Test 1 Flashcards
(249 cards)
0
Q
What is plan divided into
A
Therapeutics diagnostics and education
1
Q
What is POMR
A
Problem oriented medical record
2
Q
Define deontologic imperatives
A
Responsibilities of offering care that are established through culture and tradition
3
Q
What is the five step normal history sequence
A
Chief complaint, present problem, past medical history, family history, personal and social history
4
Q
What word means do good for the patient
A
Beneficence
5
Q
What word means do no harm
A
Nonmaleficence
6
Q
What is TACE
A
Screening for alcohol or drug use in pregnant women,
Taking how many
Annoyed when asked to stop
Cut down seems like a good idea
Eye opener in the morning
7
Q
What is PAM
A
A list that should be on charts,
Problems
Allergies
Medications
8
Q
How is the history of present illness taken
A
OLDCARTS
onset, location, duration, character, aggravating or associated factors, relieving factors, temporal factors (frequency describe the attacks), severity of symptoms 0-10 how it effects your life
9
Q
What is CAGE
A
Screening for alcohol Cutting down, Annoyance, Guilty feeling, Eye openers in the morning
10
Q
What is a screening for adolescence for alcohol and drugs.
A
CRAFFT Car driven by someone high or drunk Relax by using Alone use Forgot what you did while using Family or friend told you to stop Trouble from using
11
Q
What are two uses for transillumination
A
In infants a rapidly growing head size that transilluminates is concern for hydrocephalus
Using it on the sinus of an adult can show if the sinus is full, it won’t illuminate
12
Q
Name two major facial landmarks
A
Palpebral fissures off the corners of the eye
Nasolabial folds above the smile
13
Q
Name the 10 bones of the skull and the 4 sutures
A
Nasal, maxilla, mandible, lacrimal, zygomatic, sphenoid, frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
Coronal across the middle, squamous on the side, lamboidal on back, sagital on top
14
Q
Facial muscles are moved by what two nerves
A
5 and 7
15
Q
Name three salivary glands and locations
A
Parotid is the largest in front of the ear
Submandibular are at the jaw angle
Sublingual are under the tongue
16
Q
Name the two neck muscles and the attachment points
A
Sternocleidomastoid- sternum, clavicle, mastoid process
Trapezius- scapula, clavicle, vertebra, occipital prominence
17
Q
Nodes in front of the ear
A
Preauricular
18
Q
Nodes in front and below ear
A
Parotid
19
Q
Nodes on cheek
A
Facial
20
Q
Nodes below the chin
A
Submandibular
21
Q
Nodes under the tongue
A
Sublingual
22
Q
Nodes under the jaw at the throat
A
Suprahyoid
23
Q
Nodes were the neck meets the head
A
Thyrolinguofacial
24
Nodes at the front of the neck
Anterior deep and superficial cervical
25
Nodes down the side of the neck
Internal jugular chain
26
Nodes behind the ear
Posterior auricular
27
Nodes at the back of the head
Occipital nodes
28
Nodes at the mastoid process
Sternomastoid
29
Nodes below and behind the ear
External jugular
30
Nodes at the back of the throat, two names
Retro pharyngeal, tonsilar
31
When do the skull sutures osify
At 6 years
32
When do the Fontanels close
Posterior at two months, frontal at 2 years
33
Another word for still neck, describe it and meanings, two
Torticollis, head turned to one side because of muscle stiffness like waking up wrong, common in babies who sleep only one way
Nucal rigidity, a sign of meningitis, the pt can't or won't bring there chin to the sternum
34
Bobbing of the head when sitting could be what
Aortic insufficiency
35
Other names for cranial nerve 5 and 7
Trigeminal and facial
36
What would an old photo help diagnose
Acromegaly
37
Tapping on the masseter muscle looks for what and is what sign
Chvostek sign, twitching is a sign of hypercalcemia
38
Three features of cushings
Moon shaped face, buffalo hump, thin skin
39
Name for look, sunken eyes, sunken cheeks and temporal areas, sharp nose, dry rough skin,
Who has this
Hippocratic facis, terminal throat cancer pts
40
Name of look, dull puffy yellow skin, coarse sparce hair, loss of eyebrows, peri orbital edema, prominent tongue
Myxedema fancies
41
Fine moist skin, fine hair, startled look, prominent eyes, what condition
Hyperthyroid
42
Butterfly rash over the nasal bridge
Lupus
43
Three features of Bell's palsy
Cranial nerve 7 effected eye will not close, one side of face only, loss of nasal animal fold
44
Large facial features is called what
Acromegaly
45
Another word for mandibular hypoplasia
Micrognathia
46
Another term for posterior displacement of the tongue
Glossoptosis
47
What condition has glossoptosis, and micrognathia
Pierre robin sequence
48
Large skull, low forehead, corneal clouding, short neck
Hurler syndrome
49
Sun setting syndrome, large head, thin scalp
Hydrocephalus
50
Area above the lip below the nose is called what
Philtrum
51
Drooping of the eyelids is called what
Ptosis
52
Maxillary hypoplasia, microganthia, auricular deformity
Treacher Collins syndrome
53
Severe maxillary and mid facial hypoplasia
Apert syndrome
54
Severe maxillary and mid facial hypoplasia with low set ears
Crovzon syndrome
55
What is a tugging sensation when lifting the thyroid a sign of and called
Aortic aneurysm called cardarellis or Oliver's sign
56
Look at the neck laterally would show what
Enlarged thyroid
57
Sub q edema over the presenting part of the head at delivery, it crosses suture lines normally at the occiput
Caput succedaneum
58
Bleeding under the skulls periosteum so it stops at the suture lines
Cephalhematoma
59
What is a flat spot called
Plagiocephaly
60
Premature fusion of the sutures in the skull
Craniosynostosis
61
Pressing behind the ears in a baby skull may give a popping sound, this is an indication of and called what
Weak bones, craniotabes
62
How far should transillumination reach in a baby skull
1cm or less in the occipital 2cm or less everywhere els
63
What nerve connects the eye to the brain, two names
Optic nerve, cranial nerve 2
64
Gradual weakening of accommodation with aging less able to focus vision
Presbyopia
65
Impaired or dim vision without obvious defect or change in the eye
Amblyopia
66
Term for abnormal alignment of the eyes
Strabismus
67
What is legal blindness
20/200
68
What tests for peripheral vision
Confrontation test
69
What is the term for a fatty raised deposit on the eyelid, what does it signal
Xanthelasma, abnormality of lipid metabolism
70
Describe eyebrows for hypothyroidism
Course and do not extend past the temporal canthus
71
What does SOAP stand for
Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
72
When the eyelid curves away from the eye, this causes what
Ectropin, excessive tearing
73
The lower eyelid curves in, this causes and is called
Entropin, irritation from the eyelashes
74
Inflammation of a follicle of the eyelid, two terms
Sty, hordeolum
75
The eyelids do not close all of the way
Lagopthalmos
76
What is it if the eye has bright red blood that has well defined boarders in the conjunctiva
Sub conjunctival hemorrhage
77
Conjunctival growth over the cornea, is called what, typically from what side
Pterygium. From the nasal side
78
Lipids in the peripheral cornea, called what
Corneal arcus, arcus senility
79
Pupil constriction
Miosis
80
Pupil dilation
Mydriasis
81
Term for unequal pupil sizes
Anisocoria
82
Dark grey plaque in the conjunctiva, term, means what
Means nothing, senile hyaline plaque
83
Determine nystagmus right or left
Right is a fast jerk right with a slow drift left
84
What is the corneal light reflex
Aim light at nasal bridge, have the pt look around, the reflection in the eyes should be the same
85
What's the term for cross eyed, what are the two types
Strabismic eye, exotropic is outward, esotropic is toward the nose
86
If the ear is above the canthi it's what, what about below
Mongolian slant, antimongolian slant
87
How do you look for sun setting eyes
Rapidly lower them from sitting to lying
88
Small white uric acid crystals on the outer auricles. Term and what could it mean
Tophi, gout
89
Running for on the side of the mastoid bone is
Rinne test
90
Tuneing fork on top of the head is
Weber test
91
Small white/ yellow spots on the buccal surface, called what and mean what
Fordyce spots, nothing just subaceous glands
92
Soft palate movement and gagging test what two nerves
9 and 10
93
Describe the tonsil grades
1+ visable, 2+ 1/2 way to uvula, 3+ pat half way, 4+ touching uvula
94
A single crease in the palm of a newborn is called what and could mean what
Simian crease Down syndrome
95
SOB after lying flat
Orthopnea
96
SOB after falling asleep
Paraoximal nocturnal dyspnea
97
Dyspnea increases in upright position
Platypnea
98
Chest Bowes out at the sternum
Pectus carinatum
99
Chest Bowes in at sternum
Pectus excavatum
100
Name four signs of upper airway obstruction
Inspiratory stridor, hoarse cough or cry, barking cough, I:E is 2:1
101
Name four signs of obstruction above the glottis
Muffled voice, swallowing is hard, no cough, head and neck held strange to protect the airway,
102
When is pleural friction rub felt
On inspiration
103
Measure the distance the diagram moves using what test, what distance is expected
3-5 cm, diaphragmatic excursion
104
What type of sound is expected to be heard over the lung when healthy
Vesicular
105
Name four adventitious breath sounds
Crackles, ronchi, wheeze, friction rub
106
Term for extreme kyphosis
Gibbus
107
What is the most common cause of non cardiac chest pain
GERD
108
Chest pain with near syncope should make you think what
Mitral valve prolapse
109
Unexplained nocturnal cough in the elderly is probably what
CHf
110
List the 12 cranial nerves
Olfactory, optic, oculomotor, torchlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, acoustic, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal
111
What test for cn 1
Smell test
112
What test for cn 2
Smelled chart, ophthalmic exam of fundus
113
What test for cn 3
Visual fields, eye movement
114
What test for cn 4
Eye movement and visual fields
115
What test for cn 5
Facial movement, corneal reflex, touch sensation,
116
What test cn 6
Visual fields eye movement
117
What test for cn 7
Smile, frown, taste salty and sweet
118
What test for cn 8
Whisper screen hearing test
119
What test for cn 9
Sour and bitter taste
120
What test for cn 10
Gag reflex swallowing
121
What test for cn 11
Shrug shoulders turn head
122
What test for cn 12
Speech and tongue movement
123
What is the balance tests name and how does it go
Stand with feet together and arms at your side, close your eyes if you fall you fail. Romberg test
124
What tells a person the object in there hand without there eyes
Sterogenosis
125
Drawing a number on someone's hand tests what
Graphesthesia
126
Lay supine bend the knee and hip pain in back when extending is what
Kernig sign
127
Flexing hips and knees when the neck is bent
Brudzinski sign
128
Describe true vertigo
Hallucination of movement
129
Objective vertigo is what
Illusion that ones surroundings are moving
130
Subjective vertigo is what
Feeling like your moving with eyes closed
131
Describe peripheral vertigo
Severe, minuets long, related to position, auditory symptoms, horizontal nystagmus, fatigable
132
Describe central vertigo
Mild, gradual, lasts weeks or longer, position related, not fatigable, vertical nystagmus, visual symptoms
133
What is the most common cause of blindness after age 55 describe it
Senile macular degeneration, sudden painless unilateral blurred vision with relative central scotoma and visual disturbance
134
Name two ophthalmic vascular emergencies
Temporal arthritis- transient or progressive unilateral visual loss with visual field defects
Third nerve palsy- sudden Diplopia with diffuse pain around eye or head, could be aneurysm
135
what is autonomy
leaving the patient with the information and ability to make there own choice
136
what is utilitarianism
using the appropriate use of resources
137
what is HITS
abuse screening, hurt you physically, insult you, threaten you, scream at you
138
what is FICA
Faith, Importance, Community, Address like how does it affect your health decisions
139
what is the screening for issues in adolescents
home environment, education, eating, activities, drugs, sexuality, suicide, safety or PACES parents and peers, accidents, cigarettes, emotional issues, school
140
what are you asking for with ob history
GTPAL, gravida number of pregnancies, term pregnancies, preterm pregnancy numbers, abortions or miscarriages, living children
141
describe a migrane
starts in childhood, generalized, hours to days, pulsating or throbbing,
142
describe a cluster headache
starts in adulthood, unilateral, 1/2 to 2 hours, normaly at night, intense sharp burning, may have personality change or sleep disturbance, alcohol can trigger it, several times nightly for several nights then none
143
when are hypertension headaches common
commonly in the afternoon
144
describe temporal arteritis headache
older adult, hours to days long, anytime of the day, throbbing,
145
♦ Slow-growing painless lumps, either in front of ear or under jaw
♦ Facial weakness, fixation of the lump, sensory loss, ulceration, difficulty opening the mouth, and tongue numbness or weakness
♦ Benign tumors usually smooth, malignant often irregular
salivary gland tumor
146
♦ Remnant of fetal development
♦ Rises from the foramen cecum at junction of anterior two thirds and posterior third of tongue (Fig. 10-34)
♦ Any part can persist causing a sinus, fistula, or cyst
♦ Tenderness, redness, swelling in midline of neck
♦ Difficulty swallowing or breathing
♦ Freely movable cystic mass in neck midline
♦ Moves upward with tongue protrusion and swallowing
♦ May have small opening in skin, with drainage of mucus
thyroglossal duct cyst
147
Epithelium-lined cyst with or without a sinus tract to overlying skin
♦ Solitary, painless in lateral neck
♦ May have intermittent swelling and tenderness
♦ Discharge if associated with a sinus tract
♦ Oval, moderately movable smooth, nontender, fluctuant mass along anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle
♦ Usually asymptomatic
♦ If infected, tenderness and erythema
branchial cleft cyst
148
♦ Often result of birth trauma or intrauterine malposition
♦ Acquired torticollis is result of tumors, trauma, cranial nerve IV palsy, muscle spasms, infection, or drug ingestion
♦ Circumstances surrounding birth, trauma, medications
♦ Stiff neck
♦ Possible vision problem
♦ Head tilted and twisted toward the affected sternocleidomastoid muscle with chin elevated and turned toward the opposite side
♦ Hematoma may be palpated shortly after birth, and within 2 to 3 weeks
♦ Firm, fibrous mass may be felt in the muscle
torticollis or wry neck
149
Can cause weight gain, constipation, fatigue, and cold intolerance
♦ Normal thyroid, goiter, or nodule(s)
hypothyroidism
150
Can cause weight loss, tachycardia, and heat sensitivity
♦ Normal thyroid, goiter, or nodule(s)
hyperthyroidism
151
Autoimmune, antibodies to thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor leading to overactive thyroid
graves disease
152
Autoimmune antibodies against thyroid gland, name and describe it
hashimoto disease
♦ Often causes hypothyroidism
♦ More common in children and women between 30 and 50 years
♦ Progresses slowly over a number of years
♦ Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism; weight gain, nausea, fatigue (see Table 10-1)
♦ Enlarged nontender smooth thyroid
153
Neural tube defect with protrusions of brain and membranes that cover it through openings in the skull
encephalocele
154
dense, avascular structure that appears anteriorly as the white of the eye. It physically supports the internal structure of the eye.
sclera
155
the anterior sixth of the globe and is continuous with the sclera. It is optically clear, has rich sensory innervation, and is avascular. It is a major part of the refractive power of the eye.
cornea
156
The iris, ciliary body, and choroids comprise the what
uvea
157
a circular, contractile muscular disk containing pigment cells that produce the color of the eye.
iris
158
produces the aqueous humor and contains the muscles controlling accommodation.
ciliary body
159
a pigmented, richly vascular layer that supplies oxygen to the outer layer of the retina.
choroid
160
White area with soft, ill-defined peripheral margins usually continuous with the optic disc.
No physiologic significance
pigment, feathery margins, and full visual fields help distinguish this benign condition from chorioretinitis.
Nerve fiber layer is the innermost retinal surface; the vessels lie deeper in the retina.
Note how the myelinated nerve fibers obscure areas of the retinal blood vessels, particularly inferiorly.
myelinated retinal nerve fibers Absence of
161
Loss of definition of optic disc margin, initially occurs superiorly and inferiorly, then nasally and temporally central vessels pushed forward, and veins are markedly dilated.
Venous pulsations are not visible and cannot be induced by pressure applied to the globe.
Venous hemorrhages may occur.
Caused by increased intracranial pressure transmitted along the optic nerve. Initially, vision is not altered.
severe papilledema
162
ill-defined, yellow areas caused by infarction of nerve layer of the retina.
Vascular disease secondary to hypertension or diabetes mellitus is a common cause.
cotton wool spot
163
White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris, name it and what does it mean
Brushfield spots, strongly suggest Down syndrome.
164
Inflammation of the superficial layers of the sclera anterior to the insertion of the rectus musclesDiffuse or localized injection of the bulbar conjunctiva purplish elevation of a few millimeters
♦ Watery discharge
episcleritis
165
Deposition of calcium in the superficial cornea Line just below the pupil; passes over the cornea rather than around the iris as arcus senilis does
♦ Horizontal grayish bands interspersed with dark areas that look like holes
♦ These holes represent spaces where the corneal nerves transverse the Bowman membrane to the epithelial surface
Band Keratopathy
166
Disruption of the corneal epithelium and stroma
corneal ulcer
167
Both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously, but can focus with either eye
strabismus
168
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Cloudy or blurry vision
♦ Faded colors
♦ Headlights, lamps, or sunlight may appear too bright
♦ Halo may appear around lights
♦ Poor night vision or double vision
♦ Frequent prescription changes
```
♦ Cloudiness of the lens, often obvious without special viewing equipment
cataracts
169
Dot hemorrhages or microaneurysms and the presence of hard and soft exudates
Hard exudates are the result of lipid transudation through incompetent capillaries
♦ Soft exudates are caused by infarction of the nerve layer (Fig. 11-44)
♦ In the initial stages, patients asymptomatic
♦ Blurred vision, distortion, or visual acuity loss in more advanced stages
♦ On ophthalmoscopic exam, blood vessels with balloon-like sacs (microaneurysms)
♦ Blots of hemorrhages on the retina itself
♦ Tiny yellow patches of hard exudates
diabetic retinopathy
170
Vessels grow out of the retina toward the vitreous humor
♦ May occur in peripheral retina or on optic nerve itself
♦ New vessels lack supporting structure of healthy vessels and are likely to hemorrhage
♦ Bleeding from these vessels is a major cause of blindness in patients with diabetes
♦ Laser therapy can often control this neovascularization and prevent blindness
♦ Generally asymptomatic
♦ Floaters, blurred vision, or progressive visual acuity loss in advanced stages
diabetic retinopathy
171
Peripheral fundus changes in early stages
♦ Initially, vessels appear salmon-pink; as triglyceride level rises, they become whitish
no vision complaints
lipemia retinalis, when triglyceride level exceeds 2000
172
Disease of the optic nerve wherein the nerve cells die, producing a characteristic appearance of the optic nerve (increased cupping)
glaucoma
173
Embryonic malignant tumor arising from the retina
retinoblastoma
174
Bulging with no mobility
Middle ear effusion due to pus or fluid
175
Retracted with no mobility
Obstruction of Eustachian tube with or without middle ear effusion
176
Mobility with negative pressure only
Obstruction of Eustachian tube with or without middle ear effusion
177
Excess mobility in small areas
Healed perforation, atrophic tympanic membrane
178
Amber or yellow
Serous fluid in middle ear
179
Blue or deep red
Blood in middle ear
180
Chalky white
Infection in middle ear
181
Redness
Infection in middle ear, prolonged crying
182
Dullness
Fibrosis
183
White flecks, dense white plaques
Healed inflammation
184
class 1 malocclusion
Molars have customary relationship, but the line of occlusion is incorrect because of rotated or malpositioned teeth.
185
class 2 malocclusion
Lower molars are distally positioned in relation to the upper molars; the line of occlusion may or may not be correct.
186
class 3 malocclusion
Lower molars are medially positioned in relation to the upper molars; the line of occlusion may or may not be correct.
187
Trapped epithelial tissue behind the tympanic membrane that is often the result of untreated or chronic recurrent otitis media Spherical white cyst behind intact tympanic membrane
cholesteatoma
188
A disorder of progressive hearing loss that in some cases has a genetic mode of transmission Hearing loss to low tones initially with fluctuating progression to profound sensorineural hearing loss
♦ Imbalance
♦ Nystagmus
meniere disease
189
A life-threatening infection in the lateral pharyngeal space that has the potential to occlude the airway and most commonly occurs in children
retropharyngeal abscess
190
The dermis is the richly vascular connective tissue layer of the skin
dermis
191
A flat, circumscribed area that is a change in the color of the skin; less than 1 cm in diameter
macule
192
An elevated, firm, circum-scribed area; less than 1 cm in diameter
Wart (verruca), elevated moles, lichen planus
papule
193
A flat, nonpalpable, irregular-shaped macule greater than 1 cm in diameter
Vitiligo, port-wine stains, Mongolian spots, café au lait patch
patch
194
Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
Psoriasis, seborrheic, and actinic keratoses
plaque
195
Elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid, transient, variable diameter
Insect bites, urticaria, allergic reaction
wheal
196
Elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion; deeper in dermis than a papule; 1 to 2 cm in diameter
Erythema nodosum, lipoma
nodule
197
Elevated and solid lesion; may or may not be clearly demarcated; deeper in dermis; greater than 2 cm in diameter
tumor
198
Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, not into dermis; filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter
Varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)
vesicle
199
Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter
Blister, pemphigus vulgaris
bulla
200
Elevated, superficial lesion; similar to a vesicle but filled with purulent fluid
Impetigo, acne
pustule
201
Elevated, circumscribed, encapsulated lesion; in dermis or subcutaneous layer; filled with liquid or semisolid material
cyst
202
Fine, irregular, red lines produced by capillary dilation, will blanch
telangiectasia
203
Heaped-up, keratinized cells; flaky skin; irregular; thick or thin; dry or oily; variation in, size
scale
204
Rough, thickened epidermis secondary to persistent rubbing, itching, or skin irritation; often involves flexor surface of extremity
lichenification
205
Loss of the epidermis; linear hollowed-out, crusted area
Abrasion or scratch, scabies
excoriation
206
Linear crack or break from the epidermis to the dermis; may be moist or dry
fissure
207
Loss of part of the epidermis; depressed, moist, glistening; follows rupture of a vesicle or bulla
erosion
208
Dried serum, blood, or purulent exudates; slightly elevated; size varies; brown, red, black, tan, or straw-colored
Scab on abrasion, eczema
crust
209
Flat, deep pink localized areas usually seen on the mid-forehead, eyelids, upper lip, and back of neck
salmon patches stork bites
210
most common form of skin cancer, from basal layer of the epidermis
basal cell carcinoma
211
seconed most common skin cancer, arises from the epithelium
squamous cell carcinoma
212
Lethal form of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes
malignant melanoma
213
what are the ABCDE of melanomas
a-asymmetry of the lesion one side may not match the other
b-borders, edges are irregular ragged notched or blurred
c-color, the color is diffrent accros the lession
d-diameter, it is greater than 6mm
e-evolution, the lesion changes color especialy in a nonuniform manner
214
Invasion of bacteria between the nail fold and the nail plate
♦ Can occur as an acute or chronic process
paronychia
215
The fungus grows in the nail plate, causing it to crumble
onychomycosis
216
Associated with iron deficiency anemia, syphilis, fungal dermatoses, and hypothyroidism
spoon nails
217
behavior used to limit pain, as limping reduces the time of weight bearing on an affected leg
Antalgic
218
inability to coordinate muscle activity during voluntary movement
ataxia
219
pathway and processing station between the cerebral motor cortex and the upper brainstem
basal ganglia
220
temporary acute paralysis or weakness of one side of the face
bells palsy
221
acts as the pathway between the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
brainstem
222
sign characterized by involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed
brudzinski
223
works with the motor cortex of the cerebrum; involved in voluntary movement; processes information from eyes, ears, and touch
cerebellum
224
permanent disorder of movement and posture development associated with nonprogressive disturbances that occurred in the developing fetus or infant brain
cerebral palsy
225
acute inflammation of the brain and spinal cord involving the meninges; often due to a virus such as herpes simplex virus
encephalitis
226
contains the motor cortex; associated with voluntary skeletal movement
frontal lobe
227
tactual ability to recognize writing on the skin
grapesthesia
228
autoimmune mediated destruction of peripheral nerve mylin sheaths and inflammation of nerve roots that occurs following a nonspecific gastrointestinal or upper respiratory infection 1 to 3 weeks earlier or following immunization
Guillain-Barre syndrome
229
maintains temperature control, water metabolism, and neuroendocrine activity
hypothalamus
230
attempt to straighten a leg of a supine patient after flexing the leg at the knee and hip
kernig sign
231
neuropathy that can occur during late pregnancy and delivery when the lumbosacral trunk and sometimes the superior gluteal and obturator nerves are compressed
Intrapartum maternal lumbosacral plexopathy—
232
absence of deep tendon reflexes may be an indication of this type of neuron disorder or of peripheral neuropathy
Lower motor
233
acts as the respiratory center and relay center for major ascending and descending spinal tracts
Medulla oblongata—
234
inflammatory process in the meninges, the membrane around the brain and spinal cord
Meningitis
235
progressive autoimmune disorder characterized by a combination of inflammation and degeneration of the mylin of the brain’s white matter leading to decreased brain mass and obstruction transmission of nerve impulses
Multiple sclerosis
236
autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular transmission involving the production of auto antibodies directed against the nicotinic aceylcholine receptor
Myasthenia gravis
237
congenital defect of one or more vertebrae permits a meningeal sac filled with a portion of the spinal cord to protrude
Myelomeningocele
238
syndrome simulating degenerative disease that is caused by noncommunicating hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
239
stiff neck; associated with meningitis
Nuchal rigidity—
240
contains the primary visual center and interpretation of visual data
Occipital lobe
241
slowly progressive, degenerative neurologic disorder in which deficiency of the dopamine neurotransmitter
Parkinson disease
242
disorder of the peripheral nervous system that results in motor and sensory loss in the distribution of one or more nerves
Peripheral neuropathy
243
reappearance of neurologic signs in survivors of the polio epidemics
Postpolio syndrome
244
patient standing with eyes closed is unable to maintain balance
Romberg
245
episodic abnormal electrical discharges of cerebral neurons
Seizure disorder
246
severe form of child abuse resulting from the violent shaking of infants under 1 year of age
Shaken baby syndrome
247
unexpected gait pattern manifested by an excessive lift of the hip and knee and an inability to walk on the heels
Steppage
248
ability to identify an object by touch
Stereognosis
