Test 1 Flashcards

(153 cards)

1
Q

What does the nervous system play a dominant role in?

A

Coordination, association and integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the parts of the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many nerve trunks are there within the PNS?

A

86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many cranial nerve pairs are there?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many spinal nerve pairs are there?

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define ganglia

A

Groups of nervecell bodies within the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the somatic nervous system

A

Innervates skeletal muscle, has efferent and afferent nerve fibers, involves the CNS and PNS, it is cholinergic, only takes one neuron to get to the target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define efferent

A

Goes away from the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define afferent

A

Goes toward the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the autonomic nervous system

A

innervates glandular epithelium, smooth and cardiac muscle, no conscious control, involes the CNS and PNS, has 2 subdivisions, sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe parasympathetic control

A

Neurons are located in the CNS and PNS, only nerves that can carry efferent information in this system are cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10 and sacral nerves2, 3, 4 (craniosacral subdivision), requires 2 neurons to get to the target, preganglionic must be long and postganglionic must be short, both release ACH (rest and digest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe sympathetic control

A

(Fight or flight), carry efferent fibers from T1 to L2, also require 2 neurons, the preganglionic must be short and the postganglionic must be long, preganglionic release ACH and postganglionic release norepinephrine, adrenergic system, except where ACH is released at the target are known (sweat glands and arrector pilli muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

A

Have the opposite effect on the target, parasympathetic has a ratio of 1 preganglionic neuron to 2 postganglionic neurons, which makes it slower. The sympathetics have a ratio of 1 preganglionic to 17 postganglionic neurons, which makes it more widespread and less specific. Not everything has both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons going to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the third subdivision of the nervous system?

A

The intrinsic system of the gut, causes peristaltic reflexes within the gut, runs from the esophagus to the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Write out the diagram of the 3 primary brain vesicles.

A

See page 9 in notes for answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the flexures in development

A

The neural plate forms into the neural groove and the neural groove forms the neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which part of the embryonic brain is in the ventral side? Dorsal side?

A

Dorsal- cervical flexure

Ventral- cephalic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How much does the brain weight at birth? When we’re an adult? How much oxygen do they use, respectively?

A

Baby- 10% of body weight, takes up 50-60% of oxygen

Adult- 2% of body weight, takes up 20% of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the neural tube give rise to?

A

CNS structures, like neuroepithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do neuroepithelial cells give rise to?

A

Neuroblasts –> neurons

Glioblasts –> astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe glioblast cells

A

Structural support for CNS, undifferentiated, can go through mitosis, give rise to astrocytes and oligodendrocytes. They are the functional connective tissue of the CNS and there are about 5-10x more glioblast cells than neurons in the adult human.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe astrocytes

A

They are the most numerous cell in the CNS, there are two types, protoplasmic (found in grey matter), and fibrous (found in white matter), they serve as structural support, are a part of the BBB, store what little glucose can be stored in the CNS and play a dominant role in forming scar like tissue after a CNS injurty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe oligodendrocytes

A

Less than astrocytes, but still numerous, two types, perineuronal cells (grey matter, possible nutrient role), interfascicular (white matter, form myelin around axons in CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe ependymal cells

A

Line central canal and ventricles, serve as a leaky barrier, classified as simple cuboidal, secrete CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name and describe the different glial tumors discussed in class.
Astrocytoma (most common), glioblastoma (most lethal), ependymoma (block CSF from flowing, cause intracranial pressure)
26
Describe ganglia
Mesodermally derived, their phagocytic function is to clear dead and damaged tissue
27
Describe the neuroblast
They are along the neural tube, neuroblasts, depend on glial cells to help migrate, radiation and alcohol exposure in the embryonic stages can cause horrible effects to the fetus
28
Describe and draw out a unipolar cell
*see page 15 of notes for picture* found in DRG, visceral or somatosensory neuron
29
Describe and draw a bipolar cell
*see page 15 of notes for picture* 2 types- golgi type (long axon, descending part of spinal cord), golgi type II (short axon, more numerous)
30
Describe sensory neurons
Carry information toward the CNS, almost always in the PNS are the cell bodies. Afferent
31
Describe motor neurons
Carry information away from CNS, all cell bodies within CNS. Efferent
32
Describe internuncial neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS
33
Describe commissural neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to the other exact structure.
34
Describe projection neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to a completely different structure
35
Describe ipsilateral neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to another on the same side of the CNS
36
Describe contralateral neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to another on different sides of the CNS
37
Describe intrasegmental neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that are in the spinal cord and begin and end on the same cord level
38
Describe intersegmental neurons
Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that are in the spinal cord and begin in one segment of the cord and end in a different segment of the cord
39
Refer to page 17, Figure 6 in the notes. Label each part of the multipolar neuron
:)
40
What shapes can the parikaryon be?
Round, oval, fusiform, stellae, pyramidal
41
Axoaxonic
Least common, come straight off the axon
42
Axodendritic
Axon connects to dendrites
43
Axosomatic
Axon connects directly to perikaryon
44
What are Nissl bodies?
Clumps of RER, ribosomes and iron
45
What is chromatolysis?
when the Nissl bodies respond quickly and appear to dissolve
46
Microtubules, microfilaments, neurofilaments. Put them in order from smallest to largest.
Microfilaments, neurofilaments, microtubules
47
What is axoplasmic transport? Describe the two types.
Movement of raw materials within the cell Slow transport- intracellular movement of protein building blocks, anterograde, low energy, spread related to length Fast transport- movement of synaptic vesicles, lysosomes and certain proteins, anterograde and retrograde, higher energy, not spread related to length.
48
Define neuron
the anatomical and functional unit of the nervous system
49
Define neuron process
an extension of the neuron away from its cell body
50
Define dendrite
a neuron process conducting an impulse toward the cell body
51
Define axon
a single neuron process carrying the impulse away from the cell body toward a synaptic or neuromuscular junction
52
Define hillock
a raised area of the cell body from which an axon arises
53
Nerve fiber
a dominantly long process of a neuron, usually an axon
54
Where are neurons ALWAYS myelinated? What cell creates the myelin? How do they form?
PNS, Schwann cell, they form a jelly-like roll
55
What cell myelinates the neurons in the CNS?
Interfascicular oligodendrocytes
56
What are the two things that determine the conduction velocity of a neuron?
Myelination, the more there is, the faster there is. | Axon diameter
57
What are the main differences between the connective tissue covers?
endoneurium is the innermost connective tissue covering and is highly vascularized perineurium is the middle connective tissue and is elastic epineurium is the outermost connective tissue covering and is virtually inelastic.
58
Define commisures
mid line white matter connectors inside the CNS
59
Define peduncles
a stalk or pillar-like formation of CNS white matter
60
What are some of the common CNS neurotransmitters?
ACH, NE, Dopamine, Serotonin, GABA, Glycine, Glutamate
61
What are some of the common neurohormones for the CNS?
ADH, oxytocin, Releasing Factor Neurohormones
62
Describe the Dura Mater
Known as the "tough mother", covers the entire CNS
63
Name the two layers of the Dura Mater that are within the cranial vault. What is the difference between the two?
Endosteal dura- highly vascular, fused to he skull bones | Meningeal dura- separated from the endosteal dura except where a falx and dural venous sinus is created
64
How many layers of dura are in the vertebral canal?
1
65
What is the name of the "real space" in the vertebral canal? What does it contain?
epidural space, contains areolar, adipose connective tissue and internal vertebral venous plexus
66
What are the three parts that the spinal cord is attached to (dura mater)?
foramen magnum, intervertebral foramen, filum terminale externum
67
Draw and label the different parts of the dural falces
Figure 14, page 31
68
Where does the falx cerebri attach?
Crista Galli and internal occipital protuberance
69
Where are the tentorium cerebelli located? What do they cover?
Transverse cerebral fissure. Over the cerebellum and under the occipital lobes of the cerebellum.
70
What is the meningeal dura that forms a roof over the sella turcica?
Diaphragma sellae
71
Is the dura a vascular tissue?
yes, but there are few capillaries that feed the dura, but there are many meningeal arteries that travel on the dura
72
Do nerves innervate the dura?
Yes, supratentorially, cranial nerves five and seven, infratentorially, cranial nerve 10
73
Describe the arachnoid mater.
Even though it is a non-vascular membrane, there are vessels that penetrate it. Meningiomas tend to start in the arachnoid mater, but they attach to the dura so they appear as though they car dural tumors. It does not dip into fissures except where the dura does
74
What membranes make up the leptomeninges?
Arachnoid and pia mater
75
Be able to label and explain each part of figure 16 on page 34
:)
76
Describe the Cisterna Magna.
Also called the Cerebromedullary Cistern, located posterior to the M.O. and superior to the foramen magnum
77
Describe the Cisterna ambiens.
Also called the superior cistern or the cistern of the great cerebral vein, located deep within the transverse cerebral fissure; great cerebral vein of Galen, pineal gland and midbrains collicular bodies are found here.
78
Describe the pontine cistern.
Anterior aspect of the pons, lateral foramina of Luschka is located here
79
What is the Lateral foramina of Luchka?
a pair of openings that enter this cistern laterally from the fourth ventricle
80
Describe the interpeduncular Cistern.
It is the origin of cranial nerve 3, in the region between the cerebral peduncles on the anterior aspect of the midbrain, much of the cerebral arterial circle of Willis vascularization is found along the epipa of this cistern
81
Describe the lumbar cistern.
Wheere CSF fluid is taken (like for a spinal tap), extends around the conus medularis and all the way down to the upper sacral canal (S2 vertebral level)
82
What is the function of the arachnoid villi?
allows used CSF
83
Describe the Pia Mater.
the inner most layer of membrane, dips into all fissures unlike the other two.
84
Describe the outer part of the pia mater.
collagen bundles continuous with the arachnoid trebeculae
85
Describe denticulate ligaments
formed by the pia, they penetrate the arachnoid and fuse with the dura
86
Describe the filum terminale internum
formed primarily by the outer pial layer
87
What is a pial coat?
The deeper portion of the pia mater that surrounds the larger blood vessels and dips in and out of the CNS tissue
88
Describe an epidural hematoma.
Between the skull and the periosteal dura, commonly due to a rupture of the middle meningeal artery, results in an increase in intracranial pressure
89
Describe a subdural hematoma
Between meningeal dura and arachnoid, commonly due to rupture of bridging veins from shear injury. Can be chronic (old patients) or acute (severe trauma)
90
Describe a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
collection of blood in subarachnoid space, can be traumatic (cerebral contusions) or non-traumatic (spontaneous, associated with ruptured aneurysm or A-V malformations, "worst headache of my life")
91
CVA is a leading cause of death in males or females over 25 having ____ ____ ____ or __________ or both.
high blood pressure, atherosclerosis
92
The _____ _____ _____ and its branches are the most common reported site for strokes.
middle cerebral artery
93
Draw out and label each of the arteries in the vertebrobasilar and internal carotid artery distributions. (Figure 19)
:)
94
Which artery commonly has anomalies associated with it?
anterior communicating artery
95
Which artery is most commonly involvedt with strokes associated with cervical manipulation?
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
96
Where is the basilar artery located?
on top of the pons
97
Which artery supplies the cervical vertebrae?
posterior spinal
98
Which artery supplies the median and lateral part of the temporal lobe?
posterior cerebral artery
99
Which artery lays along the longitudinal fissure?
anterior cerebral artery
100
Which artery supplies the medial aspect of the cerebrum?
anterior cerebral artery
101
Which artery supplies the occipital lobe?
posterior cerebral artery
102
Which artery supplies the temporal lobe?
middle cerebral artery
103
Which arteries are the major contributors to supplying the cord?
anterior and posterior spinal arteries, segmental arteries
104
Where do the major arteries enter the cord?
IVF at various vertebral levels
105
Which artery supplies the cord the most?
segemental artery contributions
106
Which part of the cord has minimal anastomoses, making them more vulnerable?
T1-T3 (posteriorly), T4 and L1 anteriorly
107
What is the pial coat?
a slight cuff of the pia mater that the blood vessels penetrate.
108
What is the perivascular space (Virchow-Robins space)?
the space between the blood vessel and the pia.
109
Where are dense beds of capillaries found?
grey matter
110
What is the most common capillary type?
continuous capillary
111
Describe continuous capillaries.
most common type, lacks holes and fenestra, has a thin wall and tight junctions between cells, basement membrane is thick
112
What are some of the parts of the CNS that have capillary types other than continuous?
pineal body, infundibular stalk, choroid plexus, supraoptic crest, area postrema, subfornical organ
113
Why do we have a BBB?
because a lot of the CNS has continuous capillaries, which are not very permeable. They also have astrocytes for support
114
Name some substances that can cross the BBB.
(lipid soluble) vitamin B6 and B12, L-dopa, caffeine, alcohol, cocaine, nicotine
115
Name some substances that cannot cross the BBB.
(water soluble) dopamine, botulin toxin
116
Where do most cerebral veins penetrate then drain?
penetrate the arachnoid mater and meningeal dura, drain into the dural venous sinus
117
What drains into the dural venous sinus?
cerebral veins, emissary veins and diploic veins
118
What do diploic veins drain?
bone
119
What do emissary veins drain?
scalp
120
What vein takes blood out of the brain area?
internal jugular
121
Describe the CSF pathway
1. start at the lateral ventricles 2. move into the 3rd ventricle 3. move to the 4th ventricle via the cerebral aquaduct 4. from there it can go to... cisterna magna via the medial foramen pontine cistern via the lateral foramen the central canal
122
What is the only way that CSF can move from one lateral ventricle to another?
interventricular foramen
123
Draw and label the different parts of the dural venous sinus. (figure 22)
:)
124
Where does the superior saggital DVS drain and where does it go?
confluence of sinuses to the right transverse DVS
125
Where does the inferior saggital DVS drain and where does it go?
drains in to the rectus sinus, into the confluence of sinuses and to the left transverse DVS
126
What does the superior petrosal DVS drain into?
right transverse DVS
127
What does the inferior petrosal DVS drain into?
sigmoid sinus
128
What does the occipital DVS drain into?
left transverse DVS
129
What DVS does most CSF enter? How?
superior saggital DVS by penetrating arachnoid villi
130
The inferior sagittal DVS runs along a ___ ___
free surface
131
Where is the straight sinus located?
at the junction of falx cerebri, tentorium cerebelli and falx cerebri
132
Which vein is not embedded in the dura?
great cerebral vein of Galen
133
What is the confluence of sinuses also known as?
torcular Herophili
134
What does the transverse DVS run along?
fixed occipital bone margins of the tentorium cerebelli
135
Where do middle ear veins drain?
superior petrosal sinuses
136
Be able to draw and label the circular DVS on page 49
:)
137
What runs in the middle of the circular DVS?
infundibular stalk
138
What structure separates the lateral ventricles anteriorly?
septum pellucidum
139
Where does the choroid plexus run?
starts along the roof of the inferior horn, goes to the atrium and along the floor of the body, through the interventricular foramina and spreads onto the roof of the 3rd ventricle.
140
Name the 5 openings of the 4th ventricle.
cerebral aqueduct, central canal, median foramen, left lateral foramen, right lateral foramen
141
What are the functions of the CSF?
shock absorber, bouancy, vitamin C absorption, hormone transport, lymph replacement
142
How many mL of CSF will a person have on average?
80-150 mL
143
What are some causes of CSF obstruction?
neoplastic growths, congenitally small openings or aqueducts
144
Where can CSF obstruction occur?
interventricular foramina, median and lateral foramen, cerebral aqueduct or subarachnoid space
145
What are the symptoms of CSF obstruction?
hydrocephalus, nausea, vomiting, headache, blurred vision
146
What are some clinical aids to help people with CSF obstruction?
pneumoencephalography, ventriculargraphy, myelograms or CAT scans
147
Describe surgical shunts
used to open an area so CSF can get through, there is no special treatment when it comes to chiropractic, we just need to know it's there
148
How many layers does the dura have in the cranium? Spine?
2 layers, 1 loose layer in the canal
149
Where is the epidural space real?
spine
150
What part(s) of the meninges are attached to the dura?
arachnoid and pia
151
What else does the pia mater do?
creates denticulate ligaments and filum terminale internum
152
What are the different nerves that can carry efferent information in the parasympathetic system?
C 3, 7, 9, 10 | S 2, 3, 4
153
What are the different nerves that can carry efferent information in the sympathetic pathway?
T1-L2