Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 5 pathological processes?
A
- Degeneration/ Necrosis
- Inflammation and repair
- Circulatory disorders
- disorders of Growth
- Deposits and Pigmentation
2
Q
Define etiology
A
Cause
3
Q
Define Pathogenesis
A
Sequence of events from initial stimulus to ultimate expression of disease
4
Q
Define Molecular and morphologic changes
A
biochemical and structural alterations induced in cells and organs of the body
5
Q
Define Clinical manifestations
A
clinical signs resulting from functional abnormalities of affected tissues
6
Q
What is general pathology
A
the main pathological processes incited by various injurious stimuli. applies to cells/tissues/organs
7
Q
what is systemic pathology
A
System-specific disease processes
8
Q
what is the difference between morphologic diagnosis and etiologic diagnosis
A
Morphologic- includes pathological process, location, distribution, duration and severity.
Etiologic - includes pathological process, location and cause
9
Q
what are areas to avoid when doing a necropsy?
A
- areas accessible to animals
- areas which may contain food
- high traffic areas
- areas difficult to disinfect
10
Q
what is the most common route of exposure to pathogens during a PM?
A
oral
11
Q
what is BSL?
A
biosafety levels
12
Q
What are the steps for doing a PM for any species?
A
- external examination
- open the body cavities
- collect microbiologic samples
- remove and dissect organs
- collect histologic samples
13
Q
Which organ do you sample last?
A
intestines
14
Q
How do you confirm sepsis with culture?
A
culture multiple organs
15
Q
What would you use a red top or plain sterile tube for?
A
Culture
16
Q
What would you use an EDTA tube for?
A
fluid analysis and cytology
17
Q
What is the formalin:tissue ratio?
A
10:1
18
Q
How far does formalin penetrate tissue?
A
no more than 1/2 cm
19
Q
Define autolysis
A
self-digestion or degradation of cells and tissues by the hydrolytic enzymes normally present in tissues
20
Q
Define Putrefaction
A
process by which post mortem bacteria break down tissues
21
Q
which tissues autolyze the quickest?
A
Gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, gall blader
22
Q
what does the rate of decomposition depend on?
A
- cause of death
- environmental and body temp
- microbial flora
23
Q
The presence of _____ is the most likely to be microscopically obscured by decomposition:
a) cell injury (necrosis)
b) foreign material
c) infectious agents
d) inflammation
e) neoplasia
A
A. cell injury (necrosis)
24
Q
What is rigor mortis
A
Contraction of the muscles after death
25
What is livor mortis
discoloration of organs from blood being pulled by gravity after death. effects the side of the animal facing the ground
26
What are the differences between antemortem blood clot and post mortem blood clot?
```
antemortem clot:
attached to vessel of walls
dry and dull
lamellated
friable
Postmortem clot:
unattached
shiny and wet
elastic
perfect cast of vessel lumen
```
27
Hemoglobin imbibition is caused by what?
freezing
28
what is hemoglobin imbibition?
red staining of tissue, especially the intima of heart, arteries and veins
29
what is bile imbibition?
bile in the gallbladder starts to penetrate the wall and stains the adjacent tissues
30
what is bloat?
postmortem bacterial gas formation in the lumen of the GI tract
31
Who will bloat faster: Herbivores or carnivores?
herbivores
32
What is pseudomelanosis?
greenish-black discoloration of tissues post mortem.
33
What is the difference beetween a description and morphological Dx?
```
Description:
describes what you see
precise word picture
MDx:
interprets the description and makes subjective conclusions
```
34
What does No SLo DiSCo CoMas stand for?
Number, size, location, distribution, shape, color, consistency, margins/surface
35
Define focal
One isolated lesion
36
Define Multifocal
numerous similar lesions that can be of variable size
37
Define diffuse
throughout a large portion of the effected tissue
38
Define multifocal- coalescing
Multiple lesions that are touching
39
what can well demarcated tissue tell you?
1. The lesions represents a different tissue (tumors)
2. Infarcts
3. chronic lesion with fibrous capsule
40
What can poorly demarcated tissue tell you?
1. the lesion and adjacent tissue may be similar
| 2. the process is gradually infiltrating into the normal tissue; is poorly contained
41
Define Atrophy
decrease in size and/or number of the cells and their metabolic activity after normal growth has been reached
42
Define Hypoplasia
incomplete development or underdevelopment of an organ or tissue
43
Define Hypertrophy
increased size of cells and their functions
44
Which cells exhibit hypertrophy?
Stable or permanent cells: cardiomyocytes, neurons
45
Define hyperplasia
increase in the number of cells of an organ
46
Which cells exhibit hyperplasia?
cells capable of replication: ie epidermis, respiratory mucosa
47
Define metaplasia
change in phenotype of a differentiated cell
48
Metaplasia is most often in which type of cells?
epithelial
49
Define dysplasia
alteration in shape, size and organization
50
What are the most common causes of acute cell swelling?
hypoxia and toxic agents
51
Histological appearance of cellular swelling
1. H2O uptae dilutes the cytoplasm making the cells enlarged with pale cytoplasm.
2. May show increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
nucleus in normal position, with no morphological changes
52
What are the ultrastructural changes of cellular swelling?
1. plasma membrane alterations
2. mitochondrial changes
3. dilation of the ER
4. nuclear alterations
53
Define fatty change
sub-lethal cell damage characterized by intracytoplasmic fatty vaculation
54
What are the main causes of fatty change?
hypoxia, toxicity, metabolic disorders
55
Histological appearance of fatty change
Well delineated, lipid-filled vacuoles in the cytoplasm, , may displace the cell nucleus to the periphery
56
what causes cell death after irreversible cell injury?
hypoxia, ischemia, and direct cell membrane injury
57
Gross appearance of necrosis
pale, soft, friable and sharply demarcated from viable tissue by a zone of inflammation
58
histological appearance of necrotic cells
1. increase binding of eosin
2. loosing basophilia
3. glassy homogeneous
4. vacuolation and moth eaten appearance
5. calcification may be seen
59
Coagulative necrosis is common caused by ____ in all solid organs except _____
ischemia; brain
60
Which form of necrosis has dead cells that are "digested"
liquefactive necrosis
61
Liquefactive necrosis occurs in which kind of tissues
1. Tissue with high neutrophil recruitment & enzymatic release with digestion of tissue
2. tissues with high lipid content
62
What prefix do you use for describing white matter?
Leuko
63
What prefix do you use for describing gray matter?
polio
64
Leukoencephalomalacia affects which species?
horse, chicken and pig
65
Polioencephalomalacia can be caused by?
```
1 Thiamine deficiency diet
2 increased ruminal thiaminase activity
3 administration of thiamine analogs
4 high levels of sulfur in diet or water
5 lead toxicity
6 thiaminase containing plants
```
66
Pus is associated with which necrosis?
liquefactive
67
What is a localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by disintegration of tissues surrounded by fibrous connective tissue
Abscess
68
What are the two types of abscesses?
Septic and sterile
69
histological appearance of liquefactive necrosis
```
1 loss of cellular detail
2 cells are granular
3 eosinophilic and basophilic debris
4 neutrophil nuclei may dominate nuclear debris
5 no tissue architecture is preserved
```
70
Which form of necrosis begins mostly as coagulative necrosis?
Gangrenous necrosis
71
what is the difference between "dry" and "wet" gangrene?
Dry gangrene- no bacterial superinfection; tissue appears dry
Wet gangrene- Bacterial superinfection has occurred; tissue looks wet and liquefactive
72
What necrosis looks cheese like?
caseous necrosis
73
Caseous necrotic debris represents _______
dead WBCs
74
What are the 3 types of fat necrosis?
1 enzymatic necrosis
2 traumatic necrosis of fat
3 necrosis of abdominal fat
75
Enzymatic necrosis is also known as?
pancreatic necrosis of fat
76
Which form of necrosis is usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels?
fibrinoid necrosis
77
Fibrinoid necrosis occurs when _____ are deposited in the walls of arteries
Ag-Ab complexes
78
Define apoptosis
a pathway of cell death
| induced by a tightly regulated suicide program
79
True/ False
| Apoptosis causes inflammation
False:
| there is no inflammation associated with apoptosis
80
What are the functions of the plasma membrane?
selective barrier
| structural base for enzymes and receptors
81
Which phospholipid sends signals to phagocytes for ingestion?
Phosphatidylserine
82
What are the functions of proteins and glycoproteins?
1. ion and metabolite transport
2 fluid phase and receptor-mediated uptake of macromolecules
3 cell-ligand, cell-matrix, and cell-cell interactions
83
What are the 4 general arrangements of proteins and glycoproteins?
1 integral/ transmembrane
2 protein sysntehsized in cytoplasm and linked inot membrane via lipids or cholesterol
3 inserted through GPI-linked proteins
4 non-covalent associations
84
Define passive transport
molecules move down a concentration or electrical gradient
85
Define active transport
molecules move against a gradient, requires ATP
86
Which types of molecules can passive diffuse across the plasma membrane?
1 Small non-polar molecules
2 hydrophobic molecules
3 polar molecules <75 Daltons
87
What are ways to transport larger molecules across the plasma membrane?
Channels
| Carriers
88
What are the two major forms of endocytosis?
potocytosis
| pinocytosis
89
What are the 3 major classes of the cytoskeleton?
1 actin microfilaments
2 intermediate filaments
3 microtubules
90
Which is the thinnest filament of the cytoskeleton?
actin microfilament
91
What are the functions of actin microfilaments?
In muscle cells: muscle contraction via association with myosin
In non-muscle cells- control cell shape and movement
92
What are the functions of microtubules?
connecting cables for molecular motor proteins
participate in sister chromatid separation during mitosis
adapted to form motile cilia of flagella
93
What are the functions of tight junctions?
create a continuous barrier that is highly resistant to paracellular ion movement
helps maintain cell polarity by allowing the segragation of apical and basolateral domains of cells
94
What are the functions of desmosomes?
mechanically attach cells and their intracellular cytoskeletons to other cells of the extracellular matrix
95
What are the functions of gap junctions?
mediate the passage of chemical or electrical signals from one cell to another
pores that permit passage of small molecules
critical in cell-cell communication
96
what is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?
site of synthesis of all transmembrane protein and lipids
| initial site for the synthesis of all exported molecules
97
Which endoplasmic reticulum has no ribosomes?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
98
what is the function of ribosomes?
translate mRNA into proteins
99
What part of the cell is responsible for sequestering intracellular calcium?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
100
Proteins and lipids destined for other organelles or extracellular export are shuttled to the ________
Golgi apparatus
101
Which enzyme degrade cytosolic proteins, denatured or misfolded proteins, and other macromolecules?
Proteasomes
102
What are the functions of mitochondria?
Site of aerobic metabolism
| regulator of apoptosis
103
Define euchromatin
uncoiled, transcriptionally active
104
Define Heterochromatin
coiled, transcriptionally inactive
105
What is the function of the nucleolus?
synthesis of rRNA
106
What is anoxia?
no O2 delivery to a tissue
107
What are the 6 major mechanisms of cell injury?
```
1 decrease ATP
2 mitochondrial damage
3 entry of Ca2+
4 increase ROS
5 membrane damage
6 protein misfolding, DNA damage
```
108
What are the 2 primary metabolic pathways in which ATP is produced?
aerobic: TCA cycle and ETC
anaerobic: Glycolysis
109
What are the 3 major consequences of mitochondrial damage?
1 Formation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore
2 increased production of reactive oxygen species
3 activation of apoptotic pathways
110
what enzyme are activated during accumulation of calcium?
1. Phospholipases
2. protease
3. endonuclease
4. ATPase
111
what are the major forms of damage from accumulation of calcium?
1. membrane damge
2. nuclear damage
3. ATP depletion
112
In what ways are reactive oxygen species formed?
1. normal metabolic processes
2. absorption of radiant energy
3. inflammation
4. transition metals
5. nitric oxide
113
How are free radicals removed?
1. spontaneous decay
2. antioxidants: Vit E, Vit A, gluthathione
3. storage and transport proteins
4. enzymes
114
What are the pathological effects of free radicals?
1. lipid peroxidation in membranes causes extensive membrane damage
2. oxidative modification of proteins causes damage to active sites, change conformation, and enhance degradation
3. lesions in DNA causes cell aging, malignant transformation
115
What are the consequences of membrane damage?
1. mitochondrial membrane damage- open the MPTP, decreases ATP
2. plasma membrane damage- loss of osmotic balance
3. injury to lysosomal membrane- leakage of enzymes into the cytoplasm
