Term 1

Question 1

Prospective Observational Study

Answer 1

Same as cohort study

Certain condition/treatment vs no condition/treatment

Question 2

Succinylcholine

Class, MOA, dose, range, onset, duration

Answer 2

Class: depolarizing paralytic
MOA: mimics Ach
Dose: 1.5 mg/kg for induction
Range: 1-1.5 mg/kg
Onset: 1 min
Duration: 6 mins

Question 3

Troubleshoot a low minute volume (LMV) alarm

Answer 3

• check patient (RR, Vt)
• check circuit (disconnect, leak)
• review alarm setting perimeters

Question 4

Reasons for a high PEEP alarm

Answer 4

• autoPEEP is high

- PEEP dial is set (LTV 1000 circuit)

Question 5

Case-control study

Answer 5

Find one case and look for variables.

e.g. look at a group of people who have a known disease and they try to work backwards to determine what they have in common that might have caused the disease.

Question 6

Cross-sectional study

Answer 6

Observational study of a defined population at a specific point in time.

Exposure and outcome are determined simultaneously

Question 7

Cohort study

Answer 7

Certain condition/treatment vs no condition/treatment

Question 8

Rocuronium

Class, MOA, dose, range, onset, duration

Answer 8

Class: non-depolarizing paralytic
MOA: blocks Ach
Dose: 1 mg/kg 
Range: 0.6-1.2 mg/kg for RSI
Onset: 1-2 mins
Duration: 30 mins

Question 9

Random control trial

Answer 9

Study subjects are randomly assigned to study/intervention group vs placebo/standard of care/control group.

Question 10

How to troubleshoot a low pressure alarm

Answer 10

• check tube placement
• check ET cuff pressure
• check circuit integrity

Question 11

Causes of low PEEP alarm

Answer 11

• pt working hard to suck air (adjust vCalc to 40-60)

Question 12

How to troubleshoot a high pressure alarm

Answer 12

• visual inspection (pt coughing, biting tube)
• auscultate (pneumo, tube displaced, bronchospasm, secretions)
• suction ET tube (non-visible secretions)
• inspect chest (subQ air, chest compression, hyperinflation)
• inspect the circuit (kinks, disconnect, sensor reversal)

Question 13

Alaris pump flow rate ranges

Answer 13

0.1 ml/min - 999 ml/min

Question 14

High pressure alarm setting

Answer 14

10 cm H2O above PIP

Question 15

Low pressure alarm setting

Answer 15

5 cmH2O above PEEP

Question 16

Minute volume alarm setting

Answer 16

10% below VE in L/min

Question 17

What are the controlled substances (according to government)?

Answer 17

Morphine, fentanyl, lorazepam, midazolam, ketamine

Question 18

What are the targeted substances?

Answer 18

Midazolam, lorazepam

Question 19

What are the controlled substances according to BCEHS?

Answer 19

Morphine, fentanyl, midazolam, lorazepam, ketamine, propofol, haloperidol.

Question 20

What schedules are each controlled substance under?

Answer 20

Morphine (I)
Fentanyl (I)
Ketamine (I)
Lorazepam (IV & benzo act)
Midazolam (IV & benzo act)

Question 21

What is the physiologic zone?

Answer 21

Area of the atmosphere that contains the oxygen content and barometric pressure for a healthy person to live.

(Sea level - 10,000’ or pressure of 520)

Question 22

What is the physiologically deficient zone?

Answer 22

The area of the atmosphere where the decreased barometric pressure can cause hypoxia hypoxemia.

(10,000-50,000’ or >520)

Question 23

What are the types of hypoxia?

Answer 23

Hypoxic
Histotoxic
Stagnant
Hypemic

Question 24

What is Boyle’s Law?

Answer 24

The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure to which it is subjected.

Question 25

What is Charles’ Law?

Answer 25

When pressure is constant, the volume of gas is proportional to its absolute temperature

Question 26

What is Dalton’s Law?

Answer 26

The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.

Question 27

What is Fick’s Law?

Answer 27

The net diffusion rate of a gas across a fluid membrane is proportional to the difference in partial pressure, proportional to the area of the membrane and inversely proportional to the thickness of the membrane.

Question 28

What is the Universal Gas Law?

Answer 28

How a hypothetical gas should act if there are no variables affecting it (a.k.a. Ideal gas law)

Question 29

What is Gay-Lussac’s Law?

Answer 29

The pressure of a gas when volume is maintained constant is directly proportional to the temperature.

Question 30

What is Graham’s Law?

Answer 30

The rate at which gases diffuse is related inversely to the square root of their densities.

Question 31

What is Henry’s Law?

Answer 31

The amount of gas in a solution varies directly with the partial pressure of a gas over the solution.

Question 32

What are the stages of hypoxia?

Answer 32

``` Indifferent stage (night vision affected) Compensatory stage (tachycardia, tachypnea, increased cardiac outpt) Disturbance stage (weakness, confusion, irritability) Critical stage (loss of consciousness, seizures, respiratory arrest, death) ```

Question 33

What is effective performance time?

Answer 33

The amount of time an individual is able to perform useful duties in an environment of inadequate oxygen.

Question 34

What is time of useful consciousness?

Answer 34

The time between a person’s sudden deprivation of oxygen at a given altitude to the point at which deliberate function is loss. A person is no longer capable of taking proper corrective or protective actions.

Question 35

What is the hierarchy of evidence?

Answer 35

1. Meta analyses 2. RCT with definitive results 3. RCT with non-definitive results 4. Cohort studies 5. Case-control studies 6. Cross-sectional surveys 7. Case reports

Question 36

What are the primary stressors of flight?

Answer 36

``` Vibrations/noise Decreased humidity Decreased PO2 G forces Thermochanges ```

Question 37

What are the characteristics of a good study question?

Answer 37

``` F - feasible I - interesting N - new E - ethical R - relevant ```

Question 38

What is specificity?

Answer 38

“Spin” is able to rule things in.

Question 39

What is sensitivity?

Answer 39

“Snout” the ability to rule things out.

Question 40

What are the complications of administering blood?

Answer 40

- anaphylaxis - hemolytic reaction - DIC - transfusion reaction - infection

Question 41

What is the definition of a massive transfusion?

Answer 41

4-6 units within 4 hours OR >10 units OR >1 blood volume in 24 hr period

Question 42

What are the signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction?

Answer 42

Fever Dyspnea Urticaria Hypotension

Question 43

What is transpulmonary pressure?

Answer 43

The difference between the alveolar pressure and pleural pressures. Airway pressure - intrapleural pressure = Transpulmonary pressure PPlat - ESB = transpulmonary pressure Should be < 25 cmH2O

Question 44

How many oscillations should you see on a square waveform test?

Answer 44

2. <2 = overdampened (pressure bag, poor site, air in line, loose connections) >2 = underdampened (non-compliant tubing, tachycardia)