down.

Answer 522

False

Question 523

True or false? The Autoslat system drives the slats to the full extended position when the LE slats are in the extend position as the aircraft approaches the stall angle.

Answer 523

True

Question 524

True or false? The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.

Answer 524

False You can press the override switch below the handle

Question 525

True or false? The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.

Answer 525

False No system in the wheel well

Question 526

True or false? The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.

Answer 526

True

Question 527

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. What affect will one radio altimeter becoming inoperative have on the Autopilot?

Answer 527

the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture

Question 528

Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?

Answer 528

Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits.

Question 529

Under normal conditions the AC Standby Bus is powered from:

Answer 529

AC Transfer Bus No 1.

Question 530

Under normal operation the packs will produce an air temperature to satisfy

Answer 530

the zone that requires the most cooling.

Question 531

Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?

Answer 531

After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

Question 532

Under what conditions can the APU generator supply both transfer busses?

Answer 532

Both on the ground or in flight

Question 533

Under which conditions will the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provide an alternative source of power for the Autoslat system?

Answer 533

A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed.

Question 534

Warm air from the E & E bay is:

Answer 534

Diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures

Question 535

What 3 things will cause the A/T to disengage?

Answer 535

Push Either A/T Disengage switch An A/T system fault is detected Move A/T ARM switch to OFF

Question 536

What abnormal start protection is available?

Answer 536

On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and EGT exceedances

Question 537

What action must be carried out prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in the flight deck?

Answer 537

All flight deck crew must don oxygen masks set to 100% EMER oxygen.

Question 538

What additional engine fire indication is shown or heard on the flight deck of later aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an engine fire test?  

Answer 538

The engine start lever will illuminate red.

Question 539

What additional items are detected on the LHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” alert light that are not the RHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” system?

Answer 539

Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam

Question 540

What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?

Answer 540

Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.

Question 541

What are the 2 databases the FMC uses for operation?

Answer 541

Navigation and Performance

Question 542

What are the 3 positions For the Audio Control Panel Filter switch?

Answer 542

V, B, R, Voice, Both, Range.

Question 543

What are the electrical system limits?

Answer 543

* indication: AC: 115V (+/- 5V) 400Hz (+/- 10) 3 phase * indication: DC 26 (+/-4V) * Battery: 24V NiCd

Question 544

What are the indications for A/T disconnected.

Answer 544

A/T P/RST disengage light flashes.

Question 545

What are the indications of a cargo fire?

Answer 545

The fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates.

Question 546

What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?

Answer 546

The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes

Question 547

What are the USABLE FUEL capacities of the aircraft fuel tanks?

Answer 547

Centre 13,066kg, No1 = 3,915kg, No2 = 3,915kg.

Question 548

What causes the blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?

Answer 548

Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards

Question 549

What colour is the Outer Marker Beacon (OM) displayed on the PFD?

Answer 549

OM appears Cyan in top right corner of AI.

Question 550

What colour is the route on the Nav display when you activate a route by pressing the R6 switch?

Answer 550

Dashed Cyan

Question 551

What components comprise the Flight Management System?

Answer 551

FMCs, AFDS, A/T, IRS, GPS.

Question 552

What condition causes an Amber IAS DISAGREE alert to appear at the bottom of the speed tape?

Answer 552

Captain's and First Officer's airspeeds disagree by more than 5 kts for more than 5 seconds.

Question 553

What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:

Answer 553

airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.

Question 554

What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP Light to illuminate?

Answer 554

A fault in the parking brake system

Question 555

What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position?

Answer 555

That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked.

Question 556

What do the different Start switch modes do in relation to arming the igniters?

Answer 556

* GND (GND-selected, FLT-Both) * CONT (selected) * FLT (Both)

Question 557

What do the green Window Heat ON lights indicate?

Answer 557

Illuminated means heat being applied to windows, extinguished means windows at correct temperature

Question 558

What does a blue light mean on the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS).

Answer 558

NGS system functioning in a degraded condition.

Question 559

What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator light mean?

Answer 559

Autopilot has disconnected

Question 560

What does a FLT CONTROL light illuminated amber indicate?

Answer 560

Related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevator and rudder is low.

Question 561

What does a Red Box around an N1 RPM Digital Readout mean - when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine has been shut down?

Answer 561

An inflight exceedance has occured.

Question 562

What does a white CDS MAINT message in the lower left corner of the PFD indicate?

Answer 562

A dispatchable CDS fault has occured prior to second engine start.

Question 563

What does an illuminated green light mean in the MCP buttons?

Answer 563

That switch can be de-selected.

Question 564

What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Light indicate?

Answer 564

Low fuel pump output pressure

Question 565

What does BOV stand for and what will be the effect of it on the flight directors?

Answer 565

BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the pitch or roll flight director depending on the event causing the bias out of view.

Question 566

What does illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate?

Answer 566

To indicate an over pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip.

Question 567

What does LRC on the FMC CRZ page mean?

Answer 567

Long Range Cruise

Question 568

What does the ATT:RST annunciation displayed on an ISFD mean?

Answer 568

Attitude must be reset using the Attitude Reset (RST) switch.

Question 569

What does the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL light on the PFD (amber) indicate?

Answer 569

Failure of respective EFIS control panel

Question 570

What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?

Answer 570

Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified.

Question 571

What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?

Answer 571

The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

Question 572

What does the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicate?

Answer 572

Position information is contradictory on the ground only.

Question 573

What does the GPS light illuminating indicate when either annunciator panel is pushed to initiate a recall?

Answer 573

Single GPS sensor unit failure.

Question 574

What does the INSTR Switch light (amber) indicate?

Answer 574

1 IRS Supplies all data

Question 575

What does the TCAS symbol AMBER CIRCLE indicate?

Answer 575

Advises of traffic with potential impact in 40 seconds.

Question 576

What does the top of the amber bar indicate at the lower end of the speed tape?

Answer 576

Minimum manoeuvre speed (1.3g manoeuvre capability to stick shaker below approximately 20,000 feet) (1.3g manoeuvre capability to low speed buffet above approximately 20,000 feet).

Question 577

What effect does moving the N1 SET Outer Knob to BOTH have on A/T operation?

Answer 577

Has no effect on the A/T system operation.

Question 578

What effect will a leak in system B downstream of the EDP have on the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?

Answer 578

It will continue to function if required due to oil in the system B reservoir below the standpipe level.

Question 579

What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET switch?

Answer 579

ZONE TEMP (-700 DUCT OVERHEAT), PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF

Question 580

What fixed temperature will the left pack maintain if all the temperature selectors are positioned OFF?

Answer 580

24°C

Question 581

What FMAs would be expected on selection of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL SPEED?

Answer 581

MCP SPD | HDG SEL | VS

Question 582

What FMC messages might you get on an FMC PTH descent?

Answer 582

* DRAG REQUIRED : +10kts or more * OVERSPEED DISCONNECT : (V restr + 15kts) * FMA FMC SPD if V \< V-10kts

Question 583

What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?

Answer 583

The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed

Question 584

What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?

Answer 584

Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.

Question 585

What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?

Answer 585

maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle

Question 586

What happens to the speed brakes if the SPEED BRAKE lever is left in the DOWN position during landing.

Answer 586

The speed brake lever will automatically move to the up position and the spoilers will deploy as normal if all other required conditions are met * Wheel speed >60 kts * both thrust levers idle * reverse thrust positioned for reverse thrust

Question 587

What happens when the WING- BODY OVHT TEST Switch is pressed?

Answer 587

The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights illuminate

Question 588

What happens with the NO SMOKING Switch in AUTO // When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?

Answer 588

The NO SMOKING Signs illuminate when the landing gear is extended' (-700) The NO SMOKING Signs are always illuminated, the switch is INOP (-800)

Question 589

What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?

Answer 589

The Green oxygen pressure relief disc will be found to be missing from the forward right fuselage during the Exterior Inspection.

Question 590

What indication is there on the Flight Deck if a correct emergency access code has been entered in the Flight Deck Door keypad?

Answer 590

AUTO UNLK light illuminates

Question 591

What indications will you see on the electrical panel when selecting GRD PWR ON?

Answer 591

GRD POWER AVAILABLE light illuminated, SOURCE OFF lights extinguished, GEN OFF BUS lights illuminated, TRANSFER BUS OFF lights extinguished and APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguished

Question 592

What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?

Answer 592

Only attitude and heading information

Question 593

What is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?

Answer 593

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active

Question 594

What is indicated by illumination of the amber AUTO SLAT FAIL light during MASTER CAUTION recall that extinguishes when master caution system is reset?

Answer 594

Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.

Question 595

What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?

Answer 595

The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.

Question 596

What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?

Answer 596

Decrease in System B quantity

Question 597

What is significant about the layout of the Annunciator Panel lights

Answer 597

The lights are arranged to reflect the position of the systems panels on the Overhead Panels.

Question 598

What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?

Answer 598

56% N2

Question 599

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?

Answer 599

Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.

Question 600

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?

Answer 600

Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes

Question 601

What is the direct result of low oil pressure in the No2 IDG?

Answer 601

The No2 Drive light illuminates amber.

Question 602

What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?

Answer 602

1. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, 2. Trips IDG control relay, 3. Closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, 4. Closes engine bleed air valve, 5. Disables thrust reverser, 6. Arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles and 7. Allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.

Question 603

What is the effect of pushing the Pilot Call switch?

Answer 603

Single-tone chime in flight deck.

Question 604

What is the effect of selecting the Drive Disconnect switch to DISCONNECT?

Answer 604

IDG is disconnected if running, and DRIVE light illuminates.

Question 605

What is the effect on the spark igniters if the start switches are position to FLT?

Answer 605

Both igniters operate with the start lever in idle regardless of the position of the ignition select switch

Question 606

What is the effect on the Standby Hydraulic System, if there is a leak in system B?

Answer 606

No effect as the standby system has its own accumulator.

Question 607

What is the EGT limit for engine starting on the ground?

Answer 607

725°C

Question 608

What is the electrical power source of the APU fire detection system?

Answer 608

the Battery Bus

Question 609

What is the electrical source of power for the cargo compartment smoke

Answer 609

the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2

Question 610

What is the electrical source of power for the engine fire extinguishing system?

Answer 610

The Hot battery bus

Question 611

What is the first Radio Altitude Callout given during the approach?

Answer 611

2500 feet - "Twenty Five Hundred".

Question 612

What is the flight crew maximum oxygen pressure for the first flight of the day?

Answer 612

1850 psi

Question 613

What is the flight deck annunciation if one cargo smoke detector in a loop fails?

Answer 613

The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate, but only when a cargo fire test is manually initiated.

Question 614

What is the function of the dual Bleed Light?

Answer 614

Illuminates when engine running and APU bleed air valve, engine bleed air valve, and isolation valve are in a position to permit possible backpressure of the APU

Question 615

What is the function of the TR's (Transformer Rectifier Units)?

Answer 615

To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC.

Question 616

What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

Answer 616

Illuminated bright blue

Question 617

What is the maximum airspeed limit according MEL, when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative for window nr 4?

Answer 617

250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL

Question 618

What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating?

Answer 618

25%

Question 619

What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) A

Answer 619

+\- 0.1

Question 620

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

Answer 620

20,000 feet

Question 621

What is the maximum hydraulic system pressure.

Answer 621

3,500 psi

Question 622

What is the maximum permitted lever position of the speed brake lever in flight?

Answer 622

FLIGHT DETENT

Question 623

What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?

Answer 623

The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.

Question 624

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot execute an ILS dual channel A/P approach?

Answer 624

800 feet

Question 625

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

Answer 625

24.3M (-all -800s), 24.4 (-8200) , 20.4 (-700)

Question 626

What is the number of the extinguisher bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire suppression system?

Answer 626

1 bottle

Question 627

What is the obstacle free area on an RNP route?

Answer 627

4\*RNP Value

Question 628

What is the position of the Engine Bleed Air Switches during the secure scan flow on the parking checklist:

Answer 628

ON

Question 629

What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE Switch is in AUTO?

Answer 629

Open when any Engine Bleed Air Switch or Air Conditioning Pack Switch is positioned OFF

Question 630

What is the primary source of conditioned air from the cockpit?

Answer 630

The left pack

Question 631

What is the purpose of the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch, and why is the cover red?

Answer 631

In ARM: - Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve - Activates standby pump - Arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch. Red because the action of extending the leading edge devices cannot be reversed in flight.

Question 632

What is the purpose of the Ground Service switch on the forward attendant's panel?

Answer 632

Provides ground power directly to the AC ground services bus for utility outlets, cabin lighting, and battery charger without powering all aircraft electrical busses.

Question 633

What is the purpose of the isolation valve?

Answer 633

To Isolate the left and the right sides of the bleed air duct.

Question 634

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

Answer 634

Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient. To automatically use power from hydraulic system B to assist landing gear retraction to achieve the normal rate of retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump pressure falls below a preset value.

Question 635

What is the purpose of the ram air system?

Answer 635

To provide cooling for the heat exchangers

Question 636

What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

Answer 636

To decrease the air conditioning system pack load and the engine bleed air demand

Question 637

What is the range of the individual temperature selectors?

Answer 637

Approximately 18°C to 30°C

Question 638

What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?

Answer 638

Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade

Question 639

What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?

Answer 639

The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet

Question 640

What is the result if the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?

Answer 640

The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.

Question 641

What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?

Answer 641

Blue call light illuminates and single chime is heard.

Question 642

What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A electric motor-driven pump?

Answer 642

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

Question 643

What is the result of the APU GEN OFF BUS light failing to illuminate by the end of the APU start cycle?

Answer 643

The FAULT light illuminates

Question 644

What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?

Answer 644

The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.

Question 645

What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?

Answer 645

The Battery Bus.

Question 646

What is the usable Fuel Tanks Quantity

Answer 646

1. Main Tanks 1 & 2 - **3 915kg** each (**7 830**) in wings 2. Center Tank (**13 066kg**) 3. Total **20 896 kg**

Question 647

What is the voltage of the DC Busses under normal circumstances?

Answer 647

28v

Question 648

What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?

Answer 648

35.79 Meters (-800) 35.92 (-8200)

Question 649

What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?

Answer 649

6.42 Meters.

Question 650

What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?

Answer 650

If the EEC loses the required signals to operate in Normal Mode

Question 651

What microphone options are available to the flight crew?

Answer 651

Hand microphone, headset boom microphone, oxygen mask microphone.

Question 652

What modes can the EECs operate in?

Answer 652

Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate

Question 653

What must be sensed by the detector loops to cause an engine overheat/fire alert?

Answer 653

Temperature

Question 654

What normally provides the N1 limits and target N1 values to the Autothrottle?

Answer 654

The Flight Management Computer.

Question 655

What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?

Answer 655

DC motor from Hot Battery Bus

Question 656

What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?

Answer 656

'MCP SPD'

Question 657

What position should the ignition select switch be in for operations from a manned maintenance station?

Answer 657

Right

Question 658

What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?

Answer 658

System A

Question 659

What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

Answer 659

Engine starting, air conditioning/Pressurisation, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurisation and TAT probe.

Question 660

What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level flight on a radar heading and APP mode is selected prior to LOC/GS capture?

Answer 660

MCP SPD | HDG SEL (VORLOC below in white) |ALT HOLD (GS below in white)

Question 661

What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL change is selected in descent? (LNAV selected as the roll mode)

Answer 661

RETARD then ARM | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 662

What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?

Answer 662

When either hydraulic system fails or elevator feel pitot system fails, an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed in the elevator feel computer and the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates.

Question 663

What will cause the STBY RUDDER ON light to illuminate?

Answer 663

Standby rudder system is commanded on, either manually or automatically, to pressurise the standby rudder PCU.

Question 664

What will occur if the aircraft pitch altitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) on the PFD during slow speed manoeuvring?

Answer 664

The stick shaker warning activates

Question 665

What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?

Answer 665

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

Question 666

What would system B hydraulic fluid indication decrease to, if there was a leak in the standby hydraulic system?

Answer 666

Approximately 72%

Question 667

What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?

Answer 667

Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights.

Question 668

When a lavatory fire is detected:

Answer 668

The fire extinguisher operates automatically

Question 669

When an active database expires in flight:

Answer 669

The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing.

Question 670

When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?

Answer 670

The NO SMOKING Signs are permanently illuminated.

Question 671

When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:

Answer 671

Illuminate when flap or gear are extended

Question 672

When below radio altitude minimums, the Rad Alt display on the PFD:

Answer 672

dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds

Question 673

When both hydraulic pumps for a system are off, the indicated system pressure may read system reservoir pressure, this is normally?

Answer 673

less than 100psi

Question 674

When can you expect the EGPWS 'five hundred' call?

Answer 674

When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ

Question 675

When can you not use an RNP approach procedure ?

Answer 675

When RAIM outage \> 5 min predicted +/-15min of ETA

Question 676

When carrying out the Stall Warning Test, which of the following statements is correct?

Answer 676

The test cannot be completed until the AC Transfer Busses have been powered for up to 4 minutes.

Question 677

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:

Answer 677

6 degrees or less

Question 678

When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?

Answer 678

Positioning the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF.

Question 679

When do the ram air inlet doors move to the full open position?

Answer 679

On the ground or during slow flight with flap not fully retracted

Question 680

When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?

Answer 680

The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full and the No. 1 tank FWD pump switch is selected to ON.

Question 681

When does the Flap Load relief act? What is it driven by?

Answer 681

FSEU, operates when * F40 (to F30) when \>163 ( back when \<158) * F30 (to F25) when \>176 ( back when \<171)

Question 682

When does the OIL FILTER BYPASS alert illuminate on the upper display unit?

Answer 682

Illuminates prior to oil bypassing the scavenge filter.

Question 683

When does the RAD ALT display a digital readout?

Answer 683

Between 2500ft AGL and 1000ft AGL

Question 684

When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?

Answer 684

Comes if actual speed is less than minimum speed. Commands The highest of : 1. 1.3 Vs for current FLAP config 2.FMC speed 3.Selected speed

Question 685

When extending or retracting the TE Flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between consecutive selections:

Answer 685

to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

Question 686

When flying a 737-700:

Answer 686

Automatic thrust reduction to climb power occurs when VNAV, ALT ACQ or ALT HOLD isengaged. Until 2 1/2 minutes after liftoff, automatic thrust reduction is inhibited when engaging LVL CHG or V/S modes.

Question 687

When GRD is selected and the eng start switch is selected to either 1 or 2, how are the crew alerted to the start valve opening?

Answer 687

A START VALVE OPEN alert is displayed on the upper DU.

Question 688

When is a resolution advisory generated?

Answer 688

When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closes approach

Question 689

When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?

Answer 689

Below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.

Question 690

When is the EGT Start Limit Redline displayed?

Answer 690

Until the engine achieves stabilised idle (approx 59%)

Question 691

When is the ENGINE ANTI-ICE turned on if icing condition exists on the ground?

Answer 691

As part of the after start checks.

Question 692

When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?

Answer 692

At all times.

Question 693

True or false? When operating in the circuit, VFR traffic must report Downwind and Final.

Answer 693

TRUE

Question 694

When operating on standby power only:

Answer 694

The Captain's PFD and ND will operate

Question 695

When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?

Answer 695

An average temperature for the two cabin zones.

Question 696

When operating the forward airstairs, with the external control, what position must the forward entry door be in?

Answer 696

Can be in any position.

Question 697

When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?

Answer 697

Removes power from the battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

Question 698

When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities:

Answer 698

Select TA

Question 699

When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?

Answer 699

Indicates a failure of the Flight Deck Primary or Standby temperature control.

Question 700

When selecting reverse thrust, when can the reverse thrust levers be increased beyond the idle detent?

Answer 700

Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully deployed position

Question 701

When setting up the FMC, what Pre-flight information is required.

Answer 701

Initial Position, Performance Data, Route, Takeoff Data.

Question 702

When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:

Answer 702

The Captains inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged

Question 703

When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is selected to ALT, what is the result?

Answer 703

The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio ACP operates in a degraded mode, VHF-1 for Captain and Observer, VHF-2 for First Officer.

Question 704

When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch is selected DOWN:

Answer 704

this fully extends LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE flaps.

Question 705

When the EEC is not powered, following engine indications are displayed directly from the engine sensors:

Answer 705

Oil quantity and engine vibration

Question 706

When the gear is down with 3 greens showing on the centre panel:

Answer 706

the gear is down and locked, even if a corresponding landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is NOT illuminated.

Question 707

When the landing gear Manual Extension Access door is open:

Answer 707

Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.

Question 708

When the PASS OXY switch on the AFT overhead panel is selected to ON, at what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system activate?

Answer 708

At altitude selected ON.

Question 709

When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly:

Answer 709

There will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector

Question 710

When the STANDBY POWER switch is selected OFF:

Answer 710

AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are not powered. + The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber)

Question 711

When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 711

The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet

Question 712

When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?

Answer 712

Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up. After failure of the number 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever positioned Up

Question 713

When will LNAV automatically disengage?

Answer 713

Reaching a route discontinuity.

Question 714

When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?

Answer 714

At respective engine start // Normally when the respective engine has been started

Question 715

When will the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminate?

Answer 715

When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.

Question 716

When will the ram air deflector doors extend?

Answer 716

On the ground prior to liftoff and after touchdown.

Question 717

When will the fuel CONFIG alert extinguish?

Answer 717

Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs.

Question 718

When will the landing gear config warning horn give an intermittent warning sound?

Answer 718

Never

Question 719

Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

Answer 719

Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.

Question 720

Where are the Logo lights installed?

Answer 720

On top of each horizontal stabilizer.

Question 721

Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?

Answer 721

Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam

Question 722

Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?

Answer 722

Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs.

Question 723

Where does the air for APU cooling enter?

Answer 723

Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet

Question 724

Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted?

Answer 724

On the front of the accessory gearbox

Question 725

Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck?

Answer 725

On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel

Question 726

Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?

Answer 726

In the No1 main tank.

Question 727

Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?

Answer 727

In main fuel tank No. 1

Question 728

Where is the potable water contents indicator located?

Answer 728

On the aft Attendant's panel.

Question 729

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

Answer 729

THR HLD and ARM.

Question 730

Which are the indication of an engine FIRE?

Answer 730

The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine Fire switch illuminates.

Question 731

Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger?

Answer 731

AC ground service bus 1.

Question 732

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger:

Answer 732

AC ground service bus 2

Question 733

Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?

Answer 733

The steering wheel and the rudder pedals (on the ground)

Question 734

Which electrical bus is always connected and powered whenever the aircraft battery is fitted?

Answer 734

Hot Battery Bus - power immediately available to important systems such as fire extinguishers.

Question 735

Which engines power the Boeing 737-800?

Answer 735

CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans

Question 736

Which flight instrument displays are available when the batteries are the only source of power:

Answer 736

Captain's inboard ND and Captain's outboard PFD.

Question 737

Which fuel valves are Flight Crew made aware of their position by means of flight deck indications?

Answer 737

Engine Fuel Shutoff valves, Spar Fuel Shutoff valves, Crossfeed valve.

Question 738

Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?

Answer 738

Normally powered by Hydraulic System B.

Question 739

Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?

Answer 739

System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2

Question 740

Which hydraulic system operates the parking brake?

Answer 740

Hydraulic system A Hydraulic system B Brake accumulator

Question 741

Which indications are correct for a single FMC failure (left FMC fails)?

Answer 741

FMC P/RST amber light illuminates, FAIL light on FMC CDU illuminates, LNAV and VNAV disconnect if engaged, failure information displayed on left ND after delay of 25 to 30 seconds.

Question 742

Which is the correct mode on the FMA? Condition: During NAPD2, A/P engaged, before flaps up. (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)

Answer 742

N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 743

Which is the ND Symbol for traffic advisory?

Answer 743

Solid amber circle

Question 744

Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?

Answer 744

EMER

Question 745

Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?

Answer 745

APP

Question 746

Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV?

Answer 746

Selecting a different pitch mode

Question 747

Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?

Answer 747

Lavatory Fire warning light

Question 748

Which of the following are not heated?

Answer 748

Static ports

Question 749

Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?

Answer 749

Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power.

Question 750

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

Answer 750

Airplane on the ground. Antiskid and auto brake operation. Autobrake select switch to RTO Wheel speed less than 60kts Thrust levers idle

Question 751

Which of the following conditions will cause the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate?

Answer 751

Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi)

Question 752

Which of the following conditions would allow the Thrust Reversers to deploy if TR selected?

Answer 752

When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode

Question 753

Which of the following is NOT powered by the standby Power system?

Answer 753

Transformer Rectifier 1.

Question 754

Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed once below 2000 feet radio altitude for an automatic go-around from an ILS dual channel A/P approach and FLARE armed?

Answer 754

The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1

Question 755

Which of the following statements are true when operating on standby power?

Answer 755

Only the captain's pitot probe is heated. The CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.

Question 756

Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?

Answer 756

At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other

Question 757

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?

Answer 757

It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.

Question 758

Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO

Answer 758

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shut down.

Question 759

Which of the following statements is true for the CABIN ALTITUDE Warning?

Answer 759

An intermittent warning horn sounds and the red CABIN ALTITUDE lights illuminate when the cabin altitude exceeds 10000 feet

Question 760

Which of the following statements is true, when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?

Answer 760

Gear retraction is disabled until door is closed

Question 761

Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?

Answer 761

the thrust reverser is deployed

Question 762

Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?

Answer 762

The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.

Question 763

Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?

Answer 763

Spoilers partially extended Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the down position.

Question 764

Which of these conditions would cause FCCs to control their respective flight director modes (neither autopilot engaged in command)?

Answer 764

GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA

Question 765

Which of these could cause a steady RED AUTOPILOT indicator light?

Answer 765

ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go–around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation

Question 766

Which of these is an AFDS status mode?

Answer 766

FD

Question 767

Which of these is indicated by the hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

Answer 767

Maximum pressure 3500psi in white

Question 768

Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?

Answer 768

Static ports

Question 769

Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?

Answer 769

Always use the VHF-1 radio.

Question 770

Which statement about rudder pedal steering is true?

Answer 770

Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends

Question 771

Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?

Answer 771

Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.

Question 772

Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?

Answer 772

AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.

Question 773

Which statement is correct for an aircraft taking off with the APU powering both transfer buses?

Answer 773

The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down.

Question 774

Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?

Answer 774

Displays present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system.

Question 775

Which statement is correct for when the window heat Test Switch is put into the OVHT position?

Answer 775

Simulates an overheat condition in order to test the system

Question 776

Which statement is correct for wing ANTI-ICE?

Answer 776

It is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.

Question 777

Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?

Answer 777

It will remain displayed until the imbalance reduces to 91 kgs or less

Question 778

Which statement is correct in relation to the APU fuel supply:

Answer 778

If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing.

Question 779

Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?

Answer 779

The control columns are physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.

Question 780

Which statement is correct regarding ground operations of the electric-driven hydraulic pumps?

Answer 780

A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present in the related main tank

Question 781

Which statement is correct regarding the supply of bleed air from the APU:

Answer 781

The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight

Question 782

Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?

Answer 782

The Switched Hot Battery Bus is not powered.

Question 783

Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?

Answer 783

Both the origin and destination airport are available.

Question 784

Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?

Answer 784

This will cause an amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber.

Question 785

Which statement is NOT true with regard to the lavatory smoke detection system?

Answer 785

If the lavatory smoke detection system is activated, lavatory fire extinguisher system activates automatically.

Question 786

Which statement is true about Rudder Steering Weight Off Wheels operation?

Answer 786

Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends

Question 787

Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?

Answer 787

If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.

Question 788

Which systems are powered by the hydraulic system?

Answer 788

Flight controls, wheel brakes, leading and trailing edge flaps, leading edge slats, nose wheel steering, landing gear, thrust reversers, autopilots.

Question 789

Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?

Answer 789

Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization.

Question 790

Which two displays cannot be selected and shown simultaneously on the Navigation DU?

Answer 790

Weather and Terrain.

Question 791

Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT switch ON?

Answer 791

L1 only

Question 792

While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel the alert:

Answer 792

Press either pilots BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT Light, (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 ft RA) or correct the flight path back to the glide slope

Question 793

While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert:

Answer 793

Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio altimeter).

Question 794

Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, what is the result of advancing the thrust levers beyond the take-off warning setting?

Answer 794

-800: Both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position. -8200: Duct temperature and thrust settings logic are disabled and have no effect on control valve operation in flight

Question 795

Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?

Answer 795

To hinder in advertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around.

Question 796

Why are the covers on the Drive DISCONNECT switches red?

Answer 796

To identify switch action is irreversible in flight.

Question 797

Why do we check that FLARE mode is armed at 500 feet RA?

Answer 797

To be aware that A/P will disengage at 350 feet RA if not armed.

Question 798

Why does ICAO specify a 250kt below 10,000' speed restriction in airspace classes (D), (E) and (F)?

Answer 798

ATC doesn't provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic, see and avoid and traffic information service is your only separation

Question 799

Will the APU automatic shutdown protection occur with an APU Fire and the APU Detection Inoperative?

Answer 799

No

Question 800

With a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around, what are the correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note: assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573 through YW058

Answer 800

G/A : (blank) : TO/GA

Question 801

With both engines operating and one forward thrust lever set below approximately 20 degrees thrust lever angle, the landing gear warning horn can be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch:

Answer 801

with flaps UP through 10 if below 800 feet RA and above 200 feet RA

Question 802

With command A engage and FMAs displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD, which FCC is the master?

Answer 802

FCC A

Question 803

With ENGINE START switch in OFF, automatic ignition will occur:

Answer 803

if N2 is between 57 % and 50 % OR rapid decrease in N2, OR N2 below idle RPM and engine start lever is in IDLE

Question 804

With fuel in the center and main tanks, both engines operating and all fuel pump switches ON, fuel from which tank(s) is used first?

Answer 804

Center tank

Question 805

With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?

Answer 805

50 feet RA.

Question 806

Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?

Answer 806

Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.

Question 807

With no AC power on the aircraft, which of the following statements is correct with regard to the WHEEL WELL fire warning system?

Answer 807

It will not detect a fire in the main WHEEL WELL .

Question 808

With normal power source on the buses, placing the battery switch to OFF will remove power from:

Answer 808

The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

Question 809

With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow:

Answer 809

Only when the aircraft is in flight with flaps up

Question 810

With reference to the Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings; which of the following statements is correct?

Answer 810

Both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated.

Question 811

With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?

Answer 811

Is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight.

Question 812

With reference to the Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator, which of the following statements is correct?

Answer 812

If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON

Question 813

With TCAS, proximate traffic:

Answer 813

is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically

Question 814

With the APU running, how can it be stopped immediately?

Answer 814

Switch the battery off.

Question 815

With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobraking is initiated when:

Answer 815

Wheel speed 90 knots or more and thrust levers at IDLE

Question 816

With the BUS TRANSFER switch in the AUTO position shown below; how do the BTBs operate?

Answer 816

BTBs automatically maintain power to AC Transfer busses from any operating generator or external power.

Question 817

With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2 position:

Answer 817

The First Officers EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captains and First Captains displays

Question 818

With the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch in the guarded position, when would the Emergency Exit Lights automatically illuminate?

Answer 818

When DC Bus 1 fails, or AC power is turned off.

Question 819

With the FASTEN BELTS switch selected to AUTO, when will the FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs illuminate?

Answer 819

Illuminate when flaps or gear are extended.

Question 820

With the fuel pumps off, where does the APU fuel supply come from?

Answer 820

No 1 Main Tank.

Question 821

With the Multifunction Display Switch ( MFD ) in SYS in lower DU shows:

Answer 821

Hydraulic pressure and quantity only

Question 822

With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?

Answer 822

Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.

Question 823

With the 'STANDBY POWER' switch in the AUTO position, loss of both engine driven generators and APU generator will result in that AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter and DC standby bus is powered by battery:

Answer 823

Either in flight or on the ground

Question 824

With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 824

The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position.

Question 825

With VNAV engaged, pushing the SPD INTV switch has what effect?

Answer 825

IAS/MACH window opens up showing current FMC target speed and IAS/MACH selector can be used to set new desired speed.

Question 826

With VNAV engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the:

Answer 826

FMC

Question 827

Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:

Answer 827

By either trim or rudder pedals inputs

Question 828

You are in Climb and LVL CHG What FMAs will you see?

Answer 828

N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 829

You are in Climb and V/S Climb \* What FMAs will you see?

Answer 829

MCP SPD | LNAV | V/S

Question 830

You are in Climb and VNAV Climb What FMAs will you see?

Answer 830

N1 | LNAV | VNAV SPD

Question 831

You are in Cruise and VNAV What FMAs will you see?

Answer 831

FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

Question 832

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and ALT INTV CLB/DES What FMAs will you see?

Answer 832

N1 / FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV SPD / VNAV PTH

Question 833

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and LVL CHG. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 833

N1 / RETARD | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 834

You are in Cruise CLB/DES and V/S \* What FMAs will you see?

Answer 834

MCP SPD | LNAV | ALT HLD

Question 835

You are in Descent and LVL CHG What FMAs will you see?

Answer 835

RETARD / ARM | LNAV | MCP SPD

Question 836

You are in Descent and V/S DES \* What FMAs will you see?

Answer 836

MCP SPD | LNAV | V/S

Question 837

You are in Descent and VNAV PTH DES NOW What FMAs will you see?

Answer 837

FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

Question 838

You are in Descent and VNAV PTH DES What FMAs will you see?

Answer 838

RETARD / ARM / FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

Question 839

You are in Descent and VNAV SPD DES. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 839

RETARD / ARM | LNAV | VNAV SPD

Question 840

You are in G/A and approaching 400'. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 840

GA | HDG SEL | TO/GA

Question 841

You are in G/A and BUG UP What FMAs will you see?

Answer 841

MCP SPD | HDG SEL | ALT ACQ

Question 842

You are in G/A and GA FULL. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 842

N1 | ---- | TO/GA

Question 843

You are in G/A and GA REDUCED. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 843

GA | ---- | TO/GA

Question 844

You are in Take-Off and 800' AGL What FMAs will you see?

Answer 844

ARM | LNAV | TO/GA

Question 845

You are in Take-Off and 84kts What FMAs will you see?

Answer 845

THR HLD | LNAV | TO/GA

Question 846

You are in Take-Off and Engines Stable at 40% What FMAs will you see?

Answer 846

ARM | LNAV | ----

Question 847

You are in Take-Off and Thrust Reduction What FMAs will you see?

Answer 847

N1 | LNAV | TO/GA

Question 848

You are in Take-Off and TO/GA. What FMAs will you see?

Answer 848

N1 | LNAV | TO/GA

Question 849

You select the AUTO BRAKE to RTO on the ground, and the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. What is the fault?

Answer 849

The system has passed the self test and there is NO fault.

Question 850

YW164. Other than OFF, what are the switch positions of the IRS in the clockwise order?

Answer 850

ALIGN, NAV, ATT.

Question 851

ZONE TEMP

Answer 851

Trim air valve closes 1. Rotate to Cold 2. TRIP RESET 3. Check Supply duct t\* (if rising steeply) 4. PACK OFF

Question 852

ZONE TEMP amber light illumination and CONT CAB on RECALL indicates:

Answer 852

Illuminated constantly - indicates a duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control During RECALL - indicates failure of the flight deck primary or standby temperature control

Question 853

When Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition will the Takeoff Config Warning sound?

Answer 853

Yes

Question 854

Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?

Answer 854

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active

Question 855

For takeoff what does the white bug on the speed tape indicate and what protection does it give?

Answer 855

V2 + 15, 40° bank capability (25° + 15°) for all take off flaps

Question 856

Flap 5 is set. What does the bottom of the hollow amber bar on the upper side of the speed tape represent?

Answer 856

Placard speed for next flap setting based on the sequence 1,5,15,30

Question 857

Where will a swept wing stall first and why is this a disadvantage?

Answer 857

Wing Tips and it causes a nose up pitch moment

Question 858

What happens to the control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches when you put the stabiliser trim override switch to OVERRIDE?

Answer 858

They are bypassed to restore power to the stabiliser trim switches

Question 859

Will the spoiler panels extend on landing if you leave the lever in the DOWN detent? If so, when?

Answer 859

Yes, when main gear spin up > 60kts sensed, both thrust levers are retarded to idle and Reverse thrust is selected.

Question 860

What height terrain do the medium density green dots on our terrain awareness display indicate?

Answer 860

Medium density green - Terrain 500 feet below to 1,000 feet below airplane altitude. Gear down changes this to 250 feet below

Question 861

Where is engine fuel flow measured?

Answer 861

After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.

Question 862

A flashing ALIGN light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit may indicate?

Answer 862

Alignment cannot be completed until the present position is entered

Question 863

A manual entry of M0.72 for descent speed into the TGT SPD line on the ACT ECON PATH DES page will?

Answer 863

Change the page title to display ACT M.720 PATH DES

Question 864

Actual navigation performance represents the estimated maximum position error with percentage probability of?

Answer 864

95%

Question 865

Bank angle selector on the MCP heading knob operates bank angle for AFDS

Answer 865

Operation in HDG mode and VORLOC mode

Question 866

During an IRS alignment, a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of?

Answer 866

A significant difference between previous and entered position or an unreasonable present position

Question 867

During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true?

Answer 867

The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure

Question 868

Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV in the climb, automatically does what to the A/T ?

Answer 868

Engages the A/T in the N1 mode

Question 869

FMC climb phase begins at thrust reduction altitude and is terminated at which point

Answer 869

At the top of climb point when the aircraft reaches cruise altitude as selected on the PERF INIT page

Question 870

In the FMC, a lateral offset may be specified, however some legs are invalid for offset. These include?

Answer 870

Route discontinuity and DME arcs

Question 871

In the RTOW’s/ OPT, the Climb Limited Weights are based on:

Answer 871

The 2.4% climb gradient required in the 2nd segment

Question 872

Selecting an approach or runway on the ARRIVALS page

Answer 872

Will automatically delete a previously selected approach or runway

Question 873

The “Post Treatment Check” (step 3), as a part of the de -icing/ anti-icing procedure (Ops Manual Part A):

Answer 873

Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check

Question 874

The AFS provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding the following limit speeds:

Answer 874

Vmo/Mmo plus Flap and Gear placard speed

Question 875

What does alternate green and yellow lights on a taxiway centreline mean:

Answer 875

The aircraft is still in the ILS sensitive area and can interfere with the ILS signal

Question 876

What is the minimum required Go-Around climb gradient for a CAT II/III approach

Answer 876

2.50%

Question 877

What would the indication be on the ‘Autopilot Indicator’ if the ALT ACQ was inhibited during an A/P go- around if the stabilizer is out of trim?

Answer 877

Steady red

Question 878

When the FMC is not receiving the required fuel data from the fuel quantity indication system:

Answer 878

Dashes are displayed, however a manual entry is possible

Question 879

Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time?

Answer 879

Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure

Question 880

Communication Failure: What is the ICAO/EUR procedure if you experience a radio failure under radar controlled airspace?

Answer 880

Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher for a period of 7 minutes

Question 881

ICAO Runway Markings: The ‘Aiming Point Markings’ are located at

Answer 881

400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m

Question 882

If asked by ATC to hold at FL80 at a present position hold, what is the maximum speed and time you can hold at in non-turbulent conditions?

Answer 882

1 min legs / 230kts

Question 883

The effect on a CATIII A approach (DH50’) of unserviceable ‘Approach Lights’ is

Answer 883

No effect on a CAT IIIA, however a CATII is not allowed

Question 884

With the stuck mike modification after how long will the VHF transceiver revert to the receive mode if the PTT becomes stuck?

Answer 884

35secs

Question 885

SNOWTAM RWYCC's are?

Answer 885

Listed for each third of the runway sequentially from the threshold nearest the number 01

Question 886

What is true about rehydrated fluids?

Answer 886

Dried fluid residue could occur when repetitive application to thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the build-up of a dried residue in aerodynamically quiet areas