Test 1 Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

What are the side effects of sulfasalazine?

A

Myelosuppression
Stomatitis
Parotitis
Periorbital oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the general causes of prolonged APTT?

A

Factor VIII deficiency
Factor VIII inhibitor
Anti-phospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can factor VIII deficiency be differentiated from factor VIII inhibitor?

A

50:50 mixing study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drugs inhibit VIII (by producing autoantibodies)?

A

Phenytoin
Penicillin
Sulfa drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are acquired causes of factor VIII deficiency?

A

Pregnancy
Diabetes
Psoriasis
MS
SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 5 causes of a transudative ascites?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome
Hepatic cirrhosis
Right sided heart failure
Nephrotic syndrome
Acute nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 3 causes of exudative ascites.

A

Infection
Inflammation
Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do bile acids cause diarrhoea post ileocaecal resection?

A

Decrease transit time
Increase motility
Deconjugated by bacteria to produce end products that stimulate water and electrolyte secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is flexible sigmoidoscopy indicated in diagnosing severe flare of ulcerative colitis?

A

To exclude CMV colitis, which is associated with a poor response to treatment and high relapse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Pruritus
Jaundice
Raised ALT, bilirubin, bile acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the features of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Liver failure - inc coagulopathy and encephalopathy
High foetal and maternal mortalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most sensitive test for acute/ongoing Hep B infection?

A

HBV DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the cause of jaundice in pernicious anaemia?

A

High bilirubin secondary to increased turnover of immature RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What techniques identify DNA and RNA sequences?

A

RNA sequences - Northern blotting
DNA sequences - Southern blotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What complement deficiency is associated with development of SLE?

17
Q

Overdose with which drugs is associated with a respiratory alkalosis?

A

Salicylates
Theophylline
Both respiratory stimulants

18
Q

What is the biggest cause of death in Turner’s syndrome?

A

Rupture of thoracic AAA

19
Q

What is the genetic cause of sickle cell anaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive
Replacement of valine with glutamic acid on position 6

20
Q

Why is bleeding time normal in haemophilia?

A

Normal adhesion of platelets to the endothelium

21
Q

Which drug can reverse alteplase and how?

A

Tranexamic acid
Inhibitor of the activation of plasminogen to plasmin, and inhibits plasmin at high concentrations

22
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia with hypocellular bone marrow in the absence of abnormal infiltrate or marrow fibrosis

23
Q

What is the most common congenital cause of aplastic anaemia?

A

Fanconi anaemia

24
Q

Type of seizures associated with epigastric aura and early oral automatism?

A

Temporal lobe seizures

25
2nd line management for migraine prophylaxis? (If pt unable to take propranolol or anitriptyline)
Candesartan
26
SLE treatment?
Hydroxychloroquine
27
Atypical pneumonia + farmer + transaminitis + blood culture negative endocarditis?
Q fever - coxiella burnetii
28
Management of Q fever?
Doxycycline
29
Empirical management of infective endocarditis in IVDU?
Flucloxacillin > because most likely organism is staph aureus
30
Difference between stage 3 and 4 diabetic nephropathy?
Stage 3: microalbuminuria (3-300mg/ day) Stage 4: significant proteinuria with urine dip positive proteinuria. >300mg/day
31
Family history of renal stones + radioopaque stones? , Tx
Cystinuria Tx: hydration + urinary alkalinisation
32
Management of poly myalgia rheumatica?
Prednisolone
33
What is WPW?
AVRT - re entry via accessory pathway not the AV node So it’s a atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia
34
cause of bronchiectasis + very low levels of nasal nitric acid (<250 ppb)
Primary ciliary dyskinesia
35
GI causes of clubbing?
ulcerative colitis/ crohns liver cirrhosis primary biliary cirrhosis