Term 3 Flashcards
(84 cards)
1
Q
always take sample from ?
A
infected material
2
Q
Lowenstein Jensen culture is for?
A
Mycobacterium TB
3
Q
Macconkey agar is for
A
gram negative bacteria. it inhibits growth of +ve.
can see pink VS white parts for (lactose fermenting VS non lactose fermenting)
4
Q
name an example of target site modification.
what is it targeted by ?
A
- DNA gyrase
2. fluroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)
5
Q
what is metronidazole used to inhibit ?
effective against ?
A
- inhibits DNA synthesis
2. effective against anaerobes like Prevotella
6
Q
what are 3 preferred therapies?
A
- penicillin + metronidazole
- amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
- clindamycin (beta lactam allergy)
7
Q
Multidrug resistance:
1. MRSA is ?
- VRE is ?
- Cephalosporin resistant gram negatives?
- CRE is?
A
- MRSA: staph aures that is resistant to cloxacillin (pen resistant pen)
- VRE: enterococci resistant to vancomycin in gut
- Ceph resistant gram negatives: Ecoli, Kleb and ESBL
- CRE: carbapenem resistant enterobac
8
Q
difference between Enterobacterales and pseudomonads?
Oxidase ?
Where it is found?
A
- Enterobac= oxidase negative,
Pseudomonads= oxidase positive - Enterobac= found in Gi tract, plants and soil, transient in oral and oropharyngeal flora
Pseudomonads= found in wet env (dental unit water lines)
9
Q
name the enterobacterales
A
PEEKS
- proteus
- Enterobac
- E.coli
- Klebsiella
- Salmonella
10
Q
which one is found in stools, causes UTI and takes 20 misn to double?
A
E. coli
11
Q
which is hospital associated, has highest multidrug resistance?
A
- Klebsiella
and Enterobacter which is similar
12
Q
which causes liver abcesses in SEA ?
A
Klebsiella
13
Q
which has swarming motility and has waves in agar plate?
A
Proteus
14
Q
Where is salmonella usually found ?
A
- Developing countries
2. in contaminated food and drinks
15
Q
What are the 2 symptoms of P. Aeruginosa?
A
- Malignant otitis externa (diabetic patiens)
2. P. Aeruginosa sinusitis
16
Q
Which Pseudomonad is commonly found in dental unit water lines and causes hard to eradicate biofilms?
A
P. Aeruginosa
17
Q
Which antibiotic is Pseudomonads resistant to / susceptible to ?
A
resistant to ampicillin
susceptible to ceftazdime + cefepime
18
Q
what is 1 symptom of Burkholderia Pseudomallei?
A
- melloidosis
19
Q
Difference between legionella and neiserria
A
legionella is rods, neiserria is diplococci
20
Q
where is legionella commonly found?
A
- domestic water systems, shower heads, NOT in domestic aircom
- dental unit lines, water cooling towers, water sprinkles and industrial aircon
21
Q
What are 2 diseases caused by legionella?
A
- legionnaire’s disease
2. pontiac fever
22
Q
what causes lung infection ESPECIALLY in elderly?
A
L. pneumophilia
Legionella
23
Q
How is legionella diagnosed?
A
- antigen detection in urine
24
Q
which are 2 pathogenic neiserria
since most are non patho + commensals of oropharyngeal mucous membranes
A
- N. meningitidis
2. N. gonorrhoea
25
what are the symptoms of N. meningitis?
is it fatal?
1. bloodstream infections
2. meningitis
3. septicaemia
- > highly fatal
26
what are the symptoms of N. gonorrhoeae? (men VS women)
early infection is asymptomatic, sore throat, exudate and cervical lymphadenitis
men: painful lesions on penis, multiple oral swellings
women: infertility and genital infection
27
how to diagnose N. gonorrhoeae?
throat swab
28
what is a similarity between chlamydia and mycoplasma ?
both do not have cell wall = cannot take up gram stain
| penicillin resistance
29
how does chlamydia reproduce?
1. lacks ATP production
| 2. forms small intracellular inclusions in host cell
30
name the symptoms of chlamydia trachoma
| at least 4 symptoms
1. urethral discharge (microscope shows no organisms around mononuclear cells)
2. chronic pelvic pain
3. infertility (more common than Neiserria Gonorrhea)
4. scarring of conjunctiva = blindness
31
how do we diagnose chlamydia and mycoplasma ?
PCR
32
which group of people does mycoplasma affect ?
| M. pneumonia
children and young adults have highest prevalence
33
whats the immunity like after infection by chlamydia and mycoplasma ?
Both do not give immunity after infection
34
Is M. pneumonia deadly ?
what are some of its symptoms?
1. not fatal
2. tracheobroncholitis
3. atypical pneumonia **
35
between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae, which has early infection that is asymptomatic ?
N. gonorrhoeae
36
How do we test for Spirochetes if we cannot see it on light microscope?
dark background illumination, silver stain
37
spiral bacteria can cause periodontitis. How?
they are late colonisers on the dental plaque
| other late colonisers are spirochetes, gram -ve obligate anaerobic rods
38
what does
+ve TPHA/ EIA and +ve VDLR mean ?
+ve TPHA and -ve RPR mean ?
1. having syphillis currently
| 2. RPR -ve means had syphillis before but is now treated
39
what is the treatment for spiral bacteria ?
penicillin G
40
name the characteristics of stage 1 syphillis
chancre (painless)
| and sites are genital, anal and oropharyngeal
41
which stage is the highly contagious syphillis stage?
secondary syphillis
42
what are the 4 characteristics of secondary syphillis ?
1. haematogenous and lymphatic spread
2. mucocutaneous and systemic lesions
3. oral lesions like snail track ulcers and mucous patches that coalesce **
4. rashes **
43
what test should u conduct when u suspect it is seondary syphillis ?
EIA test for Trep pallidum AB
44
what happens at the tertiary stage of syphillis?
4 main things
1. gumma
2. oral leukoplakia (white patches on tongue)
3. neurpsyphillis (chronic meningoencephalitis)
4. Acute Necrotising Ulcer Gingivitis (ANUG)- vincent angina
45
When does Acute Necrotising Ulcer Gingivitis occur? which bacteria is it caused by ?
syphillis at tertiary stage
46
which stage does gumma appear?
tertiary stage of syphillis
47
dental anomalies of syphillis are?
1. Hutchinsons’ incisors
2. Moon’s molar
3. Mulberry molar
48
When will you see snail tract ulcers and mucous patches that coalesce?
secondary stage of syphillis infection
49
which bacteria causes peptic ulcer?
H. Pylori
50
what is the shape of staphylococci and result of catalase test?
1. cluster of grapes
| 2. catalase positive except for S epidermis
51
what is the shape of streptococci and the result of its catalase test ?
1. in pairs/ in long chain (except strep pneumoniae)
| 2. catalase negative
52
Which bacteria causes infective endocarditis?
1. Viridans Strep (especially S mutans)
53
which bacteria is pus forming ?
Strep anginosus
54
which bacteria is colonic cancer causing?
strep bovis
55
for endocarditis prophylaxis we can give which drug?
amoxicillin
56
Which staph strain cannot be treated by cloxacillin ?
MRSA
57
what mechanism makes staph cause systemic toxic shock syndrome?
B subunit of superantigen that binds to antigen receptor, and causing hyperactive immunity
58
name the syndroms that staph can cause (a to f)
a) acute parotitis
b) angular chelitis in denture wearers
c) severe sloughing and peeling of skin
d) cellulitis
e) impetigo (honey crusted)
f) intertrigo (folds)
59
which 2 bacteria causes soft tissue infections?
1. staph aures
| 2. group A strep
60
which bacteria is an early coloniser, pionner organism after tooth erupts?
streptococci
61
which bacteria has the least potential to produce beta lactamase?
S pyogenes (group A strep)
62
which bacteria breaks down RBC completely and is beta hemolytic ?
S pyogenes (group A strep)
63
which bacteria partially breaks down RBC and is alpha hemolytic?
Viridans strep
64
which bacteria is the classical cause of community acquired pneumonia ? (CAP)
S. pneumoniae
65
which bacteria has no vaccine and is NOT vancomycin resistant?
S. pyogenes
66
which bacteria is most abundant on enamel?
S. mutans (produces lactic acid and prevent caries)
67
what does S.pyogenes result in ? (5 things)
1. acute tonsilitis
2. rheumatic fever
3. autoantibodies act against cardiac tissues (rheumatic heart disease)
4. necrotising fascilitis
5. lymphangitis
68
what is the 1st and 2nd window for S. mutans on enamel?
1st window: 6-36 months
2nd window: 6-11years
this is where there is high prevelance of S.mutans on enamel and saliva
69
which bacteria are involved in osteomyelitis?
1. staph aureus
| 2. strep A
70
where is common location affected for Haematogenous osteomyelitis (HO) in children and in adults?
HO in children: long bones
| HO in adults: vertebral bodies like lumbar, thoracic and cervical
71
which bacteria causes septic arthritis?
staph aureus
72
Where can cryptococcus neoformans result from?
natural soil with bird droppings
73
what can cryptococcus neoforms result in ?
meningitis
| in weaker patients (HIV/ immunocompromsied)
74
where can candida albicans be found?
commensal and GIT and vagina
75
what do most candida albicans produce ?
most produce germ tubes (positive in germ tube test)
76
where can aspergillosis be found ?
in air around us everywhere
77
which fungi causes: 1. angular chelitis in dentures, 2.denture stomatitis, 3. white vaginal discharge with itch ?
candida albicans
78
which fungi causes fatal neumonia in patients with severe neutropenia (low neutrophil count)
aspergillosis
79
Name 3 symptoms that candida albicans can result in:
1. chronic hyperplastic candida can have malignant change = cancer
2. orophrayngeal candidiasis (oral thrush, associated with HIV)
3. denture stomatitis
80
which drug should we use to counter candida albicans?
Nystatin
81
which fungi in peanuts can give aflatoxin ? and cause cancer?
Aspergillosis
82
which fungi is called a lid lifter bc it grows fast?
Zygomycosis
83
name 2 results of zygomycosis infection
1. rhinocerebral mucormycosis (in diabetics)
| 2. lesion of maxillary sinus
invasion of palate
84
where are dimorphic fungi (endemic mycoses) usually found?
SEA
