Test 2 Flashcards

(207 cards)

1
Q

A client with impaired mobility is within one week of being discharged from the hospital. which is the best example of a discharge goal for the client? The client will:

a. Understand range-of-motion exercises

b. Be taught range-of-motion exercises

c. Transfer independently to a chair

d. Be kept clean and dry

A

C. Transfer independently to a chair

This is a client-centered goal and measurable

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2
Q

A nurse is transferring a client from a bed to a wheelchair. What should the nurse do to quickly assess the client’s tolerance to the change in position?

a. Obtain a blood pressure

b. Monitor for bradycardia

c. Determine if the client feels dizzy

d. Allow the client time to adjust to the change in position

A

C. Determine if the client feels dizzy

Feeling dizzy is a subjective response to orthostatic hypotension. Obtaining feedback from the client provides a quick evaluation of the client’s tolerance of the transfer.

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3
Q

A nurse concludes that a client has the potential for impaired mobility. Which assessments reflect risk factors that support this conclusion? (Select all that apply)
a. Joint pain

b. Exertional fatigue

c. Sedentary lifestyle

d. Limited range-of-motion

e. Increased respiratory rate

A

A. Joint pain
D. Limited range-of-motion

Joint pain may prevent the client from moving about, leading to contractures resulting in impaired mobility.

Limited range-of-motion is associated with contracture formation and impaired mobility.

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4
Q

To prevent pressure ulcers, which intervention should Abby include in Mr. Rogers plan of care?

a. Reposition Mr. Rogers at least twice every shift.

b. Vigorously massage the bony prominences to induce blood flow.

c. Post a turning schedule at Mr. Rogers’ beside.

d. Log roll Mr. Rogers when turning.

A

C. Post a turning schedule at Mr. Rogers’ beside.

A turning schedule will help ensure Mr. Rogers is repositioned in a timely manner which will help prevent skin breakdown.

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5
Q

Upon review of the care for a patient with restricted mobility, Abby learns that the most significant hazard to the immobilized patient is:

a. foot drop

b. myocardial ischemia.

c. deep vein thrombosis.

d. orthostatic hypotension.

A

C. deep vein thrombosis

Patients with decreased mobility are at risk for deep vein thrombosis, which can lead to life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

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6
Q

Abby plans to assist Mr. Rogers into a wheelchair. As they prepare to make the transfer, Abby correctly instructs Mr. Rogers to:

a. hold on to the IV pole when rising from the bed.

b. push up from the bed using his arms on the count of three.

c. hold onto the side rails at the bottom of the bed before standing.

d. place his feet behind Abby’s feet.

A

B. Push up from the bed using his arms on the count of three

Mr. Rogers should be instructed to push up from the bed using his arms on the count of three

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7
Q

A primary health-care provider orders active range-of-motion exercises. What nursing action is unique to providing active range-of-motion exercises?

a. Assisting the client who is able to complete the exercise through all planes of movement

b. Encouraging the client to perform the exercises independently

c. Providing a warm bath before the exercises

d. Demonstrating how to do the exercises

A

B. Encouraging the client to perform the exercises independently

Active range-of-motion exercises require the client to complete the exercises independently. Active range-of-motion exercises require muscle contraction that eventually improves muscle strength.

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8
Q

Sam speaks about sleep pattern changes that occur in the elderly population include:

a. longer daytime naps.

b. sleeping until late morning.

c. decreased time in deep sleep.

d. diminished sleep latency.

A

C. decreased time in deep sleep.

A normal part of aging is a decreased amount of time in deep sleep. This can lead to increased fatigue during the daytime, which may lead to more daytime napping.

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9
Q

Sam knows that Mrs. Simms understands education about promoting restful sleep when she says:

a. “I’ll make a list of things I need to do tomorrow and put it at my bedside to look at before I go to sleep.”

b. “I put flannel sheets on my bed to help me stay warm at night.”

c. “I’ll do some exercise before bedtime so I will be worn out and tired.”

d. “I will stop taking my water pill because it makes me get up in the middle of the night to go to the bathroom.”

A

B. “I put flannel sheets on my bed to help me stay warm at night.”

An environment that is comfortable for the patient induces sleep.

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10
Q

At 0200 Sam finds Mrs. Simms sitting in the chair beside her bed. She tells Sam she is unable to sleep. What is Sam’s best response?

a. Assist Mrs. Simms back to bed.

b. Ask Mrs. Simms about strategies she has used successfully in the past to fall asleep.

c. Offer Mrs. Simms a glass of warm milk and give her a back rub.

d. Call the physician to obtain and order for a hypnotic.

A

B. Ask Mrs. Simms about strategies she has used successfully in the past to fall asleep

Sam can plan nursing interventions based on successful strategies Mrs. Simms has used in the past to help her fall asleep.

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11
Q

Mrs. Simms tells Sam she hasn’t slept well for a least a month. She complains of waking up tired each morning. Which question would provide Sam with the best information about factors that may be contributing to Mrs. Simms sleep problem?

a. How old are you?

b. What are you doing now to improve your sleep?

c. What has your family noticed about your sleep?

d. What brought this on?

A

D. What brought this on?

The cause of insomnia can usually be identified. “What brought this on?” addresses the contributing factors to the problem.

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12
Q

A client is being admitted to the hospital and the nurse is performing a complete assessment. Which is the most therapeutic open-ended question the nurse can ask about the quality of the client’s sleep?

a. “How would you describe your sleep?”

b. “Do you consider you sleep to be restless or restful?”

c. “Is the number of hours you sleep at night good for you?”

d. “Does your bed partner complain about your sleep behaviors?”

A

A. “How would you describe your sleep?”

This open-ended question requires client’s to explore the topic of sleep as it relates specifically to their own experiences

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13
Q

What are some examples of regulatory and accreditation agencies that took initiatives on safety?

A

The Joint Commission & Centers for Medicare/Medicaid Services

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14
Q

2018 Patient Safety Goals

A

Goal1: Identify patients correctly

Goal 2: Improve staff communication

Goal 3: Use medications safely

Goal 6: Use alarms safely

Goal 7: Prevent infection

Goal 15: Identify patient safety risks

Prevent mistakes in surgery

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15
Q

what does the national quality forum do?

A

-Improve the quality of healthcare in America

  • they endorse national consensus standards for measuring and report safety performance publicly
  • identify serious reportable events and never events
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16
Q

what is a culture of safety?

A
  • acknowledges risk
  • pursues safety
  • fosters a blame free environment
  • focus on performance improvement
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17
Q

What does QSEN do?

A

emphasizes the need for:
-continuous improvement
-minimizing of risks
-knowledge
-skills
-safety promoting attitudes

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18
Q

what does providing a safe environment include?

A
  • meeting basic human needs
  • reducing physical hazards
  • reducing transmission of pathogens
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19
Q

what are some examples of basic human needs?

A

oxygen, comfortable temperature, and nutrition

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20
Q

Physical Hazards

A

-Fires
-Falls
-Disasters
-Pollution
-Poison
-Motor vehicle accidents

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21
Q

what are some factors influencing patient safety?

A
  • lifestyle
  • impaired mobility
  • sensory impairment
  • cognitive impairment
  • safety awareness
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22
Q

Risk In Healthcare: Fall Risks

A

Intrinsic Factors- Related to patients (ex. immobility)
Extrinsic Factors- related to environment

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23
Q

Risk In Healthcare: Chemical Exposure

A

Helps you understand risk -material safety data sheets

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24
Q

Risk In Healthcare: Patient-inherent accidents

A

accidents other than falls (fingers stuck in drawers)

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25
Risk In Healthcare: Procedure-related accidents
accidents related to procedures, medications, fluid, medical devices
26
Risk In Healthcare: Equipment-related accidents
accidents related to equipment malfunction, misuse
27
what is the number one factor in error in the healthcare setting?
being in a hurry
28
what are some other factors that increase risk of error in a healthcare setting?
- limited short term memory - being late/in a hurry - stress - fatigue - multitasking - interruptions - environmental factors
29
what does a focused patient assessment include in regards to safety?
- interview questions about environment, sensory, and physical mobility - physical assessment * consider risk factors and threats to safety in the physical environment
30
what is the main goal in regards to patient safety?
Prevention of injury
31
Nursing Process: Diagnosis
Risk for Falls Impaired Home Maintenance Risk for Injury Deficient Knowledge (regarding safety risks) Risk for Poisoning Risk for Suffocation Risk for Trauma
32
Nursing Process: Planning
-Collaborative care -Setting priorities -Goals/outcomes
33
Nursing Process: Implementation -Health promo (passive/active) -Developmental interventions -Environmental Interventions (basic needs, general preventive measures)
Passive: Patient does not do directly (public health measures, clean water) Active: Patient is directly involved (wearing a seat belt, installing outdoor lighting, participation in wellness program)
34
Restraints: Preventions movement, for client safety Needs doctors orders
as a last resort, use least restrictive restraint
35
Fire Safety: RACE
R: rescue and protect clients A: alarm - activate alarm system C: contain - close doors and windows and turn off oxygen E: extinguish using extinguisher when possible ** always rescue patients from site of danger first
36
Fire Extinguisher: PASS
P: pull the pin A: aim at the base of the fire S: squeeze the levers S: sweep the extinguisher from side to side covering the area of the fire
37
Nursing Process: Evaluation
Patient care- reassess pt's condition, revise or discontinue Patient expectations- are they met?
38
what are some seizure precautions?
- bedside rails padded - oral suction is prepared and ready to prevent aspiration of oral secretions - oxygen equipment ready
39
what should be done during a seizure?
make sure patient's airway is open, don't touch or put anything near their face, protect them and yourself from injury
40
when should incident reports be filled out?
for near misses (you were going to do something but you stopped before it happened) or something you actually did
41
what are some characteristics of incident reports?
- should be objective - should identify patient by name and ID band - apply facts but don't add blame or conclusion - ask client what they thought happened - include witnesses
42
how does infection happen?
host is invaded by pathogens
43
What is colonization?
microorganism invades the host but does not cause infection
44
What is a communicable disease?
an infectious disease that can be transmitted from one person to another
45
what is the chain of infection?
-Transmission -Portal of entry -Host susceptibility -Infectious agent -Reservoir -Portal of exit Repeat
46
Types of Causative Agents (pathogens)
-Bacteria (Staphylococcus, lactobacillus, E. coli) -Viruses (Rhinovirus, hepatitis, herpes, HIV) -Fungi (yeasts and molds) -Parasites (Live on other living organisms), Protozoa that cause malaria, Helminths (worms), Arthropods (mites, fleas, ticks)
47
what is the order of events leading up to infection? (Course of Infection)
1. preexposure stage 2. preclinical stage 3. clinical stage 4. resolution stage
48
what happens during the preexposure stage?
factors present leading to problem development
49
what happens during the preclinical stage?
exposure to causative agent and no symptoms present
50
what happens during the clinical stage?
Symptoms present
51
what happens during the resolution stage ?
problem resolved, return to health, chronic state, or death
52
which two stages are involved with primary prevention?
preexposure and preclinical
53
which stage is involved in secondary prevention?
clinical stage
54
which stage is involved with tertiary prevention?
Resolution stage
55
what are some defenses against infection?
- normal flora (micros in body) - body system defenses (organs) - inflammation - immune response (antigens)
56
what are risk factors for HAIs?
- invasive procedures, medical therapies, long hospitalizations, and contact with health care personnel - lowered resistance to infection due to underlying medical conditions - invasive treatment devices - treatments with multiple antibiotics for long periods of time
57
what are common sites of HAIs?
urinary tract and blood stream
58
what is aseptic technique?
an effort to keep patients as free from exposure to infection causing pathogens as possible
59
what are the two types of aseptic technique?
Medical/Surgical Asepsis
60
what is medical asepsis?
(aseptic technique) includes procedures used to reduce the number and prevent the spread of microorganisms
61
What is surgical sepsis?
(sterile technique) includes procedures to eliminate all microorganisms from an area
62
When is medical asepsis used?
medication administration, enemas, tube feedings, and daily hygiene
63
When is surgical asepsis used?
dressing changes, catheterizations, and surgical procedures
64
what factors influence infection prevention and control?
- age - heredity - cultural practice - nutritional status - stress - rest and exercise - inadequate defense
65
what are some recommendations for handwashing from the CDC?
- wash hands if exposed to Cdiff or anthrax - be aware that these alcohol based antiseptics are not effective against Cdiff and you must wash with soap and water
66
What are standard precautions?
"Act as though everyone has disease or you can transmit something" - wear gloves if there is a chance you may come in contact with blood or body fluids
67
What are airborne precautions?
-negative airflow -HEPA filter -N95 respirator
68
What are droplet precautions?
Droplets are generated by a person coughing, sneezing, or talking and can invade the the hosts nasal mucosa, conjunctiva, or mouth. Examples: flu, pneumonia, meningitis. Hand washing, PPE, face mask while in the room.
69
What are contact precautions?
Used when patients have diarrhea, draining wounds / sores, vomiting, draining body fluids. The pathogen can invade the body by direct contact or contact with an infected object. Examples: HIV, ebola hepatitis Hand washing, PPE, gown & gloves
70
what are some important things to do for clients in isolation?
- explain the infection and the associated procedures to help clients and their support people to understand and accept the situation - do not use stricter precautions than are indicated by the diagnosis
71
what are some suggestions to avoid latex allergy?
- wear powder-free gloves - where gloves only when indicated - wash with pH-balanced soap immediately after removal of gloves - apply non-oil based hand care products (oil based break down latex)
72
what is mobility?
- the freedom and independence in purposeful movement - refers to adapting to and having self awareness of the environment - functional musculoskeletal and nervous systems are essential for mobility
73
NCSBN: Physiological Integrity
The nurse provides and directs nursing care that promotes and supports the emotional, mental and social well-being of the client experiencing stressful events, as well as clients with acute or chronic mental illness
74
NCSBN: Basic Care and Comfort
The nurse provides comfort and assistance in the performance of activities of daily living
75
what are the four basic elements of natural movement?
body alignment (posture), joint mobility, balance, and coordinated movement
76
what is activity tolerance?
how long you can tolerate an activity, does not really have to do with the ability to move
77
what is range of motion?
assesses flexibility, tenderness, pain, wear and tear, and is how much a joint can bend
78
what is gait?
how you walk, run, or move
79
what are some older adult considerations for exercise and mobility assessment?
- decline in physical activity - changes in joints - chronic conditions and medications can affect activity and exercise tolerance
80
what is passive range of motion?
movement performed by examiner, done when patient is unconscious, in a coma, or is debilitated
81
what is active range of motion?
the movement performed by the patient
82
what are some important considerations when assisting a patient to walk?
assess patient and environment, allow legs to dangle, use a gait belt, maintain a midline center of gravity, and assess for orthostatic hypotension
83
what is immobility?
- inability to move freely and independently at will - risk of complications increases with the degree of immobility and the length of time of immobilization
84
what are some respiratory changes associated with immobility?
- difficulty completely inflating lungs - in more overweight patients with larger chests, lung expansion is decreased - patients develop deeper coughs, causing them to struggle with eliminating secretion - gas exchange is decreased - patients may develop dyspnea - increased edema due to fluid build up
85
what are some metabolic changes associated with immobility?
- decreased rate of metabolism - increased risk of electrolyte imbalance - nitrogen decreases as weight decreases because protein is broken down faster - decreased appetite resulting in nutrition deficiency - hypercalcemia due to decrease in urine elimination of calcium
86
what are some gastrointestinal changes associated with immobility?
- constipation, impaction, and difficult to evactuate feces - appetite decreases with decreased mobility - risk for heartburn, indigestion, and aspiration due to positioning - weight loss and malnutrition from inadequate intake of nutrients - difficulty pushing to eliminate stool - digestive enzymes break down food and will cause skin break down with prolonged contact with feces
87
what are some cardiovascular changes associated with immobility?
- resting tachycardia - decreased cardiac muscle mass - pooling of blood in legs - orthostatic hypotension - decreased venous return, stroke volume, and BP - increased workload on heart producing a need for more oxygen - decrease in circulatory fluid loss with a fluid shift to the thoracic area, diuresis begins bc protein loss - increased risk of deep vein thrombosis
88
what are some musculoskeletal changes associated with immobility?
- muscle atrophy (seen in legs most) - impaired balance, coordination, and center of gravity - decreased passive ROM (muscles not able to provide tension on the bone) - increased joint contractures - increased foot drop - weakness of ankle and toe dorsiflexion, affects gain
89
what are some integumentary changes associated with immobility?
- pressure ulcers - skin breakdown (increased tears and abrasions) - difficulty healing due to poor circulation - poor skin turgor - edema
90
what are some urinary elimination changes associated with immobility?
- difficulty voiding because of positioning restriction - kidneys and ureters move to a more level plane, urine tries to move towards bladder against gravity and backs up into kidneys - secretes minerals and causes kidney stones - increased risk for UTI and kidney stones
91
what are some changes in fluid and electrolyte balances caused by immobility?
- increased blood flow to kidneys leads to diuresis - diuresis leads to loss of electrolytes and reduces serum calcium levels - immobility causes an increase in calcium reabsorption from bones - calcium reabsorption leads to hypercalcemia and pathological bone fractures if kidneys do not respond
92
what are some psychosocial effects of immobility?
- emotional and intellectual responses such as depression, social isolation, sleep-wake disturbances, and impaired coping - sensory alterations - sociocultural responses
93
what are some implementations for immobility?
encourage posture, deep breathing, and use of spirometer
94
How should DVT be prevented?
make sure patients are well hydrated
95
how should skin integrity be promoted to prevent pressure ulcers?
turn patient if they cannot turn themselves
96
how often should exercise be used to prevent disuse syndrome (sedentary)?
about 2 hours in 24 hour period
97
how should UTIs be prevented for immobility?
push fluids
98
how should social isolation be prevented in those who are immobile?
roommate if double room, have TV on
99
how often should patients be turned?
Every 1-2 hrs
100
how often should weight be shifted?
Every 15 mins
101
What are circadian rhythms affected by?
light, temperature, social activities, and work routines
102
what are the two phases of the sleep cycle?
NREM (non rapid) and REM (rapid)
103
4 stages of NREM
1-2: lighter sleep 3-4 slow-wave sleep
104
what is REM sleep?
rapid eye movement sleep that occurs about 90 minutes after falling asleep, includes increased brain activity and vivid dreaming, restorative sleep
105
what are the functions of sleep?
- restores normal levels of activity - restores normal balance among parts of the nervous system - necessary for protein synthesis - psychological well being
106
what can chronic lack of sleep lead to?
obesity, heart attack, and stroke
107
what age group needs the most sleep?
newborns (up to 18 hours)
108
how much sleep do infants need?
up to 11 hours
109
how much sleep do preschoolers and toddlers need?
up to 14 hours due to growth spurts and more active
110
how much sleep do school agers need?
up to 11 hrs
111
how much sleep do adolescents need?
up to 10 hours
112
how much sleep do young adults need?
7-9 hrs
113
what happens to sleep in older adults?
sporadic, lots of napping, not much REM
114
what are some factors affecting sleep?
physical illness, drugs and substances, lifestyle, usual sleep patterns and excess daytime sleepiness, stress, environment
115
What is insomnia?
chronic inability to obtain the amount or quality of sleep needed, waking up from sleep, and non-restorative sleep, can be transient or full-blown
116
Sleep Disorders
Insomnia Sleep apnea- lack of O2 Narcolepsy-uncontrollable sleep attack Sleep Deprivation- lack of sleep
117
what are some important health implementations for sleep?
promoting bedtime routines - sleep hygiene (going to bed and waking up at same time) and avoid caffeine and blue lights before bed
118
how often should you assess patient for sleep?
throughout the night
119
are sleeping medicines addictive?
yes, avoid long term usage
120
what should data collection of sleep and intervention evaluation include?
- observation of the duration of the client's sleep - question about how the client feels on awakening - observation of client's level of alertness during the day
121
what is the number one reason that proper nutrition is important?
energy - if you don't have it, you'll start breaking down protein and muscle
122
where are carbohydrates from?
starches, sugar, and lactose - mainly plant foods
123
how many calories per gram of carbohydrates?
4 calories per gram
124
What do carbohydrates do?
store energy and provide structural support
125
What is soluble fiber?
fiber that dissolves in water
126
What is insoluble fiber?
It prevents constipation, speeds up passage of food/waste Sources: whole grains and veggies
127
How many calories per gram of protein?
4 calories per gram
128
what are the types of proteins?
Complete, incomplete, complementary
129
What is a complete protein?
contains all 9 essential amino acids
130
What are incomplete proteins?
lack one or more essential amino acids
131
what are complementary proteins?
two or more dietary proteins whose amino acid assortments complement each other in such a way that the essential amino acids missing from one are supplied by the other
132
what are proteins essential for?
body tissue, growth, maintenance and repair
133
How many calories are in a gram of fat?
9
134
What are fats made up of?
fatty acids and glycerol
135
are fats soluble in water?
no, need emulsifiers to break down
136
What kind of fat is solid at room temperature?
saturated (hydrogenated) fat
137
What fats should you avoid?
polysaturated and saturated
138
how does fat affect cholesterol?
eating saturated fatty acids, increases cholesterol
139
what are essential fatty acids important for?
production of cell membranes and hormones
140
What are the water soluble vitamins?
B, C, not stored in the body
141
What are the fat soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, K - stay in your body and can be toxic
142
what is the main function of vitamins?
vitamins are catalysts for metabolic functions and chemical function
143
what are minerals used for?
metabolic exchanges
144
What are the trace minerals?
iron, zinc, iodine, selenium, copper, manganese, fluoride, chromium, molybdenum
145
What percent of body weight is water?
80-90%
146
what is digestion?
breakdown of food, starts in mouth with mastication and goes into stomach
147
what is absorption?
the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood, occurs in small intestine
148
What is metabolism?
- a broad term that includes all chemical reactions that occur within the body - occurs in cells, blood is transport mechanism to get nutrients to liver - liver regulates sugar through control of glucose
149
What is anabolism?
building up
150
What is catabolism?
breaking down
151
what is BMR?
basic metabolic rate, minimum amount you need to be functional - about 500 cal.
152
what is storage?
energy is stored in liver, muscle tissue, and majority in adipose
153
What is elimination?
disposal of undigested materials, occurs in large intestine
154
where does water reabsorption occur?
lower part of colon
155
what happens if we have too much water in lower colon?
diarrhea
156
what happens if there is too little water in lower colon?
constipation
157
What is a ovolactovegetarian?
Eats eggs & milk
158
What is a lactovegetarian?
Drinks milk, avoid eggs
159
What is a vegan diet?
no animal products, missing vitamin B12 - comes from meat
160
At what age are solid foods introduced?
6 months
161
what is the best food for a baby?
breastfeeding
162
how long do babies need whole milk for?
until age 2 so they have an adequate intake of fatty acids to boost brain development
163
what nutrients are more necessary in adolescents?
protein/calcium
164
how many more calories should a woman eat when lactating?
Up to 500 more
165
what do you have to have if you're using BMI in assessment?
height/weight
166
what is the recommended range for BMI?
18.5-24.9
167
What is an overweight BMI?
25-29.9
168
What is an obese BMI?
30
169
what is the best thing for a weight loss diet to have ?
portion control/portion size
170
why is childhood obesity higher?
foods we eat and lower activity
171
What are comorbidities?
Linked conditions, such as having ADHD and dyslexia at the same time
172
what patients are at risk for nutritional problems?
immobile, people with GI problems, people are NPO (can have NG tubes and IV therapy - glucose, saline, dextrose)
173
what lab value is useful for nutrition?
prealbumin and CBC
174
what is the biggest thing to worry about with dysphagia?
Obstruction of breathing
175
what is a light diet?
diet for a post-op patient, plainly cooked foods with minimal fat and fiber
176
what is a clear liquid diet?
anything you can see through, water, tea, coffee, broth, ginger ale, strained/clear juices and jello - no OJ or veg juice
177
what is a full liquid diet?
liquids and foods that are liquid at body temperature (includes ice cream without cone)
178
what is the soft diet?
easily chewed and digested
179
What is a pureed diet?
a modification of the soft diet; liquid may be added to the food, which is then blended to a semisolid consistency
180
What is a dysphagia (can’t swallow) diet?
uses thickener, given to those at risk for aspirating food or liquids into the lungs
181
what is enteral nutrition?
nutrients into GI/intestines - feeding tube (softer than NG)
182
what is parental nutrition?
nutrients into bloodstream
183
why do you not put enteral feedings into blood stream?
not sterile and could kill someone
184
Where are the kidneys located?
posterior, in the upper part of the ribcage
185
what do the kidneys do?
remove waste from the blood to form urine
186
what do the ureters do?
transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder
187
what does the bladder do ?
acts as a reservoir for urine until the urge to urinate develops
188
why are older adults at increased risk for incontinence?
pelvic floor muscles are loose and relaxed and mobility is decreased
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what is biggest risk to urinary system for infection in hospitals? catheter
catheter
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what is urinary retention?
accumulation of urine due to inability to empty bladder
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what is urinary diversion?
diversion of urine to external source
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What is urinary incontinence?
involuntary leakage of urine - urge: have to go now - stress: laughing, sneeze
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what are implementations for acute care for urinary?
catheterization, urinary diversion, medications, restorative care
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what is constipation?
- a symptom, not a disease - fewer than 3 bowel movements per week, >25% of which are hard and require straining to evacuate - reason for it is lack of fluid and too much reabsorption
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what is impaction?
- results from unrelieved constipation, a collection of hardened feces that a person cannot expel - have to get it out through manual disimpaction - can sometimes cause bleeding
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What is diarrhea?
- an increase in the number of stools and the passage of liquid, unformed feces - can become dehydrated - can be caused by infection or food intolerance, peristalsis if something is irritating it - will hear gurgling sounds - can cause acid/base imbalances
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What is fecal incontinence?
- inability to control passage of feces and gas from the anus - can be temporary or permanent
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What is flatulence?
Accumulation of gas in the intestines causing the walls to stretch
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What are hemorrhoids?
- dilated, engorged veins in the lining of the rectum - seen in childbirth and constipation
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what is important to remember when doing a health history for elimination?
- not necessary for every patient - normal is different for every patient - ask open-ended questions
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what lab tests are used for elimination?
fecal sample or occult blood, cystic fibrosis children do 24 hour stool and sweat test - fat content
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what are patient expectations for elimination?
privacy and consider their normal patterns
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what factors is constipation related to?
- physiological: inadequate fiber and food intake - functional: decreased mobility, ignoring urge to deficate, irregular patterns, changes due to stress or food - mechanical: part of bowel taken out for surgery - pharm: abuse and medications taken - psychological: fear of pain, confusion, and depression
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what is evidence of constipation?
- hard stool - decrease in stool frequency or volume - straining with defecation - abdominal pain - distended abdomen - headache - pain with defecation
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what is the recommended minimum amount of fiber per day?
20g
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what are some health promotions for elimination?
diet, exercise, timing and privacy, promotion of normal defecation
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what are some implementations for acute care with elimination?
- bedpan: pt should be sitting up and positioned appropriately, commode is better, toilet is best - medication: - NG tube: helps with gastric decompression - enemas: usually small - digital removal of stool: try to avoid this - restorative care: ostomies and bowel training