Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
An appropriate motor test for a preterm infant at 34 weeks post menstrual age is the?
A
TIMP
2
Q
What is assessed by measuring the distance between the medial femoral condyles when the child is in supine with the medial malleoli touching?
A
Genu Varus
3
Q
What test assesses fine and gross motor skills and may be given to children through age 42 months
A
Bayley
4
Q
What infant motor scale is a norm-referenced motor test for infants?
A
Alberta
5
Q
What pediatric examination approach begins with the desired outcome?
A
Topdown
6
Q
What is the difference between ant-eversion in a newborn and typical adult?
A
Larger
7
Q
The SAFER gathers information about family routines including?
A
Diapering
8
Q
What does SAFER stand for?
A
Scale for Assessment of Family Enjoyment within Routines
9
Q
A torsional profile includes what measures?
A
foot progression angle; hip ROM; foot measurement (metatarsus adductus); and thigh-foot angle
10
Q
What is used to assess leg length discrepancy?
A
Galeazis
11
Q
What type of observation is essential for pediatric examinationn
A
naturalistic observation
12
Q
What is the abbreviation for Routines-based interview tool
A
SAFER
13
Q
The repeatability of a test is its’?
A
Reliability
14
Q
The SATIRE gathers information about school routines including?
A
Circle?
15
Q
what type of tests can be used for program planning?
A
Criterion
16
Q
What does Craig’s test measure?
A
Anteversion
17
Q
A test that has very few false positive would be considered as very?
A
Sensitive
18
Q
Genu () peaks around the age of?
A
Three
19
Q
What does thigh-foot angle measurement look at?
A
tibial torsion
20
Q
The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale can be used until an age of?
A
72 months
21
Q
The “sign of exit” is also known as what and is used to assess?
A
Barlow maneuver detects DDH
22
Q
The “sign of entry” is also known as what and is used to assess?
A
Ortalani maneuver detects DDH
23
Q
Standardized gross motor test express scores as a what? with 100 being an average
A
Quotient
24
Q
A test that has very few false negatives is considered to be very?
A
specific
25
Most norm-referenced gross motor tests express results as a?
percentile
26
Subtests of the PDMS-2 include
stationary, object manipulation, locomotion
27
what is the angle of physiological flexion in neonates?
popliteal
28
Another name for criterion referenced standardized assessments is
evaluative
29
SATIRE stand for?
Scale for the Assessment of Teachers Impressions of Routines and Engagement
30
What are norm-referenced standardized assessments usually used to determine
Eligibility
31
What tests is appropriate for programming for a child with CP
GMFM
32
observation of a child in their normal daily routines is known as
Authentic Observation
33
The AIMS assesses children in what positions?
prone, supine, sitting, standing
34
How can we assess and measure participation?
An interview
35
When a child is under 24 months of age we must calculate an?
adjusted age
36
What does the foot progression angle look at?
In/out toeing during gait.
37
When was IDEA last reauthorized
2004
38
When can discussion about transition from Part C to B services begin?
6 months after the child's third birthday
39
What act provided free and appropriate public education for school age children with disabilities?
Education for all Handicapped Children (1975)
40
Where will PT and other special education services be listed for an individual child?
in their IEP
41
Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act establishes what?
eligibility for related services even if the individual does not qualify for special education
42
Influences on intervention (family)
family structure, function, and resources
43
What does IFSP stand for?
Individualized Family Service Plan
44
Does IDEA Part C eligibility change or remain the same in each state?
each state has their own eligibility criteria
45
What type of team is able to maintain professional boundaries with minimal collaboration
Multidisciplinary
46
What type of goals should be included in an IEP
Annual Goals
47
IDEA Part C services must be provided in what type of environment
A natural environment
48
What is family centered care?
care made up from a set of values, attitudes, and approaches to services for children with special needs and their families
49
What characteristics should IEP goals have?
measurable; specific; educationally relevant
50
What ages can IDEA Part C be provided to?
from birth to 2 years of age
51
What states can influence development and provision of PT services for children and families?
Socioeconomic
52
What is the abbreviation for Free and Appropriate Public Education?
FAPE
53
Where is a Primary service provider (PSP) model often used
Transdisciplinary teaming
54
What does IEP stand for?
Individualized Education Program
55
Where are IDEA Part C services documented?
In the IFSP
56
Related services are intended to help a child benefit from his or her?
Special Education
57
What does LRE stand for?
Least Restrictive Environment
58
What involves cross training of disciplines and is a key concept of transdisciplinary teaming?
Role Release
59
What is a requirement of Part B services?
must be educationally relevant
60
what teams collaborate by merging goals, but maintain professional boundaries?
Interdisciplinary
61
What is multi-disciplinary evaluation used for in IDEA Part C?
Eligibility
62
How often is an IEP reviewed/rewritten
once a year
63
What age can Part B services begin?
age 3
64
PT is a what service according to Part B?
Related Service
65
Part C services are centered how?
Family Centered
66
How often is an IFSP reviewed?
every 6 months
67
What is a common orthotic choice for children with Sacral level myelodysplasia?
SMO
68
Children wth DMD typically display this when getting up from the floor
Gowers sign
69
What is the classification system for children with CP based on performance of functional motor skills
GMFCS
70
What results in severe progressive bowing of the tibia?
Blounts
71
What is DCD often associated with?
ADHD
72
What is another name for Trisomy 21
Down Syndrome
73
What is injury or tightness to the SCM referred to as?
torticollis
74
What is the focus of treatment for Leg-Calves-Perthes in children under the age of 6?
Pain management
75
What is a Open spinal cord lesion known as
Myelomeningocele
76
What is commonly associated with torticollis?
Plagiocephaly
77
When does the terminal stage of DMD normally begin and what is a common side effect?
usually begins in early adulthood and has respiratory insufficiency
78
What interventions are most effective for DCD
task specific
79
What harness is used to treat DDH in babies
Pavlik harness
80
Myelodysplasia is often associated with
sensory deficits and paralysis
81
How is DDH diagnosed?
via Imaging
82
An extra copy of a chromosome is known as an
Trisomy
83
How is CP usually diagnosed
failure to meet motor milestones
84
What is the cause of DCD
no actually cause, but due to lack of dystrophin
85
Legg-Calves-Perthes is obstructed bloodflow to where
the femoral head
86
Right Torticollis head tilt and rotation?
R torticollis has a right head tilt and a left rotation
87
What orthopedic impairment is more common in African American males at puberty?
SCFE
| presents with loss of IR, ABd, and flexion
88
When should a PT prepare for mobility in a spina bifida child?
between 1-2 years
89
What commonly effects motor performance in children with autism?
sensory deficits
90
What position characterizes a clubfoot
Equinovarus
91
The most common type of CP is
Spastic Diplegia
92
What type of injection can be used to treat an unresponsive torticollis?
Botox
93
Where is instability common for children with Down Syndrome
Atlantoaxial jt.
94
what is hydrocephalus?
excess accumulation of fluid in the brain; is associated with myelodysplasia
95
What type of impairments are genetic syndromes often associated with?
intellectual impairments
96
What is a common allergy for a child with Spina Bifida
Latex allergy
97
How is DCD defined?
motor coordination markedly below expected levels for the child's age and intelligence
98
What is cerepral palsy?
a permanent disorder caused for a nonprogressive disturbance in the fetal or infant brain
99
A closed spinal cord lesion is known as
spina bifida occulta
100
Bones size will increase before its?
Strength
101
What does dynamical systems theory state?
that the environment is just as important as the organism
102
what causes a newborn to have an unstable hip
a shallow acetabulum
103
what form of righting occurs when the head is turned followed by the body and legs?
neck on body
104
what are the building blocks of development according to neural maturationist theory?
Reflexes
105
Moving on hands and knees is called?
creeping
106
when the body it tilted in any direction the head will right to what position?
Vertical
107
according to dynamical systems theory movements are?
self-organizing
108
when does single leg standing normally begin?
by age three
109
this form of reaction testing requires the surface the move under the body
tilting
110
catching oneself is an example of what type of reaction
protective
111
when does reflexive stepping and standing disappear
two months
112
what position do a newborns LE go to in standing?
genu varus
113
What theory states movements emerge as an interaction between subsystems and the environment?
Dynamical systems
114
what drives development according to neural maturationist theory?
nervous system
115
what is the food finding reflex known as?
Rooting
116
When are most children able to jump off a small step
by age 2
117
what is walking along furniture while holding on known as?
cruising
118
are children able to walk up or down stairs first?
up stairs
119
when are most infants able to roll from prone to supine?
by 6 months
120
What is another name for ATNR?
Fencing reflex
121
How long does reflexive standing persist?
2 months after birth
122
When do infants normally achieve head control?
at 3 months
123
How do most pre-schoolers walk?
with flat feet
124
what organ reaches 90% of adult size by age 5?
the brain
125
What position are backwards/sideways reactions normally tested?
in sitting
126
what reaction testing requires the body to move over the surface?
postural fixation testing (perturbations)
127
What happens to the size of the brain in the first year of life?
it doubles
128
What part of the foot isn't fully developed in toddlers?
the arches
129
What is femoral ant-eversion at birth and what happens to it as we age?
it is 30 degrees at births and it decreases as we age/develop
130
What drives development according to the cognitive theory?
Experience
131
When are infants normally able to sit independently?
six months
132
How do children learn to catch?
by extending their arms and trapping the ball against their chest
133
What reflex is elicited by stroking the para-vertebral skin?
the galant reflex
134
Tilting reactions and postural fixation both work on?
equilibrium
135
What is asymmetry tell us
informs us of a gross motor red flag
136
What does the cognitive theory assume about motor behavior?
that motor behavior is learned
137
What does neural maturationist theory say about development?
that it is linear and occurs in a predictable order
138
what is the falling reflex known as?
Moro
139
When does creeping normally begin?
at 9 months
