Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What command would you run from a windows command line to verify that a NIC can send and receive IPv4 packets?
A
ping 127.0.0.1
2
Q
At what layer of the OSI model does the internet protocal work?
A
Network
3
Q
Which of the following is a valid IP address for an individual system expressed in dotted decimal notation.
A
215.233.32.91
4
Q
What is the range of decimal values in each of the four groups of an IPv4 address?
A
0 to 255
5
Q
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal value 97?
A
0110001
6
Q
What is the MAC broadcast address?
A
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
7
Q
Which of the following statements about subnet masks is NOT true?
A
A “0” in the subnet masks indicates part of the network ID.
8
Q
When viewed in binary, what value is always on the far left in the first octet of a Class A address?
A
0
9
Q
If the first decimal value of an IP address is between 128 and 191, to what IP class does the network belong?
A
Class B
10
Q
What is the maximum number of hosts you may have on a network if the first decimal value of the IP address is between 192 and 223 and the subnet mask is 24?
A
254
11
Q
Which of the following subnet masks is an example of classless subnetting?
A
/12
12
Q
Which of the following is not a designated private IP address?
A
153.6.2.1
13
Q
Which of the following automatically gives out IP information to computers that request it?
A
DHCP
14
Q
How long is a subnet mask?
A
32 bits
15
Q
What network protocol do Linux and Apple (Macintosh) systems most commonly use today?
A
TCP/IP
16
Q
The decimal value 151 converts to what binary value?
A
10010111
17
Q
Convert the binary value 11010101 to decimal.
A
213
18
Q
This is done by an ISP when it takes a block of addresses, subnets the block into multiple subnets, and then passes out the smaller individual subnets to customers.
A
CIDR
19
Q
What are the two names for dynamic IP addressing?
A
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
20
Q
This is done by an organization when it takes a block of addresses received from an ISP and breaks the single block of addresses into multiple subnetworks.
A
subnetting
21
Q
If your network subnet mask is/16, what is the maximum number of host IDs available for this network?
A
65,534
22
Q
At what layer of the OSI model does the Internet protocol (IP) work?
A
Network
23
Q
Which of the following is the formula you would use to arrive at the number of hosts on a subnet.
A
2(number of zeroes in the subnet mask)-2
24
Q
What is an IP addressing notation that uses a slash and is named for the method of generating blocks of IP addresses?
A
CIDR
25
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating the number of new subnets?
2(number of network ID extension digits)-2
26
What command can you use to test the NIC's ability to send and receive packets?
ping 127.0.0.1
27
Which protocol uses datagrams as its Protocol Data Unit?
UDP
28
Which of the following protocols are connection-oriented?
TCP
29
Which of the following protocols uses TCP as its transport layer protocol?
HTTP
30
At which layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack do HTTP, FTP, and DNS reside?
Application layer
31
Which of the following are NOT contained in a UDP header?
acknowledgement number
32
How many layers does the OSI model contain?
7
33
Select the one function below that a NIC does NOT perform.
It routes data across the most efficient route on the network.
34
How long is a MAC address?
12 hexadecimal characters
35
A MAC address is composed of which two parts?
the organizationally unique identifier and the unique device ID of the NIC
36
Which of the following is another name for a MAC address?
physical
37
NICs send and receive binary data as pulses of all of the following EXCEPT
gamma rays
38
What is the length of the typical frame?
1500 bytes of data
39
Which statement best describes what happens to frames when the hub sends them to the NICs on the network?
The frames are received by every NIC, but only the NIC with the matching MAC address processes the frame.
40
Where does the CRC come from in a network frame?
The sending NIC attaches it.
41
Which of the following is a broadcast MAC address?
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
42
Routers have which of the following capabilities?
They allow you to connect networks with different types of cabling or frames.
43
Which of the following statements best describes an IP address?
It is a unique dotted decimal number assigned to every network node.
44
All of the following statements are true about the OSI model EXCEPT ____________.
Each protocol needs to understand all of the protocols handling all the other layers.
45
Which standards organization is named for the Greek word for "equal"?
ISO
46
Which layer of the OSI model manages the connections between machines on the network?
Session
47
When it receives data from the upper layers, which layer of the OSI model assembles the data into smaller pieces called packets?
Network
48
Which layer of the OSI model uses routers and IP addresses to ensure that packets arrive at the correct system?
Network
49
Which layer of the OSI model adds source and destination MAC addresses to frames?
Data Link
50
In some networks data moves over radio waves, which fall into which layer of the OSI model?
Physical
51
What layer of the OSI model refers to the code built into operating systems that enables network-aware applications?
Application
52
Which of the following best describes Logical Link Control (LLC)?
It is a sublayer of the Data Link layer.
53
Anything that moves data from one system to another, such as cabling or radio waves, is part of this layer of the OSI model.
Layer 1
54
Which layer of the OSI model is the only layer divided into two sublayers?
Data Link
55
Which of these statements best describes an Application Program Interface?
It is a set of commands, provided by the manufacturer of an operating system, which allows programmers to create applications.
56
For a network tech, one benefit of understanding the OSI seven-layer model and how traffic in an actual network works through the model is applying this knowledge to _______________ networks.
troubleshooting
57
What device do you need to split a large network into smaller ones?
router
58
How does the receiving station on a network use the CRC to verify that it received accurate data?
It uses the same divisor as the sending station to find the same remainder.
59
What is the Network layer unique identifier assigned to each device on a TCP/IP network?
IP address
60
Routers function at which layer of the OSI model?
Network
61
Routers function at which layer of the TCP/IP model?
Internet
62
Which TCP/IP model layer uses connection-oriented protocols?
Transport
63
Which layer of the TCP/IP model is mapped to the top three layers of the OSI model?
Layer 4
64
Which layer of the TCP/IP model performs IP addressing functions?
Layer 3
65
How many cable fibers are normally required by almost all network technologies that use fiber-optic cable?
Two
66
If the computers on the network connect via the same piece of cable, what topology is employed?
bus
67
With both bus and ring networks, where is the single point of failure that will bring down the entire network?
the cable
68
What kind of cable is described as a central conductor wire, surrounded by insulating materials, placed inside a braided metal shield?
coaxial
69
What is the most common use of coaxial cable in networking today?
connecting a cable modem to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)
70
What is the only important measure of coax cabling?
Ohm rating
71
What is the minimum category rating of UTP cabling you would need for a network that runs at 1000 Mbps?
CAT5e
72
What distance can a signal travel on a fiber-optic cable?
tens of kilometers
73
What type of fiber-optic cable uses lasers to send signals?
single-mode
74
Which of the following cable types does NOT use copper wires?
fiber-optic
75
What rating defines how much a cable resists the flow of electricity?
Ohm rating
76
UTP category ratings are based on what?
The highest frequency and bandwidth that the cable can handle
77
Which kind of cable does not provide any protection against EMI?
UTP
78
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of UTP cabling?
It is not susceptible to electro-magnetic interference.
79
Which kind of cable works best for long-distance transmissions?
fiber-optic
80
Which of the following describes the numeric designator on fiber-optic cables?
the size of the fiber and the size of the cladding measured in millionths of a meter (microns)
81
Which kind of cabling would you select when you need to cover distances that span kilometers?
fiber-optic
82
Most network technologies that use fiber-optics use which type of fiber-optic cables?
multimode
83
What organization provides a variety of industry-wide cabling standards, such as those for serial, parallel, and FireWire?
IEEE
84
Which IEEE subcommittee sets the standards for Wireless LAN networks?
802.11
85
What does the term "capacitance" refer to?
how long it takes a wire to get a full charge
86
In response to demand for the most common configuration of fiber-optic cable, manufacturers created this type of fiber-optic cabling.
duplex
87
Which statement is true about Category ratings for cables?
UTP has a category rating.
88
At which layer of the OSI model does network cabling belong?
Physical
89
What term describes a practical application of a topology and other critical technologies that provide a method to get data from one computer to another on a network?
network technology
90
Which connector is used for UTP cabling on a network?
RJ-45
91
How many binary digits are in an IPv4 address?
32
92
What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
255.255.255.0
93
What is the de facto protocol suite of the Internet?
TCP/IP
94
The addresses 127.0.0.1, 10.1.1.50, 172.16.200.1, and 192.168.35.44 are all examples of what?
special IP addresses
95
On a TCP/IP network, what information within a packet does a router use to determine where an incoming packet should go?
destination IP addresses
96
Routers using the OSPF protocol are organized into these groups.
Areas
97
C Which type of NAT is the most popular?
Overload NAT
| PAT
98
What is the term used for the passage of a packet through a router?
hop
99
Which of the following could be a valid Autonomous System Number (ASN)?
1.33457
100
Which of the following protocols would you expect to find used as an interior gateway protocol within an Autonomous System?
OSPF
101
Which of these routing protocols is the oldest?
RIP
102
What is the maximum number of hops allowed by RIP?
15
103
Which of the following is the distance vector routing protocol used on the Internet?
BGP
104
What is the protocol developed by Cisco for enterprise-wide routing environments?
EIGRP
105
Which of the following attributes does not apply to those OSPF routing method?
It uses a link state algorithm
| (It sends routing information at regular intervals even if there are no changes.
106
In a NAT router, what is the name for an arbitrary number generated by the sending computer?
Ephemeral Port
| source port
107
What is the one protocol used on the Internet for communication between Autonomous Systems?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
108
What protocol (including version number) was adopted in 1994, and is now considered obsolete except for small, private WANs?
RIPv2
109
Local connections do not use this, although every routing table has a column for it, and therefore, a value appears in this field for each route.
gateway
110
Select the distance vector protocols from the following list. (Select all that apply.)
B, C, and D
111
Select the link state dynamic routing protocol from the following list. (Select all that apply.)
IS-IS
112
If your company has a single server on the private LAN that they want to make accessible from the Internet, which of the following would give the server the protection of NAT while allowing access to that server from the Internet?
port forwarding
113
Which of the following would be a valid Area ID?
0.0.0.0
114
Who assigns Area IDs?
Network administrators
115
With this type of NAT, many computers can share a pool of routable IP addresses that number fewer than the computers.
Dynamic NAT
116
When a NAT router uses this in conjunction with IP addresses, it helps to solve the two problems of security and limited IP addresses.
TCP/IP port numbers
117
Some manufacturers, such as Cisco, use this term to refer to either overloaded NAT or port forwarding.
Port Address Translation (PAT)
118
What is the name of the proprietary cable designed by Cisco for connecting to their routers?
Yost
119
An administrator managing many routers should be using this type of tool in order to have an overall view of all the routers.
Network Management System (NMS)
120
Which one of the following routing metrics determines the largest frame a particular technology can handle?
MTU
121
Which one of the following routing protocols did not support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?
RIPv1
122
Which one of the following NAT technologies uses port numbers to map traffic from specific machines on the network?
PAT
123
Which of the following routing metrics, administratively assigned to links, affect which routes are chosen?
cost
124
Which of the following routing metrics is the ability of a connection to handle more traffic than others?
bandwidth
125
At what layer of the OSI model does the set of protocols indicated by the TCP part of TCP/IP work?
Transport
126
What protocol, replaced in recent years by a more secure protocol, was for many years the primary protocol used to allow a user to log in remotely and execute text-based commands on a remote host?
Telnet
127
A communication between computers that begins with an acknowledgement, followed by a message, and ends with a closing acknowledgement, is which type of communication?
connection-oriented
128
Most computer connections use this Transport layer protocol.
TCP
129
What function is being used if a packet is sent to port 80?
Web browsing
130
What is the protocol of choice for very simple applications that never need more than a single packet?
ICMP
131
What Transport layer protocol does Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) use?
UDP
132
If you cannot receive e-mail, which of the following protocols should you suspect is not working properly?
POP3
133
Which protocol enables routers to communicate with hosts to determine a group membership for multicast communications?
IGMP
134
What name is given to the port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023?
well-known port numbers
135
When a Web browser sends a message to a Web server, it generates this type of port number pseudo-randomly as the source port for the packet.
ephemeral port number
136
This type of port has a number in the 1024 to 49151 range.
registered port
137
This is another name for a session.
connection
138
Which TCP port(s) does File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use?
20 and 21
139
What protocol handles outgoing e-mail?
SMTP
140
What file transfer protocol uses UDP port 69, and does not use user names and passwords?
TFTP
141
This is the "show me the endpoint" command.
netstat
142
What is the status of a port that is part of an active working endpoint pair?
established port
143
What status indicates that a connection has made a graceful closure?
close_wait
144
What status indicates that a connection has been lost to the other side, and has not yet closed?
time-wait
145
What is the name for the number used by the operating system to track all running programs?
process ID (PID)
146
Microsoft Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox are examples of this type of TCP/IP application.
Web client
147
This Web server was originally created for the UNIX/Linux platforms, but now comes in a version for Windows.
Apache HTTP Server
148
This is the underlying protocol on the World Wide Web.
HTTP
149
This is the secure counterpart of HTTP.
HTTPS
150
Almost every server application has a way for you to access and administer it using this older protocol.
Telnet
151
This protocol is an alternative to POP3, with special enhancements.
IMAP4
152
While there are many e-mail server programs, this one is the leader among those used on Linux and UNIX systems, controlling about 20 percent of all e-mail servers, and only running the SMTP protocol.
sendmail
153
What is the term for the servers just below the DNS root servers?
top-level domain servers
154
Which of the following statements is true about DNS root servers?
They have the complete definitive name resolution table.
155
Which of the following is the record type for an authoritative DNS server?
SOA
156
Which of the following is the latest version of Microsoft's folder- and printer-sharing protocol?
CIFS
157
What term best describes the way the DNS name space is organized?
hierarchical
158
Which of the following characters is not permitted in a DNS domain or host name?
Spaces
159
In the syntax for a domain name, what character or characters separates a domain name from its subdomains?
.
160
Which is the correct sequence according to the DNS naming convention?
host.domain.root
161
Including the separators, what is the maximum number of characters allowed by the DNS naming convention?
255
162
How is the address 127.0.0.1 listed in the HOSTS file?
localhost
163
What enables a DNS server to determine an FQDN by knowing the IP address?
ping
164
Which of the following is not a top-level domain name?
.html
165
What organization oversees the registration of domain names?
ICANN
166
On an authoritative DNS server, what are the storage areas called that hold the IP addresses and names of systems for a particular domain or domains?
forward lookup zones
167
Which of the following would confirm that you have a DNS problem?
Ping works with the IP address but not with the FQDN.
168
What program, available with Windows (except 9x), Linux, and NetWare, provides all types of information from a DNS server and allows you to change how your system uses DNS?
nslookup
169
What type of server resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses?
WINS
170
Which of the following is a situation in which a network with NetBIOS clients would not need to use WINS?
It can broadcast across its entire network.
171
How do WINS servers learn the NetBIOS names of computers on the network?
The computers register their names with the WINS server.
172
Which of the following is the most common WINS/NetBIOS problem?
Two systems share the same name.
173
What command can you use to check the current NetBIOS name cache to see if it has provided inaccurate addresses to the WINS client?
nbtstat
174
What command-line command allows you to see other NetBIOS systems?
net view
175
What kind of DNS server has no responsibility for giving the names of its clients to other DNS servers?
cache-only server
176
Which of the following is true of the names in a flat name space?
Each must be unique.
177
Which statement is true about NetBIOS name broadcasts?
The host sends the message to all machines on the local network.
178
Which type of forward lookup zone exists on a DNS server that acts as a backup?
secondary
179
Which technology allows DNS servers to query DHCP servers for host IP addresses?
Dynamic DNS
180
Which technology allows DNS clients to automatically update DNS servers?
Dynamic DNS
181
Which type of DNS allows the zone information to be stored across multiple domain controllers?
Active Directory-integrated zones
182
Which service would allow home or office networks that may change IP addresses to be contacted via domain names?
Dynamic DNS
183
Which term means to scramble, to mix up, and to change data in such a way so that the wrong people cannot read it, but the right people can unscramble it?
Encryption
184
Which term refers to the result of running cleartext through a cipher algorithm using a key?
Cipertext
185
Which block cipher is used by most TCP/IP applications?
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
186
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Data Encryption Standard (DES)
187
Which type of algorithm is used when two different keys are used in encryption?
Asymmetric-key
188
Which term defines what an authenticated person can do with data?
Authorization
189
Authorization
Algorithm
190
Which layer of the OSI model is a common place for encryption using proprietary encryption devices?
Layer 7
191
Which term describes a mathematical function that you run on a string of binary digits of any length that results in a value of some fixed length?
Hash
192
Which cryptographic hash comes in several versions?
Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
193
Which term refers to a standardized type of digital signature that includes the digital signature of a third party?
Certificate
194
Which organization is the biggest player in the certificate authority market?
VeriSign
195
Which authentication method is the most common authentication method for dial-up connections?
MS-CHAPv2
196
Which standard offers authentication, authorization, and accounting?
Terminal Access Control Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)
197
Which authentication protocol is used in a TCP/IP network where many clients all connect to a single authenticating server with no point-to-point involved?
Kerberos
198
What is another name for a timestamped service ticket?
Token
199
Which port does the Kerberos authentication protocol use?
88
200
Which technology is not a true protocol in the classic sense?
802.1X
201
Which of the following is an example of a network operating system in a classic client/server network?
Novell NetWare
202
Computers that both serve and request data participate in which kind of network?
Peer-to-peer
203
Which operating system was once a common example of an operating system designed for peer-to-peer networking?
Windows 98
204
Peer-to-peer applications are often referred to simply as __________.
P2P
205
Which application uses the BitTorrent standard?
Bit torrent limewire utorrent
206
Which type of network is created when you use encrypted tunnels between a computer or a remote network and a private network through the Internet?
Virtual private network (VPN)
207
What TCP/IP protocol layer supports PPTP and L2TP?
Link
208
Which tools are tunneling protocols?
PPTP and L2TP
209
What is the result of running “Create a New Connection” on the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN connection?
A virtual NIC is created.
210
On the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN connection, where does a client get an IP address from after it creates a virtual NIC?
DHCP server
211
Which protocol suite does L2TP use for all of its security needs?
IPsec
212
A type of VPN connection, where a single computer logs into a remote network and becomes, for all intents and purposes, a member of that network, is commonly called a(n) __________ connection.
virtual
213
Which protocol was a Cisco proprietary protocol that was replaced by L2TP?
L2F
214
Cisco has made a big push for companies to adopt VPN hardware that enables VPNs using __________.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
215
What are the two most common types of SSL VPNs?
SSL portal VPNs and SSL tunnel VPNs
216
A __________ VPN deals with a specific single connection between two machines using VPN software or hardware.
site-to-site
217
In which type of VPN does the client browser run an active control, such as Java or Flash?
SSL tunnel
218
To configure a switch, you will need a(n) __________.
IP address
219
Which type of network is created when you segment a network using the switches you already own?
Virtual LAN
220
VLANs require special __________ loaded with extra programming to create the virtual networks.
switches
221
Which device takes a circuit and combines it with a few hundred other circuits into a single complex circuit on one wire?
Multiplexer
222
Which technology is used by multiplexers to separate individual voice calls by keeping every call in its own unique frequency range?
Frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
223
Which digital signal rate does a central office use to convert analog voice signals before multiplexing them into larger circuits?
DS0
224
Which device converts an analog signal to digital and a digital signal to analog?
Modulator-demodulator
225
How many copper wires are used by a T1 line?
two pair
226
Which device connects to each end of a T1 connection?
CSU/DSU
227
Which digital signal rate is used by a T1 line?
DS1
228
Which digital signaling rate has a frame containing a framing bit and 24 channels where each channel holds a single 8-bit DS0 data sample?
DS1
229
What is the data transfer speed for DS1?
1.544 Mbps
230
How many channels are in a T1 bundle?
16
231
What is the European counterpart to a T1 line?
1.544
232
What is the approximate total bandwidth of an E3 line?
2.048
233
What is the low end speed of the SONET Optical Carrier specification (OC-1)?
51.8 Mbps
234
Which term refers to the first generation of packet-switching technology?
X.25
235
Which term refers to a technology that serves as a replacement for Frame Relay and ATM switching?
Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)
236
What is the range of transfer speed for ATM?
155.52 to 622.08 Mbps and beyond
237
What is the size of an ATM fixed-length cell?
53 bytes
238
Which test should a network administrator run on a CSU/DSU to test a WAN connection and verify the T-carrier connection from end to end?
BERT
239
Which phone line has a baud rate of 2,400 and uses an RJ-11 connector?
PSTN
240
Which device takes 8-bit-wide digital data, converts it into 1-bit-wide digital data, and then hands it to a modem for conversion to analog?
UART
241
Which standard is the common wireless networking standard?
IEEE 802.11
242
Which term represents the condition of whether a wireless device is connected?
Link state
243
Which term represents a measurement of how well a wireless device is connecting to other devices?
Signal strength
244
Which wireless network mode operates by allowing two or more PCs to communicate directly without cabling or any other intermediary hardware?
Ad hoc
245
What type of unit is formed by two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode?
Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
246
What type of unit is formed by a single WAP servicing a given area?
Extended Service Set (ESS)
247
What type of unit is formed by a single wireless access point servicing a given area that has been extended by adding more access points?
Basic Service Set (BSS)
248
Which term defines the most basic infrastructure mode network – a BSS of one WAP and one or more wireless nodes?
Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
249
What is used as the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) for a Basic Service Set (BSS)?
The MAC address of the WAP
250
What do wireless nodes in an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) use in place of the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID value in each frame?
The MAC address of the WAP
251
Which term did Wi-Fi people create to use as another level of naming to describe a standard name applied to the BSS or IBSS to help the connection happen?
Service Set Identifier (SSID)
252
Which spread-spectrum broadcasting method sends data out on different frequencies at the same time?
DSSS
253
Which term describes a portion of the available spectrum available for Wi-Fi network communication?
Channel
254
How many channels were defined by the 802.11 standard?
14
255
Which of the channels defined by the 802.11 standard may be used by a WAP using the 2.4-GHz band in the United States?
1 through 11
256
__________ broadcasts data in small, discrete chunks over the different frequencies available within a certain frequency range.
Spread-spectrum
257
Which 802.11 collision avoidance method is currently implemented?
CSMA/CA
258
What happens when frames are transmitted on the network from two different devices at the same time, corrupting each other’s signals?
A collision occurs.
259
Which term describes the predetermined silence period that is added to the length of a packet to determine the waiting period for a network device after it has detected traffic on the media?
Interframe gap
260
Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps, a range of up to about 300 feet, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency, and is backward-compatible with an earlier, popular Wi-Fi standard?
802.11g
