Test 1

Question 1

What is the definition of a Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?

Answer 1

Predesignated points along the axis of advance or evacuation routes planned at the Role 1 level.

Question 2

What are the planning factors to consider in determining the need for an AXP?

Answer 2

Casualty estimates, availability of evacuation assets, security, and communications.

Question 3

How many platoons are in the MEDEVAC company? How are the platoons broken down?

Answer 3

5 Platoons: 1 ASMP and 4 FSMP

Question 4

Golden Hour Summary

Answer 4

+15 min: MEDEVAC Launch +20 min Enroute Flight +5 min Ground Time +20 min Enroute Flight =60 min

Question 5

Who determines mission feasibility? Approves at specific risk level?

Answer 5

Mission Launch Approval

Question 6

Name the four members of the MEDEVAC crew?

Answer 6

PC (Pilot-in-command) PI (Pilot) CE (Crew Chief) MO (Flight Medic)

Question 7

Flight Surgeon is a nonrated crewmember (NRCM)? True/False?

Answer 7

FALSE

Question 8

The ECCN Role when available is to supervise the MO during MEDEVAC missions? True/ False?

Answer 8

FALSE

Question 9

Commander’s program for training combat-ready rated and nonrated aviation crew members?

Answer 9

Aircrew Training Program (ATP)

Question 10

To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight every ____ days?

Answer 10

60 days

Question 11

The ATP developed the APART requirements to test what?

Answer 11

Annual Proficiency

Question 12

How many hours a month must you fly to maintain flight pay?

Answer 12

4 hours a month (RA) 2 hours a month in a calendar year

Question 13

How many aircraft in a FSMP?

Answer 13

3 aircraft

Question 14

After beginning progression, what RL level is fully mission capable?

Answer 14

RL 1 (Readiness Level 1)

Question 15

When is APART conducted

Answer 15

Three month period ending in the last day of ACM’s birth month.

Question 16

What are the safety features provided by the aircraft in the event of a crash?

Answer 16

1: The aircraft structural shell (Fuselage) 2: Landing Gear 3: Crashworthy Seats 4: Personnel Restrain System 5: Post-Crash Factors

Question 17

How much energy can be absorbed by the dual stage strut in the UH-60 Blackhawk?

Answer 17

39 feet/second or ~11.25G’s of energy

Question 18

Approved clothing and equipment authorized by AR 95-1?

Answer 18

1: Leather Boots 2: Flight Helmet 3: Flight Suit 4: Flight Gloves 5: Cotton, wool, or NOMEX underwear 6: ID Tags

Question 19

Purpose of the HGU-56/P Chinstrap?

Answer 19

Assists in holding the helmet in place for the wearer.

Question 20

What can you use to clean the outer shell of the HGU-56/P?

Answer 20

Mild soap and a soft non-abrasive cloth

Question 21

Why is it important not to starch the Aircrew uniform?

Answer 21

Reduces flame resistant capabilities

Question 22

What is the purpose of removing any pin on badges before entering the flight line?

Answer 22

Helps mitigate the potential for “Foreign objects debris” (FOD) associated with army accidents.

Question 23

What are the uses a crewmember can use the safety restraint tether and extraction strap?

Answer 23

The Only authorized uses of these two straps are for emergency extraction purposes only.

Question 24

On the GEN III, PSGC how many platforms does the air warrior vest have available for the ACM to use?

Answer 24

There are two platforms on the GEN III PSGC: First Aid and Signaling Platform

Question 25

What can happen as a result of inappropriate procedures and unsafe acts around an aircraft?

Answer 25

Death or injury

Question 26

What are the Danger Areas of the UH-60 and where are they located?

Answer 26

12 O'clock (nose), Exhaust, and Tail Rotor

Question 27

Procedure for emergency engine shutdown?

Answer 27

Engine PCL off, Engine fuel system selector off, Fuel boost pump switches off

Question 28

What is the rotor brake used for?

Answer 28

To stop or hold the rotor during start and shutdown. Rotor stop during and emergency.

Question 29

The power control levers and fuel selectors are located on what console?

Answer 29

The upper console

Question 30

Some required safety items on board a UH-60

Answer 30

Fire Extinguisher Crash Axe First Aid Kit

Question 31

How are Emergency Exit Handles Labeled?

Answer 31

Black and Red or Black and Yellow

Question 32

What is the definition of FOD?

Answer 32

Foreign Object and Debris

Question 33

How often should a FOD check be completed?

Answer 33

Weekly PreFlight PostFlight

Question 34

Name some hazardous noise?

Answer 34

1: You must raise your voice to be heard. 2: You can't hear someone speaking from two feet away. 3:Ringing or Pain (tinnitus) after exposure to noise.

Question 35

The surgeon general's maximum level of continuous unprotected exposure to steady-state noise for 8 hours?

Answer 35

85 decibels

Question 36

Sources of vibration?

Answer 36

Increased speed internal and external loading Environmental factors Transition from hover to cruise

Question 37

Long term effects of vibration?

Answer 37

Backache bones organs

Question 38

Examples of toxic substances in an Aviation environment?

Answer 38

Fuel solvents degreasers lubricants hydraulic fluids fire extinguishers composites and plastics

Question 39

how to protect yourself from toxic substances

Answer 39

1: Wear of PPE 2: Prevent contamination of flight suit 3: Smoke/ eat only in authorized areas 4: hand washing decreases toxic ingestion

Question 40

Significance of altitude with respect to atmospheric pressures exerted on the body?

Answer 40

Total atmospheric pressure exerted on the body and partial pressure of oxygen decrease as the altitude increase

Question 41

what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level in mmHg?

Answer 41

760 mmHg

Question 42

What are the physiologic zones of the atmosphere

Answer 42

Efficient: 0-10,000 Deficient: 10,000-50,000 Equivalent: >50,000

Question 43

Type of hypoxia caused by a reduction of PO2 in lungs?

Answer 43

Hypoxic Hypoxia

Question 44

Type of hypoxia caused by a decrease in oxygen carrying capacity of blood?

Answer 44

Hypemic Hypoxia

Question 45

True/ False: Wet gases expand more than dry gases?

Answer 45

True. Wet gases expand 3X as much as dry gases

Question 46

True/ False: Sinus bloc most often occurs on descent?

Answer 46

TRUE

Question 47

What type of DCS involves larger joints, such as knees and shoulders and a dull pain that progresses if ascent continues?

Answer 47

Type I Bends (Pain in joints: Bends0

Question 48

Type of hypoxia that results in the reduction in total cardiac output, pooling of blood. or restriction of blood flow?

Answer 48

stagnant hypoxia

Question 49

what type of hypoxia is caused by poisoning of the cytochrome oxidase enzyme system?

Answer 49

Histotoxic Hypoxia

Question 50

What type of DCS has symptoms occurring in the thorax, described as burning stabbing pain and inhalation becoming markedly deeper, dry cough with a sensation of suffocation, bluish skin, and very rare in aviation?

Answer 50

Type II

Question 51

Henry's law is important to aviators why?

Answer 51

Decompression Sickness (DCS)

Question 52

What organization investigates human factors in aviation safety, aircraft design, and aviation mishaps?

Answer 52

The USACRC

Question 53

what organization conducts research on aviation life support equipment?

Answer 53

USAARL

Question 54

Who is the rated crewmember within the medical healthcare team?

Answer 54

Flight Surgeon

Question 55

Who is SME for human factors related to accident investigations?

Answer 55

Aeromedical Psychologist

Question 56

what is the aviation medicine program designed to do?

Answer 56

Promote and maintain the aviation fighting force through health promotion

Question 57

How often is a comprehensive FDME performed?

Answer 57

every 5 years between the ages if 20-50

Question 58

How many birth month extensions can be requested and granted?

Answer 58

A one time extension may be granted by the provider.

Question 59

What type of aeromedical provider can sign a DD 2992?

Answer 59

Flight Surgeon Aeromedical PA (APA) Aeromedical Nurse Practitioner (AMNP) Aviation medical examiner

Question 60

Who requires a Flight Surgeon counter-signature if the physical was complete by an Army Aeromedical provider?

Answer 60

All OTHER DOD components

Question 61

Can a permanent disqualifying condition change into a requalifying condition?

Answer 61

yes, all criteria for the condition must be met in the APL and a waiver is submitted for approval of the condition.

Question 62

Who approves a waiver for flight personnel in the USAR

Answer 62

Army HRC-Pay Incentive Branch

Question 63

Recreational diving risk with flying?

Answer 63

Potential to cause DCS

Question 64

Wait to fly timeframe after flu shot?

Answer 64

minimum 12 hours

Question 65

Organizations maintaining aviation medical standards?

Answer 65

AAMA, US Combat Readiness Center, USAARL, DAM

Question 66

Timeframe FDME or FDHS must be started and completed

Answer 66

during your three month birth month window

Question 67

Final approving authority of a DD Form 2992?

Answer 67

Unit Commander

Question 68

Difference between a temporary and permanent medical disqualification?

Answer 68

temporary: <365 days permanent: >365 days

Question 69

Definition of inertia?

Answer 69

Resistance to change the state of rest or motion.

Question 70

If the rate of onset of acceleration increases, the severity of the effect on the body will....?

Answer 70

increase

Question 71

if body area or size increases, the severity of acceleration on the body will....?

Answer 71

Decrease

Question 72

low-magnitude acceeration

Answer 72

1-10 G's lasting for several seconds

Question 73

high-magnitude acceleration

Answer 73

>10G for <1sec

Question 74

True/ False: a Positive G maneuver will cause a "Red Out" for the pilot?

Answer 74

False: Positive G: Black Out Negative G: Red Out

Question 75

True/ False: Decelerative forces can cause incapacitation of the ACM?

Answer 75

TRUE

Question 76

Aircraft Occupant Survivability Criteria?

Answer 76

The Amount of force transmitted to Occupiable living spaces and aircraft design features

Question 77

What acronym describes design features that enhance crash survivability?

Answer 77

CREEP

Question 78

what is spatial disorientation?

Answer 78

Erroneous perception of position, attitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical and the earth surface.

Question 79

Major cause of spatial disorientation?

Answer 79

Orientation illusion

Question 80

Environmental factors part of DVE?

Answer 80

Fog smoke dust snow rain sea spray low illumination

Question 81

Corrective measure to be utilized if you recognize spatial disorientation?

Answer 81

announce SD and transfer controls and utilize instruments and reference points to gain bearings

Question 82

What self-imposed stressor can have effects on the vestibular system if residual effects are still present?

Answer 82

alcohol

Question 83

Central vision field of view

Answer 83

30-40 degrees

Question 84

Plane landing at a private grass airstrip touched down short of runway, what spatial disorientation have you experienced?

Answer 84

Size Distance Illusion

Question 85

Visual illusion caused by tall wavy grass that makes the pilot continuously put inputs into the flight controls

Answer 85

Induced Motion

Question 86

True/ False: A false horizon sensory illusion causing the pilot to use the sloping clod layer as the horizontal reference can cause SD?

Answer 86

TRUE

Question 87

Part of the vestibular system causes somatgyral illusions?

Answer 87

Semicircular Canals

Question 88

The corolis illusion would most likely cause what type of SD?

Answer 88

Type 3 SD: Incapacitating

Question 89

False perception of position or motion caused by the discordant or erroneous orientation information?

Answer 89

Orientation Illusion

Question 90

Most dangerous type of SD

Answer 90

Type I SD: Unrecognized

Question 91

Most dangerous of all Vestibular Illusions?

Answer 91

Coriolis Illusion

Question 92

Chemical that allows us to see black, white, and gray colors at night?

Answer 92

Rhodopsin

Question 93

Medical condition caused as a result of the eyes focal point is "behind" the retinal plane or wall, causing blurred vision?

Answer 93

Hyperopia (Farsightedness)

Question 94

Medical Condition caused by the stiffening and loss of elasticity of the cornea as we age?

Answer 94

Presbyopia

Question 95

Surgical procedure is less likely to cause permanent vision change due to the thinness of the flap?

Answer 95

LASEK

Question 96

Three corneal refractive surgeries

Answer 96

PRK, LASIK, LASEK

Question 97

Type of vision experienced on dimly it nights, causes loss of color perception, and requires peripheral vision and recognition of object silhouettes?

Answer 97

Scotopic

Question 98

Vision type "most Dangerous"?

Answer 98

Mesopic

Question 99

Most important cue to depth perception?

Answer 99

Motion Parallax

Question 100

What does GRAM stand for?

Answer 100

Geometric Perspective, Retinal Image Size, Aerial Perspective, Motion Parallax

Question 101

Average time required for dark adaptation?

Answer 101

30-45 minutes

Question 102

Four types of flight hazards?

Answer 102

Bird Strike Laser Nerve Agents Solar Glare

Question 103

Self-imposed stressor will make ACM's likely to stare at objects and neglect proper scanning techniques?

Answer 103

Alcohol use