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Small Animal Infectious Diseases > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What value on PCR can help rule out if an infection is old or not

A

The Ct value, if the value is less than 29 it means the PCR had to go through less than 29 cycles for the fluorescent signal to cross through the back group level which means there was less amplification so there was a more recent infection/strong positive/larger pathogenic load
38-40 is a weak reaction/lower pathogenic load

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2
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect immunoassays

A

Direct the antigen in the test binds the antibody (if present in the sample)
Indirect- there is an antigen with antibody bound in the test and it binds another antibody

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3
Q

What can antibody testing tell you

A

If there is IgM there is a recent infection and if there is IgG there is a longer term/ past infection

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4
Q

What are diseases that people can give to animals called

A

Anthroponses

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5
Q

What type of tests are used to screen a population

A

You want a test with a higher sensitivity because you want to rule out disease, you are more likely to pick up all the infected, no false negatives

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6
Q

What type of tests are better for confirming a diagnosis

A

Tests with a higher specificity because you want to rule in disease, more likely to pick up all the healthy animals and not have false positives

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7
Q

What is an adjuvant

A

Anything added to a vaccine to produce a heightened immune response

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8
Q

Explain the window of susceptibility

A

The time when the maternal antibodies are low enough that they will not interfere with the vaccination and the puppies own antibodies are not quite high enough to be able to fight off an infection- this is the time we are trying to get a vaccine into the puppy and it is why we give boosters because we aren’t quite sure when this window is in each individual

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9
Q

What type of disease are non-core vaccines usually for

A

Low risk or mild to moderate diseases

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10
Q

Do we have a good idea of how frequently adverse vaccine events occur and what is an adverse vaccine event

A

No they are often under reported and an adverse vaccine event is an undesirable side effect or unintended effect associated with the administration of a licensed biological product (vaccine)

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11
Q

Explain a titer result

A

The greater the number the higher amount of antibody present because it is a larger dilution and still seeing antibodies present

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12
Q

What are the core vaccines for dogs

A

Rabies, DHP (distemper, parvo, hepatitis aka adenovirus, parainfluenza)

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13
Q

T/F when you give a rabies vaccine there is always immediate immunity as defined by law

A

No, it depends, for example after the first vaccine ever there isn’t immunity until 28 days by law but after the second vaccine there is immediate immunity

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14
Q

What should you tell an owner is a possible repercussion if their dog is not up to date on their rabies vaccine

A

That the dog may be subject to quarantine if it bites someone

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15
Q

How should you administer a rabies vaccination

A

Administer either a 1 or 3 year rabies vaccine no earlier than 12 weeks (and for booster you can give the 3 year before 1 year as a booster), many practices use the rabies vaccine as bait to finish all the other vaccines and give it at 16 weeks

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16
Q

How many doses should be given of DAPP/DHPP in puppies

A

Initial vaccination-
When they are between 6-16 weeks they need 3 doses of the vaccine given 2-4 weeks apart
When they are over 16 weeks they are given 2 doses 2-4 weeks apart
Then they are revaccinated with a single dose within 1 year following the last dose of the initial series and they they can get boosters every 3 years

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17
Q

How is distemper spread

A

By unvaccinated animals and wildlife

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18
Q

What are clinical signs of Distemper

A

Respiratory signs, ocular and nasal changes, then neurological signs and thickened footpads

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19
Q

What type of vaccine is distemper and why is this a disadvantage

A

MLV, it is vulnerable to inactivation after reconstitution, the virus may revert to cause disease in rare cases

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20
Q

A puppy has been recently vaccinated with DHPP and the owner wants you do to a parvovirus test because she is so nervous (she lost her last puppy to parvo) what do you tell her?

A

The vaccine can actually make the Fecal ELISA test positive for up to 14 days after vaccination, so it wouldn’t show us much but if the puppy isn’t showing clinical signs and she is keeping the puppy away from other areas with dogs she should be okay

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21
Q

What is used in the vaccine for Canine adenovirus (infectious canine hepatitis)

A

We use the CAV-2 (causes upper respiratory signs) in the modified live vaccine because it gives protection against CAV-1 (which is the one that causes hepatitis) without the “blue eye” reaction

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22
Q

When vaccinating for canine adenovirus what is important to know about choosing the type of CAV2 vaccine

A

The intranasal CAV-2 vaccine does not protect against infectious canine hepatitis!

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23
Q

What are noncore vaccines in dogs

A

Parainfluenza, bordetella bronchiseptica and burgdorferi, Canine influenza, Coronavirus, Leptospirosis, Giardia

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24
Q

The parenteral vaccine for parainfluenza (part of DHPP) will not prevent what?

A

Infection or shedding of the pathogen

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25
Q

What is important to remember with the intranasal form of the bordetella vaccine

A

The intranasal vaccine can not be administered parenterally! It can cause severe reactions

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26
Q

What influenza vaccine should you use

A

The bivalent vaccine!

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27
Q

How early can you give the vaccine for Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme)

A

As early as 8-9 weeks

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28
Q

What is the best method of protection against Lyme

A

Tick control!

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29
Q

What dogs are at risk for leptospirosis

A

An outdoor dog, a dog with access to wildlife or contaminated water sources, maybe should even be a core vaccine

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30
Q

What non-core vaccines are not recommended/ not every helpful

A

Corona virus (poorly effected), giardia (may prevent shedding but doesn’t prevent infection), rattlesnake vaccine (doesn’t seen to do much)

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31
Q

How early can you vaccinate cats

A

After 4 weeks of age

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32
Q

What are the core vaccines for cats

A

Rabies and FVRCP (feline herpes virus, calicivirus, panleukopenia virus)

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33
Q

What are the differences between the immunity acquired from the FVRCP vaccine

A

Feline panleukopenia gives sterilizing immunity and the feline herpes virus and calicivirus just reduce the severity of the disease but can not provide sterilizing immunity

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34
Q

What is the goal of the feline herpes virus vaccine

A

To decrease the frequency and severity of clinical signs (URIs), but doesn’t prevent them all together)

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35
Q

What is the preferred route of administration for feline calicivirus vaccination and why

A

SQ, reduces patient discomfort and possibly earlier diagnosis of injection site sarcoma

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36
Q

When do FPV, FHV, and FCV provide protective immunity

A

7-10 days following the second dose

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37
Q

What are the feline non-core vaccines

A

Feline Leukemia Virus, Bordetella, Chlamydia

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38
Q

What must you do before giving cats the Feline leukemia vaccine (FeLV)

A

Test the cats prior to administration

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39
Q

Which vaccine in cats is considered a core vaccine for kittens and not for adults

A

Feline Leukemia Virus

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40
Q

Will the FeLV vaccine cause a false positive on a snap test

A

No

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41
Q

What feline vaccine does cause a false positive on a snap test

A

FIV, so the vaccine isn’t recommended/ isn’t even available in America anymore

42
Q

What is a risk of the Chlamydia vaccine

A

It may be associated with a higher risk of adverse events, also it doesn’t provide complete protection

43
Q

Where should you avoid giving a cat a vaccine and why

A

Between the shoulders, also on the rump, you want to think of areas where it would be hard to remove a sarcoma

44
Q

What is the rule for when to worry about a lump (worrying it may be an injection site sarcoma)

A

3- mass has persisted for 3 months or longer
2- the mass becomes larger than 2 cm in diameter
1- the mass continues to increase in size 1 mont after injection

45
Q

What type of virus is FeLV (in terms of outer covering and genome)

A

RNA Enveloped- easy to disinfect and requires reverse transcriptase because it is a provirus

46
Q

What is the gene (antigen) that will be present with a positive FeLV snap test

A

P27

47
Q

There are 4 subgroups of FeLV, which one is almost always present and why

A

FeLV-A is always present because the others (B and C) require it to replicate (there is also a T subgroup but it is less important)

48
Q

How is FeLV transmitted

A

Via saliva- requires close contact with others- usually spread via grooming, bowl sharing, or sometimes through fighting
Vertical transmission from queen to kittens via grooming or transplacentally q

49
Q

Explain the abortive infection of FeLV

A

The virus is halted by immune system from continuing to replicate, may still be p27 positive and provirus positive but the virus is quickly cleared and the cat does not become viremic and the cat would be antibody negative

50
Q

Explain the regressive form of infection of FeLV

A

There is an initial infection and viral replication, the cat is antigen, provirus, and antibody positive and there is an initial viremia however the virus is contained before or shortly after bone marrow infection
The virus is integrated into the genome if the cat can’t terminate the viremia within 3 weeks, will have clinical signs and during this time will be shedding virus and will be positive on the antigen test

51
Q

What is defined as a progressive infection of FeLV

A

If the virus persists for greater than 16 weeks and the cat is persistently viremic and infectious
The virus is replicating and the antigen test will remain positive

52
Q

What type of FeLV infection can cause viral replication without a positive test

A

Focal or atypical infection- infection restricted to certain tissues

53
Q

If a cat tests positive for FeLV antigen (ELISA) test (SNAP test) why should you bother repeating the test in another 6 weeks and then 10 weeks
What is another alternative other than repeating a SNAP test

A

To determine if the viremia is transient or persistent
You could also do a direct FA antigen test on blood or bone marrow because it will be positive after infection of the bone marrow (only use to rule in or out progressive infection not as a screening test because it will take several weeks to show a positive)

54
Q

How is FIV spread

A

Via saliva or blood, primarily through bite or fight wounds

55
Q

What is the difference between the acute and terminal phase of FIV

A

Acute has non-specific clinical signs like fever, malaise, enteritis, dermatitis, and lymphadenopathy
Terminal is more like AIDS- secondary infections, huge risk for neoplasia, myelosuppression, immunosupression, neurological signs, ocular signs, stomatitis, wasting

56
Q

The status of what diseases should be known according to the AAFP

A

FeLV and FIP

57
Q

What do the FIV tests look for

A

Antibodies in the blood

58
Q

What are 2 problems with FIV testing

A

There is no way to distinguish between the vaccine and a natural infection if the test is positive and if there is an early infection (before 60 days) the cat may have
a false negative

59
Q

what causes FIP and what type of virus is it

A

Feline coronavirus and it is an enveloped RNA virus

60
Q

Does feline coronavirus directly cause FIP

A

Nope, many cats can have coronavirus and some will have an immune mediated vasculitis that is highly fatal as a reaction to the coronavirus (what is called FIP)

61
Q

What are common epidemiological factors that increase FIP prevalence

A

High density and stress and cats younger than 2 years old

62
Q

What exactly is FIP histologically

A

A pyogranulomatous vasculitis

63
Q

What are the 2 forms of FIP

A

Wet and dry- wet causes fluid and plasma to leak and cause effusions and the dry causes granulomas that damage organs and will often cause ocular signs (ex. retinal granulomas) in almost all cases!

64
Q

What is typical bloodwork changes associated with FIP

A

Lymphopenia, non-regenerative anemia, thrombocytopenia, decreased albumin, increases globulins (low A:G ratio), high total protein

65
Q

Are the Serum Coronavirus titer tests a good test for FIP

A

No, they measure for feline coronavirus and many cats have feline coronavirus and don’t get FIP

66
Q

What is a good test for FIP

A

In effusive FIP using FA (fluorescent antigen) staining on the effusions

67
Q

What are the 2 common viral pathogens that contribute to feline upper respiratory tract infections

A

Feline herpesvirus-1 and feline calicivirus

68
Q

In feline URIs what cause the primary infection typically and what can increase the disease severity

A

Viral infections are usually the primary infection and then a co-infection with an opportunistic pathogen such as mycoplasma species, bordetella, or chlamydia can make it worse

69
Q

A cat presents with mucopurulent discharge from its eyes and most and a fever, is this a feline URI from a primary viral infection

A

No, this is a secondary (most likely bacterial) infection that the cat has aquired after the primary and co-infections made it more susceptible

70
Q

What are common bacteria that cause a secondary infection in a feline URI

A

Streptococcus, staphylococcus, Pasturella, and E. coli

71
Q

How are feline URIs spread

A

Through oculi-nasal and oral secretions via close/direct contact or through fomites

72
Q

What type of virus is Feline Herpesvirus (FHV-1) aha Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

A

An enveloped dsDNA herpesvirus

73
Q

T/F most cats are exposed to FHV-1

A

True

74
Q

A cat that is exposed to FHV-1 may have what symptoms

A

URTI, Dendritic ulcers in the eye, ulcerative, eosinophilic dermatitis around the eyes and nose

75
Q

A cat will usually become what when infected with FHV-1

A

A latent carrier with the virus dormant in the trigeminal ganglia

76
Q

When does recrudescence usually occur with FHV-1 and what does that mean

A

Usually is the cat is stressed or put on steroids or other immunosuppressives, may also be called a flare up and the virus will move down the ganglia and begin replicating and being shed again and the cat will have clinical signs

77
Q

How soon will a cat begin shedding FHV-1 after being exposed and how long is the incubation period

A

The cat can start shedding in 24 hours but the incubation period before showing clinical signs is 2-6 days

78
Q

What type of virus is feline calicivirus and what does this mean clinically

A

An unenveloped ssRNA virus (so it can survive outside the host for prolonged periods and is resistant to disinfection)

79
Q

What is the breakdown of the typical percentages of cats shedding calicivirus

A

45% shed for 30 days or less and then are done, 45% shed for over 75 days, and 10% are chronic carriers and will shed for life

80
Q

What clinical signs will you typically see with FCV (feline calicivirus)

A

URTIs and possibly ulcerations around and in the mouth and nose

81
Q

What is uncommon to see with feline calicivirus, but causes high mortality

A

Virulent Systemic FCV- a unique and uncommon FCV strain, causes multi systemic signs- URTI plus Hepatopathy, pneumonia, ulceration, fever, weight loss, coaulopathy

82
Q

What does chlamydia felis cause

A

Conjunctivitis in young cats

83
Q

What is the preferred method of organism identification for URTIs

A

A PCR on a oro-pharyngeal and maybe also a conjunctival swab (esp. if thinking chlamydia)

84
Q

T/F you will often need antibiotics for a feline URTI

A

No! The most common are viral infections that will resolve on their own without therapy

85
Q

What 2 antibiotics would be best to use in a secondary infection in a feline URTI. How about a bacterial co-infection

A

Secondary- Fluoroquinolones or beta-lactams
Co-infections- doxycycline

86
Q

Is L-lysine a good drug to use in cats for URTIs

A

Not really, it may work only on FHV-1 but it works by competing with viruses for arginine and so it requires an arginine restricted diet in cats which you can’t do (essential amino acid)

87
Q

What are the benefits and disadvantages to using famciclovir

A

Benefits- works to reduce viral replication, shedding, and improve clinical signs faster with infections from FHV-1 and FCV
Disadvantages- works well only if taken early so may not see animal soon enough for it to be beneficial unless you get owners to watch for signs and have a script they can always fill, it needs to be given 1-3x a day for 10-21 days

88
Q

Is the FVRCP vaccine 100% protective

A

No but it can reduce disease severity and duration of signs

89
Q

What is the schedule for kittens for the FVRCP vaccine and should queens be vaccinated/boostered

A

Begin the series at 6-8 weeks, then booster every 3-4 weeks until they are 16 weeks old and then give a booster 1 year after and give 3 year boosters throughout life
You should vaccinate queens BEFORE mating

90
Q

What are 3 disinfectants your practice can use to prevent the spread of pathogens associated with feline URTIs

A

DIlute bleach, potassium peroxymonosulfate, Accelerated hydrogen peroxide

91
Q

What are 2 viruses that are part of the canine respiratory disease complex (he had these 2 in bold but there are obviously others)

A

Parainfluenza virus and Adenovirus-2
(Also had listed on the slide Herpesvirus-1, distemper, respiratory coronavirus, pneumovirus and influenza virus but they weren’t bolded)

92
Q

What are common bacteria to cause a co-infection in the Canine infectious disease complex (CIRDC)

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica, mycoplasma spp, streptococcus equi ss. Zooepidemicus

93
Q

Compare and contrast the type of virus and the area it typically replicates between parainfluenza virus and Adenovirus type-2

A

Parainfluenza virus is an enveloped ssRNA virus and typically replicates in the upper airway
Adenovirus type-2 is a non-enveloped dsDNA virus and typically replicates in the upper and lower airways

94
Q

What type of bacteria is bordetella bronchiseptica and where does it typically inhabit and what are its virulence factors

A

It is a gram negative aerobe what colonizes the ciliated respiratory epithelium (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles) and can paralyze cilia, impair phagocytic function, and can invade intracellularly to avoid immune detection

95
Q

Where are mycoplasma spp. typically colonizing and what makes them difficult to culture

A

They are more in the lower respiratory tract in ciliates and non-ciliated epithelium and they lack a cell wall

96
Q

What is the transmission of pathogens in the CIRDC

A

They are highly contageous and are spread via respiratory secretions via close, direct contact or aerosolization, and maybe fomites

97
Q

What is the incubation period for pathogens in the CIRDC generally

A

7 days

98
Q

What are the clinical signs of CIRDC

A

Harsh, loud, dry cough that is typically non-productive and are otherwise healthy

99
Q

How long do dogs with CIRDC shed and how soon

A

Typically can start shedding within 24 hours and shed for less than 1 week to 2 weeks however there are exceptions that shed much longer (bordetella, mycoplasma, and distemper)

100
Q

What is the best way to identify specific pathogens from the CIRDC

A

Oropharyngeal/ nasal swab for PCR (or for influenza a deep swab and for distemper a conjunctival swab)

If you need something for culture you can so a airway wash

Small Animal Infectious Diseases (2 decks)

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