Test #2 Flashcards
1
Q
This is a structure of a long bone that stores energy.
a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow
A
E
2
Q
This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow
A
B
3
Q
This is the shaft of a long bone.
a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow
A
A
4
Q
This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in the joint. a. Periosteum b. Distal epiphysis c. Nutrient foramen d. Articular cartilage e. Epiphyseal plate
A
D
5
Q
This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the Diaphysis to grow in length.
a. Periosteum
b. Distal epiphysis
c. Nutrient foramen
d. Articular cartilage
e. Epiphyseal plate
A
E
6
Q
This is the region in mature bone where the diaphysis and the epiphysis join.
a. Epiphyseal plate
b. Epiphyseal line
c. Metaphysis
d. Diaphyseal line
e. Diaphyseal plate
A
C
7
Q
This is a lining found in bone that promotes bone growth in width
a. Periosteum
b. Endosteum
c. Marrow
d. Epiphysis
e. Metaphysis
A
A
8
Q
Put the bones cells in order of their maturation from unspecialized to specialized.
a. Osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes
b. Osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes
c. Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoblast
d. Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoclast
e. None of the above
A
B
9
Q
These are considered bone-building cells.
a. Osteogenic
b. Osteoclast
c. Oscteocytes
d. Osteoblasts
e. All of the above
A
D
10
Q
These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
a. Osteogenic
b. Osteoclast
c. Oscteocytes
d. Osteoblasts
e. All of the above
A
B
11
Q
Which of the following structures contains osteocytes?
a. Haversian
b. Volkmann’s
c. Concentric
d. Lacunae
e. Canaliculi
A
D
12
Q
These are extensions of the lacunae and are filled with extracellular fluid.
a. Volkmann’s canals
b. Haversian canals
c. Osteons
d. Canaliculi
e. Periosteum
A
D
13
Q
Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned along
a. Horizontal to the metaphysis
b. Parallel to the epiphysis
c. Lines of stress
d. Randomly between the Epiphyseal plate
e. Parallel to blood vessels
A
C
14
Q
Bone remodeling does NOT
a. Occur through out life
b. Involve bone resorption
c. Involve bone deposition
d. Occur at different rates at different locations
e. Affect compact bone tissue but does affect spongy bone tissue
A
E
15
Q
The renewal rate for compact bone tissue is
a. 4% per year
b. 15% per year
c. 20% per year
d. 25% per year
e. No way to measure
A
A
16
Q
Which of the following minerals is needed when bones are growing?
a. Chlorine
b. Sulfur
c. Magnesium
d. Both Chlorine and Sulfur
e. All of the above
A
C
17
Q
The correct sequence of processes that occur during bone elongation at the epiphyseal plate are:
a. calcification, resting, proliferation, hypertrophication
b. resting, proliferation, calcification, hypertrophication
c. proliferation, resting, hypertrophication, calcification
d. resting, proliferation, hypertrophication, calcification
e. hypertrophication, calcification, proliferation, resting
A
D
18
Q
During adulthood, which of the following does NOT contribute to bone remodeling and growth?
a. Calcium
b. Vitamins
c. Enzymes
d. Sex hormones
e. Human growth hormone
A
C
19
Q
This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is usually seen in children.
a. Open
b. Comminuted
c. Impacted
d. Greenstick
e. Stress
A
D
20
Q
About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone? a. Rib
b. Clavicle
c. Humerus
d. Ulna
e. Tibia
A
E
21
Q
Bone reduction
a. Is the alignment of Epiphyseal plates
b. Can be open or closed
c. Is followed by a period of mobilization
d. Is the alignment of epiphyseal plates and can be open or closed
e. All of the above
A
B
22
Q
Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?
a. Calcitriol
b. Calcitonin
c. Human growth hormone
d. Parathyroid
e. Insulin
A
D
23
Q
An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones? a. Calcitriol and human growth hormone
b. Calcitonin and Calcitriol
c. Human growth hormone and Parathyroid
d. Parathyroid and Insulin
e. Insulin and human growth hormone
A
B
24
Q
The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called
a) Rheumatics
b) Podiatry
c) Orthopedics
d) Cardiology
e) Interologist
A
D
25
How many bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
| b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250
B
26
Which of the following is not true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of
the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the girdles.
E
27
Which of the following is NOT found in the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) V ertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum
D
28
Which of the following is found in the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsal
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle
C
29
Which type of bone is the femur?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
A
30
Which type of bone is the occipital?
a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone
C
31
This is a bone located within ankles or wrists.
a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone
E
32
Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone.
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide attachments for muscles.
c) They provide movement within the bone.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be a depression or a projection.
C
33
Bones in the following area protect the brain.
a. Cranium
b. Vertebral column
c. Sacrum
d. Face
e. Ribcage
A
34
Which of the following is not a facial bone?
a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine
A
35
Which is not true of the skull bones?
a) They include mucous membranes
b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible
c) The skull contains foraminas but no fissures
d) The facial bones provide support for entrance into the digestive system
e) They include sinus cavities
C
36
Which of the following bones is not visible from the anterior view of the skull?
a) Parietal
b) Frontal
c) Mandible
d) Occipital
e) Maxilla
D
37
```
These floor.
bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
```
B
38
These bones include the organs of hearing and balance and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
B
39
The mastoid process
a) Is a rounded projection of the parietal bones
b) Is the point of attachment for several neck muscles
c) Is anterior to the external auditory meatus.
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above
B
40
These projections on either side of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae.
a) Mastoid processes
b) Temporomandibular joint
c) Foramen magnum
d) Occipital condyles
e) Sella turcica
D
41
Which cranial bone articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Nasal
e) Sphenoid
E
42
This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal
A
43
This facial bone articulates with teeth.
a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine
c) V omer
d) Maxillae
e) Nasal
D
44
Which of the following is not a facial bone?
a) V omer
b) Palatine
c) Lacrimal
d) Occipital
e) Mandible
D
45
Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone?
a) V ertebrae
b) Ethmoid
c) Sternum
d) Hyoid
e) Ilium
D
46
Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death?
a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Gun shot
d) Strangulation
e) Choking
D
47
What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus?
a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To absorb vertical shock
c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir
e) Muscle attachment
B
48
Primary curves of the vertebrae include
a) Thoracic curve
b) Sacral curve
c) Lumbar curve
d) Cervical curve
e) All of the above
E
49
The function of vertebral processes is
a) Attachment site for muscles
b) Calcium storage
c) To support the body of the vertebrae
d) To hold the hyoid in place
e) To allow passage of the spinal cord
A
50
What bone feature of the second cervical vertebrae articulates with the first cervical vertebrae?
a) Primary projection
b) Occular process
c) Odontoid process
d) Cervical projection
e) Cervix
C
51
Of the following, which is the largest individual vertebrae?
a) C5
b) L4
c) T4
d) C7
e) T12
B
52
These are the inferior articular processes of the fifth sacral vertebrae.
a. Sacral cornua
b. Sacral hiatus
c. Lateral sacral crest
d. Anterior sacral foramina
e. Median sacral crest
A
53
Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
A
54
What is the junction between the manubrium and the body of the sternum called? a) Suprasternal notch
b) Xiphoid process
c) Sternal angle
d) Sternoclavicular joint
e) Manubrium joint
C
55
What is inflammation of the costal cartilage called? a) Costochondritis
b) Floating ribs
c) Cartilaginous distension
d) Costal angle
e) Intercostals space distension
A
56
This is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint.
a. Scapula
b. Clavicle
c. Xiphoid
d. Sternum
B
57
This bone’s shape comes from the medial half of the bone being convex anteriorly and the lateral half is concave anteriorly.
a. Sternum
b. Scapula
c. Humerus
d. Clavicle
D
58
Which of the following do the pelvic girdles articulate with?
a. V ertebral column
b. Humerus
c. Sacrum
d. None of the above
C
59
This part of the clavicle is rounded and articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
a. Acromial end
b. Conoid tubercle
c. Sternal extremity
d. Costal tuberosity
C
60
The following is/are attachment sites on the clavicle.
a. Conical tuberosity
b. Acromial tuberosity
c. Costal extremity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
E
61
Why is the clavicle one of the most broken bones in the human body?
a. Due to the pressure from the lungs
b. Due to the weakness of the Acromial joint
c. Due to weakness of the junction of the curves
d. Due to its position to the humerus
e. Due to rubbing against the first rib
C
62
Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the second and seventh vertebrae?
a. Sternum
b. Clavicle
c. Pelvis
d. Scapula
e. None of the above
D
63
What is found in the glenoid cavity?
a. Subscapular fossa
b. Acromion
c. Supraspinous fossa
d. Spine
e. Humerus
E
64
This is the edge of the scapula closest to the humerus.
a. Axillary border
b. Medial border
c. Infraspinous fossa
d. Coracoid process
e. Acromion
A
65
Which is more superior on the scapula.
a. Infraspinous fossa
b. Supraspinous fossa
c. Acromion
d. Subscapular fossa
e. Scapular notch
C
66
Which of the following is found anteriorly on the scapula?
a. A) Infraspinous fossa
b. B) Supraspinous fossa
c. C) Subscapular fossa
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above
C
67
What is the scapular notch used for?
a. A) Ligament attachment
b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Passageway for a nerve
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above
C
68
Which of the following is fully visible with the scapula in a lateral orientation.
a. A) Coracoid process
b. B) Glenoid cavity
c. C) Acromion
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
E
69
Which of the following is true?
a. There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
b. There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
c. There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 12 phalanges
d. There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
e. There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
D
70
The glenohumeral joint includes:
a. The humerus, radius and ulna
b. The humerus and radius
c. The humerus and clavicle
d. The humerus and ulna
e. The humerus and scapula
E
71
The anatomical neck of the humerus includes the:
a. Epiphyseal line
b. Greater tubercle
c. Intertubercular sulcus
d. Surgical neck
e. Bothaandc
A
72
The lesser tubercle of the humerus:
a. Articulates with the ulna
b. Articulates with the radius
c. Is found in the glenohumeral joint
d. Projects anteriorly
e. Is distal to the glenohumeral joint
D
73
The deltoid tuberosity of the humerus is found:
a. At the distal end
b. At the proximal end
c. At the midpoint of the shaft
d. At the Epiphyseal plate
e. None of the above
C
74
The capitulum:
a. A) Articulates with the head of radius
b. B) Is a rounded knob on the lateral aspect of the humerus
c. C) Projects anteriorly
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
D
75
On the proximal end of the humerus is found:
a. The capitulum
b. The radial fossa
c. The trochlea
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
E
76
This is a spool shaped surface of the humerus medial to the capitulum that articulates with the ulna.
a. Coronoid fossa
b. Trochlea
c. Medial epicondyle
d. Lateral epicondyle
e. Lesser tubercle
B
77
```
The medial and lateral epicondyle are found on the distal end of the humerus and
are used for
a. A) Muscle attachment
b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Groove for nerves
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
```
B
78
Which is the longer bone? a. Radius
b. Phalange c. Clavicle d. Ulna
e. 1st rib
D
79
Which is found in the elbow?
a. A) Acromion
b. B) Surgical neck
c. C) Olecranon
d. Lesser tubercle
e. Bothaandc
C
80
Which of the following receives the trochlea of the humerus?
a. A) Olecranon
b. B) Coronoid process
c. Bothaandb
d. None of the above
D
81
Which notch is found between the olecranon and coronoid process?
a. Ulnar notch
b. Radial notch
c. Olecranal notch
d. Trochlear notch
e. Epicondyle notch
D
82
Where does the biceps brachii muscle attach itself to the ulna?
a. Radial tuberosity
b. Styloid process
c. Ulnar tuberosity
d. Coronoid process
e. None of the above
E
83
The ulna and radius connect with each other at how many points? a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
C
84
What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius? a. A) Joins the shafts of both bones
b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Site or bone repair
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above
D
85
This depression is found laterally and inferior to the trochlear notch.
a. Radial notch
b. Elbow notch
c. Proximal radioulnar joint
d. Ulnar notch
e. Styloid process
A
86
The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist? a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
C
87
How are the carpal bones arranged?
a. 2 transverse rows of 5
b. 2 parallel rows of 5
c. 2 transverse rows of 4
d. 2 parallel rows of 4
e. Randomly
C
88
Which of the following carpal bones is found most distally? a. Lunate
b. Scaphoid c. Triquetrum d. Hamate
e. Pisiform
D
89
What is included in the carpal tunnel? a. A) Pisiform
b. B) Trapezium c. C) Deep fascia d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
E
90
The carpometacarpal joint consists of:
a. Base of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
b. Base of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
c. Head of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
d. Head of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
e. None of the above
A
91
How many phalanges in each hand? a. 10
| b. 12 c. 14 d. 16 e. 20
C
92
The coxal bones unite posteriorly at a joint called:
a. Pubic symphysis
b. Bony pelvis
c. Pelvic girdle
d. Acetabulum
e. None of the above
E
93
What is the function of the pelvic girdle?
a. A) Support for vertebral column
b. B) Attachment site for lower limbs
c. C) Aids in height
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
D
94
Which of the following hipbones is superior?
a. A) Ilium
b. B) Pubis
c. C) Ischium
d. Bothaandc
e. All of the above
A
95
The auricular surface
a. Is a point of attachment for the sacroiliac ligament
b. Is a point of attachment for tendons of the iliacus muscles
c. Articulates with the sacrum
d. Is a point of attachment for the gluteal muscles
e. Articulates with the sacrum
C
96
This is the largest foramen in the skeleton
a. Acetabulum
b. Obturator foramen
c. V ertebral foramen
d. Cranial foramen
e. None of the above
B
97
This extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus to merge with the arcuate line of the ilium.
a. Iliopectineal line
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Anterior gluteal line
d. Inferior gluteal line
e. Greater sciatic notch
B
98
The hip joint is comprised of the
a. A) Femur
b. B) Pelvic girdle
c. C) Acetabulum
d. Bothaandb
e. Bothaandc
E
99
This is bordered by the lumbar vertebrae posteriorly, the upper portion of the hip bones laterally and the abdominal wall anteriorly.
a. A) False pelvis
b. B) Greater pelvis
c. C) True pelvis
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
D
100
The pelvic inlet
a. A) Is the superior opening of the pelvic cavity
b. B) Does not contain pelvic organs
c. C) Begins posteriorly at the sacral promontory
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
A
101
The female pelvis is
a. Wider
b. Shallower
c. Larger in the pelvic inlet
d. Larger in the pelvic outlet
e. All of the above
E
102
Each lower limb has
a. 30 bones in 3 location
b. 30 bones in 4 locations
c. 32 bones in 3 locations
d. 32 bones in 3 locations
e. 34 bones in 4 locations
B
103
The shaft of the femur is slightly angled
a. Medially
b. Laterally
c. Anteriorly
d. Posteriorly
e. It is not angled at all
A
104
Which ridge serves as an attachment point for tendons of the thigh muscles?
a. A) Gluteal tuberosity
b. B) Linea aspera
c. C) Intertrochanteric crest
d. Bothaandb
e. Bothbandc
D
105
Which is found medially?
a. Lesser trochanter
b. Greater trochanter
c. Scaphoid
d. Radius
e. Styloid process of radius
A
106
This is a bone that develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. a. Ischium
b. Ilium c. Pubis d. Patella e. Femur
D
107
The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella?
a. Articular facets
b. Patellofemoral joint
c. Tibiofemoral joint
d. Apex
e. None of the above
A
108
The tibiofemoral joint includes
a. A) Femur condyles
b. B) Condyles of the tibia
c. C) Condyles of the fibula
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
D
109
The shin is also known as the
a. Anterior border
b. Tibial tuberosity
c. Medial condyle
d. Tibiofemoral joint
e. Intercondylar eminence
A
110
The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Tarsal
d. Metatarsals
e. None of the above
B
111
Which is not a tarsal bone? a. Talus
| b. Calcaneus c. Navicular d. Cuneiform e. Capitate
E
112
Which is not found in the foot?
a. Pollex
b. Hallux
c. Interphalangeal joints
d. Longitudinal arch
e. Transverse arch
A
113
This type of joint is held together by a fibrous connective tissue.
a) A. Fibrous joint
b) B. Cartilaginous joint
c) C. Synovial joint
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above
A
114
This type of joint lacks a synovial cavity.
a) A. Fibrous
b) B. Cartilaginous
c) C. Synovial
d) BothAandB
e) All of the above
D
115
This type of joint is freely movable.
a) A. Synarthrosis
b) B. Amphiarthrosis
c) C. Diarthrosis
d) Bothbandc
e) All of the above
C
116
This is a fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense fibrous connective tissue.
a) A. Syndesmoses
b) B. Gomphosis
c) C. Suture
d) Bothaandb
e) None of the above
C
117
How is a suture joint classified functionally?
a) Synarthrosis
b) Amphiarthrosis
c) Diarthrosis
d) Synovial
e) Cartilaginous
A
118
In this type of fibrous joint, the connective tissue is arranged either as a bundle or as a sheet.
a) A. Suture
b) B. Gomphoses
c) C. Syndesmoses
d) Bothaandb
e) Bothbandc
C
119
Another term for this joint is dentoalveolar joint. a) Syndesmoses
b) Gomphoses
c) Synchondroses d) Symphyses
e) Suture
B
120
Which of the following can be classified as synarthrosis joints?
a) A. Gomphosis
b) B. Synchondrosis
c) C. Suture
d) Bothaandc
e) All of the above
E
121
An example of this type of joint is the epiphyseal plate. a) Gomphosis
b) Suture
c) Symphysis
d) Synovial
e) Synchondrosis
E
122
The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as
a) Synchondrosis
b) Synarthrosis
c) Cartilaginous joint
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
D
123
Where do symphyses occur?
a) Upper limbs
b) Lower limbs
c) Axial skeleton
d) Ankles
e) Knees
C
124
Synovial joints do NOT
a) Include a cavity
b) Are freely moveable
c) Have bones covered in hyaline cartilage
d) include elastic cartilage
e) have ligaments
D
125
Which of the following is made from dense regular connective tissue?
a) Ligaments
b) Fibrous capsule of articular cartilage
c) Articular fat pads
d) Synovial membrane
e) Synovial fluid
A
126
Examples of these include the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments of the knee joint.
a) Synovial membranes
b) Articular fat pads
c) Menisci
d) Extracapsular ligaments
e) Tendon sheath
D
127
Another term for menisci are
a) Articular fat pads
b) Articular discs
c) Articular spaces
d) Capsular fat pads
e) Capsular discs
B
128
Articular discs
a) A. Maintain the stability of a joint
b) B. Direct flow of the synovial fluid
c) C. Are made of hyaline cartilage
d) D. Are only found in the vertebral column
e) Bothaandb
E
129
This is used to reduce friction in joints.
a) A. Bursae
b) B. Synovial fluid
c) C. Accessory ligaments
d) D. Elastic fibers
e) Bothaandb
E
130
Which of the following is not used to reduce friction at joints?
a) Tendon sheaths
b) Synovial fluid
c) Bursae
d) Menisci
e) All of the above reduce friction
D
131
This type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Gliding
d) Circumduction
e) Hyperextension
C
132
This is a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Gliding
d) Circumduction e) Rotation
A
133
Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement?
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Lateral flexion
d) Hyperextension
e) None of the above
A
134
Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?
a) Frontal
b) Transverse
c) Sagittal
d) Oblique
e) None of the above
C
135
Examples of this type of movement include moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint.
a) Lateral flexion
b) Hyperextension
c) Adduction
d) Abduction
e) Gliding
D
136
This type of movement is a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction.
a) Gliding
b) Lateral flexion
c) Hyperextension
d) Circumduction
e) Elevation
D
137
Which of the following is not considered a special movement?
a) Depression
b) Protraction
c) Elevation
d) Supination
e) All of the above are special movements
E
138
Which of the following bones can NOT be elevated or depressed? a) Hyoid
b) Clavicle c) Ribs
d) Maxilla e) Mandible
D
139
What type of movement can be seen in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints by crossing your arms?
a) Protraction b) Retraction c) Inversion d) Eversion e) Supination
A
140
This special movement occurs when you stand on your heels.
a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Plantar flexion
e) Supination
C
141
This special movement includes the ability of your thumb to move across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand.
a) Pronation
b) Supination
c) Eversion
d) Retraction
e) None of the above
E
142
Which of the following is not a structural category of synovial joint? a) Planar
b) Hinge
c) Condyloid d) Inversion e) Saddle
D
143
In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament.
a) Pivot joint
b) Planar joint
c) Hinge joint
d) Ball-and-socket joint
e) Saddle joint
A
144
A condyloid joint
a) Is also called ellipsoidal
b) Is biaxial
c) Can have flexion–extension or abduction–adduction
d) Found in the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints for the second through fifth digits
e) All of the above
E
145
This refers to the range through which the bones of a joint can be moved.
a) Axial
b) Biaxial
c) Multiaxial
d) Range of motion
e) Disuse
D
146
Which of the following is not a factor in affecting range of motion?
a) Structure of articulating bones
b) Tension of the muscles
c) Hormones
d) Disuse
e) Mineral homeostasis
E
147
How much of the total body weight of the average adult is muscle tissue? a) 20-30%
b) 30-40% c) 40-50% d) 50-60% e) 60-70%
C
148
The different types of muscle tissue differ from each other by: a) A. Microscopic anatomy
b) B. Location
c) C. Type of Control
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above
E
149
Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue.
a) Moving blood throughout the body
b) Generating heat through contractions
c) Stopping the movement of joints
d) Promoting movement of body structures
e) Storing energy
E
150
This is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage.
a) Electrical excitability
b) Contractility
c) Extensibility
d) Elasticity
e) Thermogenesis
C
151
In an isometric contraction the muscle develops tension but does not
a) Lengthen
b) Widen
c) Shorten
d) Conduct electrical current
e) Exhibit elasticity
C
152
This is a band of connective tissue that surrounds muscles. a) Tendon
b) Ligament
c) Endomysium d) Epimysium e) Perimysium
D
153
```
When
a) Perimysium
connective tissue extends as a broad flat layer, the tendon is referred to as
b) Deep fascia
c) Fascicle
d) Aponeurosis
e) Endomysium
```
D
154
For every nerve that penetrates a skeletal muscle there are general how many arteries and veins?
a) One artery and one or two veins
b) Two arteries and two veins
c) Three arteries and two veins
d) One artery and three veins
e) One artery and a varied amount of veins
A
155
Axon terminal clusters at the ends of neuromuscular junctions are referred to as:
a) Myelin bulbs
b) Neuromuscular bulbs
c) Synaptic end bulbs
d) Axon collateral bulb
e) Tubule bulb
C
156
After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to do what?
a) Grow
b) Lengthen
c) Contract
d) Go through mitosis
e) All of the above
D
157
The sequence that muscle action potentials must go through to excite a muscle cell
a) Sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules
b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament
c) Muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils
d) Axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
e) Myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria
D
158
The mitochondria in muscle fiber are arranged
a) Randomly
b) In circles
c) Around the nuclei
d) In rows
e) Closest to the sarcolemma
E
159
```
These
a) Myofibrils
are the contractile organelles of the muscle fiber.
b) Myoglobin
c) Mitochondria
d) Z disc
e) M line
```
A
160
This part of the skeletal muscle cell releases calcium when stimulated by the T tubules.
a) Myofibrils
b) Sarcoplasm
c) Terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) Sarcomeres
e) None of the above
C
161
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is used for storing a) Oxygen
| b) ATP c) PO4- d) Na+ e) Ca+
E
162
Which of the following contain thin filaments
a) A. I band
b) B. A band
c) C. H zone
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above
D
163
Which of the following contain thick filament?
a) A. Zone of overlap
b) B. A band
c) C. H zone
d) Bothbandc
e) All of the above
E
164
Myofibrils contain
a) Contractile proteins
b) Regulatory proteins
c) Structural proteins
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
D
165
Which of the following functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue?
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Troponin
d) Titin
e) Tropomyosin
B
166
What regulatory proteins can be found on an actin molecule? a) Troponin and Titin
b) Tropomyosin and Troponin c) Myosin and Titin
d) Titin and Tropomyosin
e) Titin and Actin
B
167
Titin is found in a sarcomere
a) In the A band only
b) In the H zone only
c) From Z disc to Z disc
d) From M line to Z disc
e) In the I band only
D
168
Which of the following is used to reinforce the sarcolemma? a) Troponin
b) Tropomyosin c) Myosin
d) Actin
e) Dystrophin
E
169
In the sliding filament mechanism, the thin filament is being pulled towards the
a) Z disc
b) sarcolemma
c) M line
d) A band
e) I band
C
170
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the cytosol
a) At the beginning of a contraction
b) Throughout the entire contraction
c) During the midpoint only of the contraction
d) After the contraction ends
e) All of the above
A
171
What energizes the myosin head? a) The actin filaments
b) Calcium ions
c) Potassium ions
d) A TP hydrolysis reaction e) ADP synthesis
D
172
What is needed for the contraction cycle to continue? a) Ca
b) ATP
c) ACh
d) All of the above
D
173
This results from a muscle action potential propagating along the sarcolemma and into the T tubules.
a) Summation
b) Relaxation
c) Excitation
d) Release channel
e) A TP hydrolysis
C
174
The signal to excite a muscle cell must cross the neuromuscular junction by the diffusion of acetylcholine across the
a) Motor neuron axon
b) Synaptic cleft
c) Sarcolemma
d) Synaptic vesicles
e) Myofibril
B
175
How many molecules of acetylcholine need to bind to open the ion channel of the ACh receptor?
a) 100
b) More than 1000
c) 10
d) An unknown amount
e) None of the above
B
176
How do muscles produce ATP?
a) Creatine phosphate
b) Anaerobic cellular respiration
c) Aerobic cellular respiration
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
D
177
Creatine phosphate and ATP together create enough energy for a muscle to contract for
a) 15 seconds
b) 15 minutes
c) 1.5 minutes
d) Less than 5 seconds
e) One minute
A
178
This consists of a somatic motor neuron plus all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates.
a) Sarcomere
b) Motor unit
c) Neuromuscular junction
d) Somatic motor neuron
e) Muscle fiber
B
179
This is a brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential.
a) Recovery oxygen uptake
b) Motor unit movement
c) Muscle fatigue
d) Refractory period
e) Twitch contraction
E
180
This is also referred to as the period of lost excitability.
a) Refractory period
b) Contraction period
c) Latent period
d) Relaxation period
e) Wave summation
A
181
A sustained contraction is
a) Myogram
b) Muscle tone
c) Flaccid
d) Tetanus
e) Twitch
D
182
Increasing the number of active motor units is called
a) Wave summation
b) Fused tetanus
c) Motor unit recruitment
d) Muscle tone
e) Flaccid
C
183
This is the least powerful type of muscle fiber.
a) Slow oxidative fiber
b) Fast oxidative fibers
c) Fast glycolytic fiber
d) Slow glycolytic fibers
e) None of the above
A
184
Which of the below structures is found in cardiac muscle tissue but not skeletal muscle tissue?
a) Myosin
b) Tropomysoin
c) Sarcomeres
d) Intercalated discs
e) Striations
D
185
Which of the following exhibits autorhythmicity?
a) Cardiac muscle fibers
b) Actin fibers
c) Mutli-unit smooth muscle fibers
d) Intermediate fibers
e) All of the above
A
186
Smooth muscle tone is due to the prolonged presence of what in the cytosol?
a) ATP
b) Calcium ions
c) Phosphate ions
d) Myoglobin
e) None of the above
B
187
Hyperplasia is
a) An increase in the size of muscle fibers
b) A decrease in the size of muscle fibers
c) An increase in the number of muscle fibers
d) A decrease in the number of muscle fibers
e) None of the above
C
188
Most muscles cross at least one
a. tendon
b. joint
c. bone
d. ligament
e. body plane
B
189
The attachment of a muscles tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______; the attachment of the muscles other tendon to the movable bone is called ______.
a. origin, action
b. insertion, action
c. origin, insertion
d. insertion, origin
e. insertion, action
C
190
This is an inflammation of the synovial membrane surrounding a joint.
a. tenosynovitis
b. tendonitis
c. synovitis
d. tendon inflammation
e. capsule inflammation
A
191
A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are
a. fulcrum and resistance
b. leverage and load
c. lever and resistance
d. effort and load
e. lever and effort
D
192
Motion will occur in a muscle when the ______ supplied exceeds the _______.
a. effort, load
b. resistance, lever
c. load, effort
d. load, resistance
e. lever, effort
A
193
Which of the following is not a fascicle arrangement? a. pennate
b. triangular c. oval
d. parallel e. fusiform
C
194
This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick central tendon.
a. triangular
b. pennate
c. circular
d. fusiform
e. multipennate
A
195
What is another name for a prime mover? a. antagonist
b. agonist
c. synergist d. asynergist e. fixator
B
196
This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of a prime mover so that it can act more efficiently.
a. synergist
b. agonist
c. antagonist
d. fixator
e. secondary mover
D
197
Which of the following is not one of the descriptive ways to name a muscle?
a. Size
b. Shape
c. Number of origins
d. Sites of origins
e. Number of cells
E
