TEST 1 Flashcards
(130 cards)
1
Q
cleft lip is caused by failure of what to fuse?
A
medial nasal + maxillary process
2
Q
Primary palate is formed by merging of ____
A
medial nasal processes
3
Q
Secondary palate is formed by merging of ___
A
maxillary processes of the 1st arch
4
Q
treatment for cleft lip includes:
A
10 weeks, 10 lbs or 10gm%HG
5
Q
Cleft lip is most prevalent in:
A
Native americans 1 in 250
Chinese
Caucasians
African americans 1 in 1500
6
Q
what forms cleft palate?
A
failure of palatal shelves to fuse
7
Q
Cleft palate only is more common in ___
A
females
8
Q
Peirre Robin Sequence
A
- glossoptosis
- mandibular micrognathia
- cleft palate
9
Q
Van Der Woude Syndrome
A
- paramedian lip pit
- CL and or CP
- autosomal dominant
10
Q
Ascher Syndrome
A
- Double lip
- blepharochalisis
- nontoxic thyroid enlargement
11
Q
Mandibular dysostosis (treacher collins)
A
- coloboma
- hypoplastic zygoma
- underdeveloped mandible
12
Q
Apert Syndrome
A
- hypertelorism
- occular proptosis
- lateral palpebral fissures downward slant
- syndactyly of hands and feet
13
Q
What is white and doesn’t wipe off but goes away when lip is stretched
A
Leukoedema
14
Q
Define fordyce granule
A
ectopic sebaceous gland
15
Q
what is the most common syndromic clefting?
A
Paramedian lip pit
- congenital - van der woude syndrome
16
Q
Name 2 common causes of macroglossia
A
- vascular malformation
2. Muscular hypertrophy
17
Q
what is the minimum manifestation of cleft palate?
A
bifid uvula
18
Q
Geographic tongue is also known as
A
benign migratory glossitis
it is not developmental
19
Q
what is geographic tongue called when not on the tongue?
A
Erythema migrans
20
Q
Coronoid hyperplasia deviates ___
A
toward the affected side only upon opening
21
Q
Condylar hyperplasia deviates ____
A
opposite of affected side and shows when mouth is closed
22
Q
Stafne defect is also known as
A
lingual mandibular salivary gland depression
23
Q
Define cyst
A
pathologic cavity lined by epithelium
24
Q
what is a palatal cyst of a newborn on the median raphe called?
A
epstein pearl
25
what is the most common globulomaxillary radiolucency?
periapical cyst
| located max. lateral incisor and canine
26
what is the second most common globulomaxillary radiolucency?
apical granuloma
27
what is the most common non-odontogenic cyst?
nasopalatine duct cyst
28
if a cyst is 6mm or greater, in the maxilla around vital incisors with no root resorption it is probably _____
nasopalatine duct cyst
29
what is the nasopalatine duct cyst's soft tissue counterpart?
cyst of incisive papilla
30
if a cyst contains epithelium and adnexal structures in the wall it is probably a
dermoid ctst
31
waldeyers ring
yellow mass
located in the lingual tonsil area
lymphoepithelial cyst
32
this cyst presents as a bulge on the outside of the throat
cervical lymphoepithelial cyst
33
Progressive Hemifacial atrophy affects _____side of face and is caused by____infection
one, Boriella spp.
34
what two oral presentations are associated with Congenital syphilis
hutchinsons incisors and mulberry molars
35
Tooth on tooth contact is called____and often caused by______
attrition, bruxism
36
pathologic wearing away of tooth structure is called ____ and often caused by___
abrasion, agressive brushing
37
nonbacterial chemical process leading to loss of tooth structure
erosion
38
repeated tooth flexure leading to occlusal stresses
abfraction
39
Attrition + abrasion is called
demastication (ex. chewing tobacco)
40
when a bon notch on hard palate margin is present and affects musculature of the soft palate you get a ____
submucous palatal defect
41
lack of 1+ teeth, most common in maxillary 3rd molars>lat incisors>2nd premolars
hypodontia
42
lack of 6+ teeth
oligodontia
43
supernumerary teeth is known as____, the most common being____
hyperdontia, mesiodens(maxillary incisors)
44
when you have joined teeth and the count is normal
gemination
45
when you have joined teeth and the count is missing 1 tooth
fusion, joined by cementum and dentin
46
when two teeth are joined by cementum alone
concresence
47
if you have a large bump on posterior tongue around foramen cecum area it is known as
lingual thyroid
48
when a tooth doesn't reach the occlusal plane because it fused to bone
ankylosis
49
Dens evaginatus is most common in___ and associated with ____
premolars , shovel shaped incisors
50
Dens invaginatus is most common in ___
lateral incisor>centrals>premolars>canine>molar
| caused by deep surface invagination of crown or root lined by enamel
51
if you see an enlarged pulp chamber and apically displaced plural floor it is probably
taurodontism
52
Someone with kinky hair, taurodontism and osteosclerosis has
Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
53
Turners sndrome is caused by____and usually in which teeth?
enamel defects in permanent teeth due to periapical inflammation of baby tooth, usually in perm. premolars (infected baby molars)
54
obliterated pulp
blue hue
bulbous crowns
heridetary
dentinogenesis imperfecta
55
Inadequate deposition of enamel matrix with pinpoint pits across tooth
Hypoplastic amelogeneis imperfecta
56
defect in the maturation of enamel crystal structure, enamel is soft and chips away, snowcapped apperance
hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta
57
no mineralization of enamel occurs, enamel starts as yellow/brown and turns brown/black
hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta
58
dentinogenesis imperfecta is caused by what gene mutation?
DSPP =Dentin sialophosphoprotein
59
Dentinogenesis imperfecta affecting bone too is called ___ and caused by a mutation of what gene
osteogenesis imperfect with opalescent teeth , COL1A1 or COL1A2
60
dentin dysplasia type I is characterized by:
very short roots or rootless teeth , stream flowing around boulders
61
dentin dysplasia type II is characterized by
thistle tube shaped chamber with thin tapering canal (corndog) and blue hue
62
When presented with ghost teeth on radiograph, nonhereditary and localized its called
regional odontodysplasia
63
3 sequelae of periapical pathology
1. sinus tract
2. osteomyelitis
3. cellulitis
64
histo slide with only neutrophils (red/pink), triobed
periapical abscess
65
histo slide with lumen but all granulation tissue
periapical granuloma
66
histo slide with distinct lumen
periapical cyst
67
pericornitis is___and most common around
inflammation around crown of erupting tooth
| mandibular 3rd molars
68
if gums are red all over and patient eats a lot of cinnamon gum
plasma cell gingivitis
69
kid has one area where gingiva is red and growing down onto the tooth
localized juvenille spongiotic gingival hyperplasia
70
osteomyelitis
inflammation of bone marrow or bone
71
trauma to soft tissues caused by neonatal teeth is known as
Riga-fede
72
what are 3 syndromes associated with taurodontism?
amelogenesis imperfecta
kelinfelters syndrome
tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
73
does amelogenesis imperfecta have systemic involvement?
no
74
does amelogenesis imperfect affect primary teeth, permenant teeth or both?
both
75
dentinogenesis imperfecta shows what two things radiographically?
bulbous crowns
| thin roots
76
differential for radiolucency at root tip
1. periapical granuloma
2. periapical abscess
3. periapical cyst
4. periapical scar
77
most common radiolucency at root tip of nonvital teeth
periapical granuloma
78
if you have gingival epithelium that spontaneously sloughs off or can be moved with minor manipulation
desquamative gingivitis
79
what are 5 differentials for desquamative gingivitis?
1. lichen Planus
2. mucous membrane pemphagoid
3. pemphigus vulgaris
4. systemic lupus
5. hypersensitivity
80
drug related gingival hyperplasia is often caused by which 3 medications?
1. cyclosporin(transplant)
2. dilantin/phenytoin (Seziure)
3. Nifedipine(BP)
81
Ludwigs angina
submandibular, submental and sublingual swelling
Bull neck
woody tongue (swelling and elevation)
82
Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
1. accelerated periodontitis
2. autosomal recessive
3. palmar plantar keratosis
83
does ludwigs angina present with pus?
No
84
what are 2 types of cellulitus?
ludwigs angina
| cavernous sinus thrombosis
85
cavernous sinus thrombosis usually starts from infection of which tooth?
maxillary canine
86
what are sequelae of cavernous sinus thrombosis?
```
protrusion of eye
excessive tearing
loss of sight
meningitis
brain abscess
```
87
how is cavernous sinus thrombosis treated?
surgical drainage and antibiotics
88
necrotic bone surrounded by new vital bone is called____ and usually seen with ___ osteomyelitis
involcrum, acute
89
which type of osteomyelitis shows no x-ray changes?
acute
90
accumulation of inflammatory cells at apex of a nonvital tooth
periapical abscess
91
characterized by honey crusted lesions, this epidermal infection is called
impetigo
92
what 2 bacteria cause impetigo
staph aureus
| strep pyogenes
93
most common form of impetigo
nonbullous
94
scarlet fever is a sequelae of what?
tonsillitis and pharyngitis
95
is scarlet fever bacterial or viral?
bacterial
96
pasties lines are associated with what disease?
scarlet fever
| rash in folds of the body
97
white strawberry tongue then red strawberry tongue along with skin erythema then desquamation are found with what
scarlet fever
98
what organism causes diphtheria?
cornebacterium diptheriae
99
what is the most commonly reported infectious disease?
gonorrhea
100
what organism causes gonorrhea?
nisseria gonorrhea
101
what organism causes syphilis?
treponema pallidum
102
primary syphilis is characterized by:
chancres
103
secondary/ disseminated syphilis characterized by:
rash
104
tertiary/latent syphilis:
heart complications
| gumma-necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of tongue or palate
105
what organism causes actinomycosis?
actinomyces israelii
106
what organism causes cat scratch disease?
bartonella henselae
107
what is the most common oral fungal infection in humans?
candadiasis
108
what organism causes candadiasis?
candida ablicans
109
T/F the majority of angular chelitis occurs as a fungus alone?
False its fungal and bacterial
110
most common systemic fungal infection
histoplasmosis
111
second most common fungal infection
aspergillosis
112
spores inhaled after rain and resembling pneumonia at onset then TB are signs of
blastomycosis
| blastomyces dermatitids
113
congenital syphilis includes hutchinson triad made up of 3 factors:
1. hutchinsons incisors
2. keratitis
3. 8th nerve deafness
114
TB is caused by ___ and spreads through____
mycobacterium tuberculosis, airborne droplets
115
this mycobacterial infection is caused by drinking contaminated milk
scrofula (TB related)
116
cat scratch disease begins in the ____ and spreads to the___
skin, lymph nodes
117
what is the most common cause of regional lymphadenopathy in kids
cat scratch disease
118
2 most common species causing aspergillosis
1. a.fumigatus
| 2. a. flavus
119
zygomycosis is aka
mucormycosis
120
Coccidioidomycosis is aka____ and caused by ____
san joaquin valley fever, coccidioides immitis
121
blastomycosis is dimorphic growing as ____in the body and ____ in the soil
yeast, mold
122
this organism shows up like micky mouse or spokes of ships steering wheel,
harbored by 9 banded armadillo,
generally self limiting
paracoccidioides brasiliensis -->
| Paracoccidioidomycosis
123
growth inhanced by iron
rhino cerebral form
histo: broad flat hyphal organisms near blood vessels
zygomycosis
124
flu like symptoms
red nodules on legs or face
histo "sac of marbles"
coccidiomycosis
125
pigeon poop
grows in yeast in soil and tissue
histo:really big bag of marbles
cryptococcosis (cryptococcous neoformans)
126
candidacies treatment
nystatin , amphoteracin B , clotrimazole
127
this type of candidiasis is more common than pseudomembranous, with no major white component
erythematous candidiasis
128
this type of candidiasis has white plaque that can't be removed, is least common form
chronic hyperplastic
129
this candidiasis is due to immunologic disorders, white plaques that don't rub off
mucocutaneous candidiasis
130
TB of the skin is called
lupus vulgaris
