Test 1 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Which muscle separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?
A
Diaphragm
2
Q
Which projection is usually included in an acute abdominal series?
A
PA chest
AP with patient supine
AP with patient upright
3
Q
Where does the central ray (CR) enter for the anteroposterior (AP) projection, erect position of the abdomen?
A
Two inches above the iliac crest, midsagittal plane
4
Q
what aspect is not demonstrated in the anteroposterior (AP) projection, supine position of the abdomen?
A
Free air and free fluid levels
5
Q
Why is a lateral decubitus image of the abdomen ordered?
A
To visualize air-fluid levels
6
Q
Why is a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph included in the three-view abdominal series?
A
Visualize free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm
7
Q
During an air- contrast barium enema, which projection or position best demonstrates the right colic flexure and the ascending and sigmoid portion of the colon?
A
Left posterior oblique (LPO)
8
Q
In what view is an opaque foreign body visualize in the proximal portion of the esophagus?
A
Soft tissue neck
Lateral cervical spine
9
Q
Where is the central ray directed for a 15 to 30 minute posteroanterior projection of a small bowl series?
A
About 2 inches above the iliac crest
10
Q
The patient is ready to start a double-contrast esophagram. After taking a scout film, what is the next step the radiographer should take?
A
Direct the patient to ingest carbon dioxide crystals
11
Q
The discovery of x-rays occurred in what year?
A
1895
12
Q
What is leakage radiation?
A
Radiation emitted by the x-ray tube through the tube housing
13
Q
What is the unit of measurement for the radiation-absorbed dose?
A
Gray
14
Q
During which stage of life cycle of a human cell is the cell most radiosensitive?
A
Mitosis
15
Q
Which of these are stochastic effects of radiation exposure? Select all
Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects
Hematologic syndrome
Central nervous system syndrome
A
Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects
16
Q
Which of these statements are true with respect to deterministic effects of radiation? Select all
These effects are manifested slowly
These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects are observed over long period
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation
A
These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation
17
Q
What is the unit used to measure the amount of energy absorbed in any medium?
A
Radiation absorbed dose (rad)
18
Q
What is the genetic doubling dose?
A
The radiation dose that produces twice the frequency of mutations that would have otherwise occurred naturally
19
Q
What is the genetically significant dose (GSD)?
A
The gonad dose that would produce a total genetic effects on the population as the sum of individual dose received.
20
Q
What are the specific somatic effects of long-term radiation? Select all
Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation
Bone marrow syndrome
Gastrointestinal syndrome
Central nervous syndrome
A
Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation
21
Q
Which characteristic of a radiographic image refers to the ability to image small objects that have high contrast?
A
Spatial resolution
22
Q
Which function of digital image postprocessing helps improve image contrast in by removing structures to make other structures more visible?
A
Subtraction
23
Q
What can a radiologic technologist do to reduce focal spot blur?
A
Use a small focal spot
24
Q
Which term is used to describe a numerical value that is representative of the exposure that the image receptor has received?
A
Exposure indicator
25
Which artifact is unique to digital radiography?
Pixel faliure
26
Which action by a radiologic technologist is most likely to result in a complaint of assault?
Threatened the patient by saying that a panful examination will be repeated.
27
What is the most likely reason for loss of contrast and loss of distinct images in an image?
Excessive exposure
Decrease KvP
Magnification of the image
Insufficient emission of light
Excessive exposure
28
Government statutes to protect people form discrimination are based on what?
Age
Disability
Ethnicity or race
29
Which word defines action to benefit others?
Beneficence
30
Which statement describes the legal theory of respondent superior?
The employer is responsible for the employee's actions
31
Informed consent requires that the patient be given enough information to make educated decision about his or her health care. The information the patient needs to make this decision would include what?
Risk, benefits, alternatives and how the procedure will be preformed
32
What does principle * of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist (ARRT) Code of Ethics states?
The radiologic technologist practices ethical conduct appropriate to the profession
33
After performing a radiologic examination, A radiologic technologist transfers a patient back to the cart but forgets to raise the side rails. While moving, the patient fall off the cart and suffers a hip fracture. What is this an example of in terms of the radiologic technologist's behavior?
Negligence
34
A patient consents to a procedure in the radiology department, but after it has started, he decides that he does not want to procedure completed. What should the radiologic technologist do?
Stop the procedure as soon as it is safe to do so
35
A patient claims, "I lost my job when the radiologic technologist revealed to my boss that I have AIDS." What is the category of this radiologic technologist's action?
Defamation
36
Which statement is true regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)?
It calls for the standardization of electronic data interchange.
37
What Projection demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?
Lateral (R or L position)
38
Why should projection of the sinuses be performed with the patient in the upright position?
To demonstrate air-fluid levels in any
To differentiate between fluid and other pathological conditions
39
Where does the central ray (CR) enter for a lateral projection of the facial bones?
Midway between outer and external auditory meatus (EAM)
40
Before attempting a submentovertex (SMV) projection of the skull on a trauma patient, What must be ruled out?
Fractures of the subluxation of the cervical spine
41
Where is the CR directed for a AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull?
Through the foramen magnum at a caudal angle of 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line
42
What is the angle of the CR when a PA projection of the skull is performed?
Perpendicular to the IR
43
Which bone is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull?
Occipital bone
44
What projection requires the patient to be supine, The sagittal plane of the skull perpendicular to the IR, the orbitomeatal line perpendicular to the IR, and the CR angles 30 degrees caudad?
AP axial projection (Towne method)
45
What is the purpose of image compression in digital radiography?
Easy file transfer
46
What term in digital imaging is used to describe the process the computer uses to produce a uniform brightness and contrast regardless of the exposure?
Automatic rescaling
47
What are the functions of the anode?
Receiving electrons emitted by the cathode
Providing mechanical support for the target
48
What is the consequence of using additional lead int eh grid?
Increases radiation dose to the patient
49
What is the role of positive beam limitation (PBL)?
To ensure the x-ray exposure field is no larger than the receptor size
50
Which component maintains a vacuum inside the x-ray tube?
Glass encloser
51
Which material is used for the enclosure of the x-ray tube?
Pyrex glass
52
What is the function of the autotransformer?
Supplying a precise voltage to the filament circuit
53
What is the characteristic of a single-phase generator?
The overall capacity is less for a single-phase to a high frequency generator
54
Which type of power generators are used to produce the maximum quality of x ray image?
High frequency generators
55
What are the functions of a bucky mechanism in a imaging system?
It increases the contrast in image, avoids grid lines on image, decreases scatter reaching IR
56
Which step is part of the self-gloving process using a closed technique?
Start gloving after donning a sterile gown
57
What is the most frequently used sterilization technique?
Heat (moist heat, Autoclave)
58
What are microorganisms that cause infectious diseases classified as?
Pathogenic
59
If a person is bitten by a mosquito and develops an infection, what type of transmission is that know as?
Vector
60
What is the best method of preventing the spread of aerosol infection?
The patient wearing a mask
61
When should informed consent be obtained from the patient before proceeding with a radiographic examination?
To perform an invasive procedure
62
Which data is subjective?
The patients' heartbeat
Gray discoloration of skin
The patients lavatory report
Deep pain associated with an injury
Deep pain associated with an injury
63
Where does the central ray enter for an AP foot image?
Base of third metatarsal
64
What radiograph best demonstrates the medial condyles of the tibia and femur?
External oblique knee
65
Why is a cephalic angle of 10 degrees used for an AP projection of the foot?
It prevents foreshortening
66
What does the PA axial view of the knee best demonstrate?
Intercondylar fossa
67
What is the best projection to demonstrate the mortise joint?
Oblique ankle
68
What projection will show the femoropatellar joint space of the distal femur?
Tangential projection of the patella
69
Which projection is seen if the patient is in the dorsoplantar projection for a foot image?
AP
70
How should the foot be positioned for a Ap projection of the ankle?
Dorsiflexed
71
Where should the CR be directed for a lateral calcaneus radiograph?
One inch distal to medial malleolus
72
Which CR angulation should be used for an AP projection of the toes?
10 - 15 degree towards the calcaneus
73
Which are symptoms of hyperglycemia? Select all that apply.
Shakiness
Frequent urination
Dryness of mucosa
Excessive sweating
Chest pain radiating to left arm
Frequent urination
Dryness of mucosa
74
Which device can be classified as a high-flow oxygen delivery device?
Air-entrainment mask
75
A patient suffering from hypoglycemia needs which of the following?
Carbohydrates
76
Which is typically associated with shock?
Decreased blood pressure
77
Which is the most likely pulse rate of a patient with bradycardia?
50 beats/minute
78
What is the most likely respiratory rate of an adult with tachypnea?
30 breathes/minute
79
Which term refers to the abnormal increase in the breathing rate of a patient?
Tachypnea
80
While performing a contrast study using iodinated contrast media on a patient the radiographer observes that the patient is sweating profusely, wheezing, and complains that their throat feels like it is "closing up". What action should the radiographer take?
Informe the radiologist and nursing staff
81
Which type of shock is a patient experiencing if he or she develops a allergic reaction after being administer an iodinated constant medium?
Vasogenic shock
82
Which is the best example of a cardinal principle of radiation protection?
Minimize the exposure time
83
Which component of the x-ray equipment is used to decrease the entrance skin dose of radiation?
Grid
Collimators
Intensifiers
Cathode tube
Collimators
84
What characteristics of fluoroscopic equipment are associated with duration of exposure? Select all that apply.
Collimator
Foot pedal
Pressure switch
Bucky slot cover
Cumulative timer
Foot pedal
Pressure switch
Cumulative timer
85
Which is a characteristic of digital radiographic image receptors?
They are associated with reduced patient dose
86
What is the result of incorporating additional lead strips in a grid?
Increases patient dose
87
Which action is most beneficial in controlling occupational radiation exposure during a fluoroscopic procedure?
The radiologic technologist should ensure the use of lead curtains on the equipment
88
How can a radiologic technologist reduce occupational exposure to radiation while performing mobile radiography?
By wearing an apron, maintain max distance, directing primary beam only toward the patient
89
What are the advantages of optically stimulated luminescence dosimetry over thermoluminescence dosimetry?
It has increased sensitivity
It can be reanalyzed for confirmation of dose
It provides qualitative information about exposure
90
What class of drug is diphenhydramine(Benadryl)?
Antihistamine
91
Which contrast media are radiopaque?
Diatrizoate
Barium sulfate
Iodized solution
92
What is true regarding an x-ray photon?
The wavelength of an x ray photon is measured similar to that of any other electromagnetic energy
93
Which is the term used to refer to the distance between two crest of two troughs in a sine wave?
Wavelength
94
The quantity of electrons for x-ray exposure is determined by the mAs. How is the calculated?
Multiplying the milliamperage by the exposure time
95
What happens during x-ray attenuation?
Some x-ray are absorbed, and the others are scattered
96
Which term refers to the total radiation that exist from the patient during exposure and strikes the recepto?
Remnant radiation
97
What is a penumbra?
It is fuzzy of an object as imaged radiographically
98
Why does a radiologic technologist use the small focal spot while performing radiographic examination?
To obtain the details of small bones
99
Which can reduce distortion?
Proper alignment of the IR
100
How does high Kilovolt peak affect the x-ray beam?
It results in higher energy
101
A 15% increase in which factor doubles exposure to the IR?
kVp
102
What is the function of milliampere-seconds?
Control of the quantity of x-ray photons
103
Where should the CR enter for an oblique projection of the lumbar spine?
L4
104
Which structure, if present, indicates the patient was positioned incorrectly for a lateral thoracic spine?
Zygapophyseal joints
105
Where does the CR enter for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine?
L4
106
What are the angle and directions of the CR used for a standard AP image of the cervical spine?
15-20 degree, cepahlic
107
Identify which patient is most likely to require an 8-degree caudal angle for a lateral protection of the lumbar spine.
An adult female with a narrow waist and wide hips
108
Which projection uses the occlusal place as a positing landmark?
Odontoid process
109
Which are special pelvic projection?
Posterior oblique acetabulum
AP axial outlet projection
PA axial oblique acetabulum
110
At which point should the CR be directed in an AP pelvic projection?
Midway between the level of the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis pubis
111
Why might upright PA and lateral projections of the chest be added to a rib series?
Trauma to the ribs may result in injury to the respiratory system
112
What is the proper procedure for performing a lateral projection of the sternum?
Adjust the patient in a true lateral position
Have patient suspend deep respiration
Rotate the shoulder back and have the patient lock hands being back.
113
Where should the IR be placed for the AP projection of the lower ribs?
The bottom of the IR should be at the level of the iliac crest
114
For which projection of the chest should the sagittal plane be parallel with the IR?
Lateral projection
115
Why is a left lateral projection of the chest preferable of the right lateral?
Left side reduced magnification of the heart
116
What is the proper evaluation criterion pertaining to the AP oblique projection of the ribs?
Axillary portion of the ribs of interest should be free of superimposition
117
For a PA projection of the chest, where is the CR directed?
Perpendicular to T7
118
What projection is used to visualize the apices of the lungs?
AP axial chest
119
Which projection of the shoulder demonstrates the greater tuberosity in profile?
AP with external rotation
120
A radiograph of a hand shows a fracture of the fifth metacarpal neck, which type of fracture has occured?
Boxers' fracture
121
Which method best shows the joint space between the humeral head and the glenoid cavity of the shoulder joint?
Grashey method
122
How can the radiographer demonstrate the lesser tubercle in profile on a humerus exam?
Position the patient arm in the lateral position
123
From lateral to medial, how would the carpal bones be viewed on a PA image of the wrist?
Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
124
Which joints are included on a humerus radiographs?
Humeroulnar
Humeroradial
125
What best seen in the horizontal beam lateral projection of the humerus?
Lateral midhumerus
126
When does automatic exposure control terminate the x-ray exposure?
At the proper exposure of the IR
127
What type of biological radiation response usually follows high-dose radiation exposure and appears as an early response?
Deterministic effects
128
What type of biological radiation response usually follows low radiation exposure and appears as a late radiation response years later?
Stochastic effects
129
Radiation-induced cancer, leukemia, and genetic effects follow what type of dose-response relationship?
Linear- nonthreshold
130
Skin effects resulting from high-dose fluro follow which type of dose- response relationship?
Sigmoid-type
131
Linear energy transfer (LET) is a measure of the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to which?
Soft tissue
132
What medical condition was perhaps the first observed biologic response to radiation exposure?
Erythema
133
What type of blood cells are the first to become affected after exposure to radiation?
Lymphocytes
134
Which term refers to the period after initial radiation sickness in which a period of apparent well-being occurs?
Laten period
135
If the dose to the lens of the eye is high enough, in excess of approximately 10 Gy (1000 rad), which medical condition will develop in nearly all of those who are irradiated?
Cataracts
136
What is true regarding contrast?
It is difference between adjacent densities on a radiographic image that is controlled by window width.
137
Placing the marker in which location is contraindicated because the marker is likely to be distorted on the image?
Directly on the body part
138
What is the minimum source-to-skin-distance (SSD) for a stationary fluro unite?
38 cm
139
Which combination of kVp and mA and seconds will create the greatest patient exposure?
90 kVp 200 mA 0.07 seconds
140
What is the minimum required aluminum (AI) filtration in radiographic tube operating over 70 kVp?
2.5 mm AI
141
In keeping with ALARA what imaging modality offers the lower radiation dose to obtain a diagnosis?
MRI
142
In order to keep radiation doses to a minimum, how many views per chest x ryas exam are advised?
Two views
143
When the upper extremities are examined, especially when the patient is in the seated position, care should be taken that the useful beam does not intercept what body part?
Gonads
144
Which projection best demonstrated contrast in the intertubercular groove?
Tangential
145
Which is recommended for a pregnant radiologic technologist?
Wear second dosimeter under the lead apron at the waist level
146
Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible the individual will receive more than what dose?
5 mSv/yr
147
Which type of personnel radiation monitor can provide an immediate dose reading?
Pocket dosimeter
148
Which is the most effective measure to reduce occupational exposure?
Distance
149
Which factors must be considered in determining the thickness of a radiation barrier?
Working factor
Occupancy factor
Energy of the beam
150
Who is most likely to be recommended to hold a pediatric patient during a radiographic examination?
Father of pediatric patient
151
What is the minimum permissible amount of lead equivalency for lead aprons used when peak kilovoltage is 100?
0.25mm
152
The NRC regulation requires that a personnel monitor be used if the declared pregnant radiologic technologist could potentially receive what percentage of the embryo or fetal dose limit?
10%
153
What type of x-ray result when the target atom is ionized through total removal of an inner-shell electron?
Characteristic x-ray
154
What do you call the process put into place when PACS is deemed to be not functioning?
Downtime Procedure
155
How does improper part-central ray alignment affect the image?
Distortion
156
What type of exposure technique are ideal for barium work to ensure adequate penetration of the barium?
High kV technique
157
Which is the most significant advantage of a fixed kVp technique chart?
Proper penetration
158
Which imaging exams would most likely use a technique of 85 kVp and 15 mAs for an adult?
Lateral skull
159
Upon which type of patient are radiographic technique charts based?
Sthenic
160
Which describes the effect of an increase in matrix size on digital image quality?
Increase in spatial resolution
161
Which is the most common safety feature of an AEC system?
Backup timer
162
What is the shortest exposure time that an AEC system can produce?
Minimum response time
163
After an image is produced using AEC, how can the radiographer determine the total quantity of radiation used to produce the iamge?
Check the mAs readout
164
Which set of exposure factors would yield the least amount fo scatter produced?
100 mAs 75 kVp 40 in SID 16:1 grid 8 x 12 field size
165
If the patient is positioned for examination when the x ray tube is not centered to the table or Bucky tray, what type of artifacts may occur?
Grid cutoff artifacts
166
What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of 250 kV x rays?
1.0
167
Which malignant tumor are very radiosensitive?
Seminoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma
168
What are the most radiosensitive cells in the body?
Lymphocytes
Spermatogonia
169
Which is (are) required to be included in a patient's health record?
Medical history
Radiology report
Physical examination report
170
What is the significance of res ipsa loquitur?
It switches the burden of proof from plaintiff to the defendant
171
Professional ethics can be be defined by what?
A common concern for collective self-discipline
172
What projection of the skull requires the CR to be centered to exit at the galbella?
PA
173
What effect is observed in a digital radiographic image after window and level adjusmtn?
Amplified image contrast
174
What is a histogram?
It is a plot between frequencies of occurrence versus the digital value of each pixel
175
Which are characteristic of tungsten?
It has a high melting point, high atomic number and high efficiency x ray production
176
How many heat units are generated if the fluoro examination is performed with a single phase imaging system operated at 60 kVp and 2.1 mA for 4 min?
30,240 HU
177
What isthe function of the thin film transistor (TFT) array?
Isolating each pixel element
Sending electrical charges to the image processor
178
Which is a type of indirect transmission? Select all that apply
Vector
Fomite
Aerosol
Touching
coughing
Vector
Fomite
179
Where does the patella move when the knee is flexed when using the Hughston method
Intercondylar sclcus
180
Which interventions are beneficial of a patient who has anxiety, mild erythema, and a warm flush sensation after the administration of a contrast medium?
Reassure the patient
Provide a cool wash cloth
instruct the patient to breath slowly
181
How is electrical potential energy measured in radiology?
Electron cold (eV)
182
A radiographer is performing a PA projection of the stomach during an upper gastrointestinal (GI) exam. The patient has an asthenic body habitus. Where should the CR enter for the patient?
Two inches below L1
183
How can magnification be minimized in a radiographic procedure?
Use a large SID
184
Which factor influence Distortion?
SID
185
What will happen if the SID is increased?
It will increase image sharpness
186
What is the advantage of the line focus principle?
It improves heat capacity and spatial resolution
187
What is the correct CR angle and direction for PA oblique projection of the cervical spine?
15 degree caudal
188
Where does the CR enter for an L5/S1 lateral projection of the lumbar spine?
Two inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest
189
The radiographer evaluates the image of a lateral projection of the thoracic spine. Levels T1-T3 are not well demonstrated. What should the radiographer do next?
Accept the image as appropriate
190
Describe the general central ray orientation to the femur for an axiolateral projection of the hip.
Perpendicular to the femoral neck
191
What results are seen when the entire leg is rotated 15 to 20 degrees medially for an AP projection of the hip?
Little to non of the lesser trochanter is visible
192
Where is the CR directed in an AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis?
Midline point at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine
193
What breathing technique should be used to reduce lung markings over the sternum?
Shallow breathing with a long exposure time
194
What are the differences between an oblique elbow image and an AP elbow image?
The radial head is seen in the oblique image: radial head is not seen in the AP image.
The oblique image of the elbow shows the radius and ulna separated: AP image shows the radius and ulna superimposed
195
A patient has a dislocated glenohumeral joint. Which recumbent position is used to image this patient's scapular Y?
Reverse PA oblique projection
196
What does AEC measure?
Predetermined electrical charge
197
Which is the kinetic energy transferred from photons to electrons during ionization and excitation?
Air kerma
198
Where would a radiologic technologist most likely encounter the RIS?
Worklist in the radiographic exam room
199
What is the annual effective dose limit for an health care worker who is not a radiologic technologist?
5 mSv
200
Which requires the greatest adjustment to technique?
Dry palter cast
wet plaster cast
Air splint
Fiberglass cast
Wet plaster cast
