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Test 1 Flashcards

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0
Q

What is rule 1 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint includes scene safety issues choose the protocol that best addresses those issues.

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1
Q

What does QHAT mean?

A

Queensland health authorized transport

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2
Q

What is rule 2 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint involves trauma choose the protocol that best addresses mechanism of injury.

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3
Q

What is rule 3 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint appears to be medical in nature choose the protocol that best fits the patients foremost symptom, with priority symptoms taking precedence.

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4
Q

What is rule 4 of case entry?

A

When the initial chief complaint appears to be fitting, go to protocol 12 regardless of consciousness and breathing status.

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5
Q

What are the call taker objectives?

A
  1. Receive calls
  2. Determine scene safety
  3. Triage the incident
  4. Obtain enough info to create a case
  5. Send to dispatch
  6. Provide appropriate PAI’s, PDI’s and emotional support
  7. Notify other services
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6
Q

State operations centre system co-ordination

A 
Brisbane
Southport
Maroochydore
Townsville
Rockhampton 
Towoomba
Cairns
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7
Q

What is the definition of QHAT?

A

A patient who meets the eligibility criteria for ambulance transport and in the opinion of a QHealth medical officer requires active management, observation and specialist transport by QAS personnel.

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8
Q

What is the definition of PAI’s?

A

Pre arrival instructions:
Medically approved scripted instructions to control the incident and provides assistance to the caller.
(Choking/airway/arrest, child birth)

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9
Q

What is the definition of PDI’s?

A

Post dispatch instructions:

Case specific advice, warnings and treatments relayed by trained EMD’s to callers after dispatching crews.

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10
Q

What is the definition of DLS?

A

Dispatch life support:

Allows you to navigate from PDI’s to a a suitable PAI or x-card based on the patients diagnosis.

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11
Q

What are the 5 P’s?

A 
Patients
People
Performance
Professionalism
Process
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12
Q

What are the resources you can use to provide advice to a caller?

A 
Mentor
PDI's 
CDS
PAI's
OCS
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13
Q

What does CDS mean?

A

Clinical deployment supervisor

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14
Q

What are the functions of a call card?

A
  1. Serve as a back up to cad
  2. Provide an accurate record of the information given
  3. Manual means of recording and tracking calls
  4. Can be used in a court of law
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15
Q

What are the groupings for acute classifications?

A

Alpha- CCP
Bravo- extended care/advanced care paramedic
Charlie- paramedic with defib
Delta- other clinical resource with defib
Echo- any clinical resource(no defib)
Foxtrot- first responder(rural areas)

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16
Q

What are the groupings for medical classifications?

A

Golf- PTO with defib

Hotel- PTO (no defib)

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17
Q

Explain a 1a response

A
  1. Immediate response of alpha and bravo units if a medical unit is closer it is to be dispatched as well
  2. Actual time critical
  3. A patient with abnormal or absent vital signs
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18
Q

Explain a 1B response.

A
  1. Immediate response of a bravo unit
  2. Emergent time critical
  3. Patients with injury/illness with high probability of deterioration even though vital signs are within normal limits.
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19
Q

Explain a 1C response.

A
  1. Immediate response of a bravo unit
  2. Potential time critical
  3. Patients have do not present with significant injury/illness but have a significant MOI or past history that indicates high potential for deterioration
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20
Q

Explain a 2A response.

Study These Flashcards
A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has injury/illness that requires immediate assessment/treatment by paramedics.

21
Q

Explain a 2B response.

Study These Flashcards
A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has injury/illness that requires assessment/treatment by paramedics.

22
Q

Explain a 2C response.

Study These Flashcards
A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has low acuity injury or illness that requires paramedic assessment or intervention

23
Q

Explain a 3A response.

Study These Flashcards
A
  1. Time critical appointment
  2. Requires paramedics
  3. No lights and sirens
24
Explain a 3B response.
1. Time critical appointment 2. Requires PTO 3. No lights and sirens
25
Explain a 4A response.
1. Return from appointment/ed visit 2. Paramedic required 3. At QAS earliest convenience 4. No lights and sirens
26
Explain a 4B response.
1. Return from appointment/ed visit 2. PTO required 3. At QAS earliest convenience 4. No lights and sirens
27
What interventions/mobility can a paramedic support?
IV, Monitor, stretcher, oxygen, walkers.
28
What interventions/mobility can a PTO support?
Stretcher, walkers, oxygen.
29
Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (categories 1&2).
Mata1(1A)- life threatening, actual time critical, L&S immediate emergency response Mata2(1B)- potential life threatening, emergent time critical, L&S immediate emergency response
30
Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (categories 3&4).
``` Mata 3(2A)- non life threatening, acute injury or illness, urgent no L&S Mata 4(2A)- non life threatening condition, semi urgent no L&S ```
31
Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (category 5).
``` Routine responses A- paramedic B- PTO Mata 5(3A) Matb 5(3B) Mata 6(4A) Matb 6(4B) ```
32
Provide some enhancing questions.
1. What is the name of complex 2. What is the best entry 3. Is the complex gated/security code 4. Is there an internal street name 5. Can someone meet paramedics 6. What level is the patient on 7. Can we get a STR to patient 8. Is someone with patient
33
What are the main clients of the QAS?
``` QHealth General public QPS QFES Q Rail Airports Energex NRS military Gas company ```
34
Who do you need to notify in case of RTC?
QPS QFES OCS(in case of multi-cas incident)
35
Who do you need to notify in case of Chemical incident?
QPS QFES OCS
36
Who do you need to notify in case of Train derailment?
QPS QFES OCS Q Rail
37
Explain code 1&2 on DOH ordering guide.
Red1B(1B)- L&S paramedic Red2A(2B)- no L&S paramedic immediate no delay Red2B(2B)- no L&S paramedic 30mins from receipt of call Red2C(2C)- no L&S paramedic 1hr from receipt of call
38
Explain code 3 on DOH ordering guide.
Pink3A/B(3A/B)- paramedic/PTO agreed time for today, not available at facility Lime (etc)- appt time critical from QH facility Tan (etc)- appointment time critical from residence
39
Explain code 4 on DOH ordering guide.
Blue4A/B(4A/B)- no L&S para/PTO return from appt back to QH Teal (etc.)- return from appt/ED visit back to residence Aqua (etc.)- discharge from from ward to usual residence
40
Give 2 examples of a 1A response.
Ineffective breathing | Cardiac/respiratory arrest
41
Give 2 examples of a 1B response.
Difficulty speaking between breaths | Asthma not alert
42
Give 2 examples of a 1C response.
Chest pain clammy | Chest pain cocaine use
43
Give 2 examples of a 2A response.
Fall to possibly dangerous body area | Headache with numbness
44
Give 2 examples of a 2B response.
Sunburn | Assault to ankle
45
Give 2 examples if a 2C response.
VD | Gout
46
Give 2 examples of a 3A response.
Dialysis appt with IV insitu | Cardiac appointment with monitoring
47
Give 2 examples of a 3B response.
Wound dressing appt nil interventions | Dialysis appt nil interventions
48
What questions do you need to ask if there is a plane crash?
1. Size of aircraft? 2. Any visible markings 3. Fires or explosions 4. Civilian or military? 5. Access to the site and staging areas 6. People on board? 7. What kind of cargo?
49
What to do during a bomb call?
``` Stay on the line Remain calm Follow AFP checklist Document everything Report to QPS Advise OCS ```
50
QHAT transports include:
``` Urgent and non urgent transports between QH facilities Hospital to home QH hospital to private hosp Residence to QH facility Short distance cross border transports ```

EMD (2 decks)

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