Test 2 Flashcards
(235 cards)
1
Q
Sterilization
A
The process of destroying all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores.
2
Q
Disinfection
A
The process of reducing the number of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects to a safe level.
3
Q
Critical patient care items
A
Items that come into contact with sterile tissue or the vascular system.
4
Q
Semicritical patient care items
A
Items that come into contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin.
5
Q
Noncritical patient care items
A
Items that come into contact with intact skin but not mucous membranes.
6
Q
Sterility assurance
A
The process of ensuring that instruments and equipment are free from viable microorganisms.
7
Q
Instrument processing
A
The procedures involved in cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing dental instruments.
8
Q
Instrument cleaning
A
The process of removing debris and contaminants from instruments to prepare them for sterilization.
9
Q
Packaging materials
A
Materials used to wrap or contain instruments before sterilization.
10
Q
Steam sterilization
A
A method of sterilization that uses steam under pressure to kill microorganisms.
11
Q
Dry heat sterilization
A
A method of sterilization that uses hot air to kill microorganisms.
12
Q
Unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization
A
A method of sterilization that uses a chemical solution to kill microorganisms.
13
Q
Sterilization monitoring
A
The process of verifying that sterilization has been achieved and maintained.
14
Q
Sterilization failure
A
The inability to achieve proper sterilization, which can be caused by various factors.
15
Q
Sterilized instruments
A
Instruments that have undergone the sterilization process and are free from viable microorganisms.
16
Q
Sterilization facility
A
A designated area within a dental office where instruments are sterilized.
17
Q
Infection control
A
Measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings.
18
Q
Decontamination
A
The process of reducing the number of microorganisms on surfaces and equipment.
19
Q
Handpieces
A
Dental instruments used to perform dental procedures, such as drills.
20
Q
Instrument Processing
A
Collection of procedures preparing contaminated instruments for reuse.
21
Q
Critical Items
A
Patient care items categorized by CDC as having the highest potential risk of infection during use.
22
Q
Semicritical Items
A
Patient care items categorized by CDC as having a lower risk of infection during use compared to critical items.
23
Q
Noncritical Items
A
Patient care items categorized by CDC as having the lowest risk of infection during use.
24
Q
Sterility Assurance
A
Ensuring correct performance of instrument processing steps and monitoring of sterilization with indicators for patient protection.
25
Biological Monitoring
Evaluation of sterilization effectiveness using live spores to detect sterilization failures.
26
Chemical Monitoring
Assessment of physical conditions during sterilization using heat-sensitive chemicals.
27
Mechanical Monitoring
Observation of sterilizer gauges and displays to record sterilizing temperature, pressure, and exposure time.
28
Instrument Sharpening
Process involving cleaning, sterilizing, sharpening, and re-sterilizing instruments to manage infection control.
29
Handpiece Asepsis
Cleaning, packaging, and sterilizing high-speed handpieces, reusable prophylaxis angles, nose cones, and slow-speed handpiece motors between patients.
30
Sterilization of Heat-Labile Items
Use of liquid sterilants for plastic-type items that would be damaged by heat processing.
31
Ethylene Oxide Gas
Method of sterilization using ethylene oxide gas.
32
Hydrogen Peroxide Gas Plasma
Method of sterilization using vaporized hydrogen peroxide gas plasma.
33
Bead Sterilizers
Method of sterilization using bead sterilizers.
34
Hot Oil Sterilizers
Method of sterilization using hot oil sterilizers.
35
Critical Patient Care Items
Category with the highest potential risk of infection during use
36
Semicritical Patient Care Items
Category with moderate potential risk of infection during use
37
Noncritical Patient Care Items
Category with low potential risk of infection during use
38
Steam Sterilization
Involves heating water to generate steam in a closed chamber for rapid microbial kill
39
Dry Heat Sterilization
Involves heating air with transfer of heat energy to instruments
40
Unsaturated Chemical Vapor Sterilization
Involves heating a special chemical solution in a closed chamber to produce hot chemical vapors for microbial kill
41
What are the 7 steps to instrument processing?
holding, precleaning, corrosion control, packaging, sterilization, sterilization monitoring, handling
42
safe transportation
this can be achieved by gathering instruments, trays, or cassettes while wearing heavy utility gloves and placed the items in a leakproof container with solid sides, labeled as biohazard
43
aluminum foil test
this tests to ensure an ultrasonic is working properly by placing this item halfway into the ultrasonic for 20 seconds and noting indentations and holes
44
packing instruments before processing
this helps maintain the sterility of the instruments after they are processed through the sterilizer by preventing them from being contaminated after sterilization during storage or when being distributed
45
What are the three types of sterilization?
steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, and dry heat
46
Spore Testing
provides the guarantee of sterilizations by verifying the correct functioning of sterilization cycles
47
in office monitoring
involves purchasing the appropriate supplies and equipment, analyzing the test and control BIs in the office, and preparing appropriate records
48
mail in monitoring
involves the office subscribing to a mail in sterilization monitoring service available from private companies or through some dental schools
49
stainless steel instruments
these are least affected by corrosion from moisture and heat
50
Why do dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel?
the cutting surfaces retain a sharp edge longer
51
carbon steel instruments
these corrode and lose sharpness during steam sterilization
52
What percentage of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization?
64%
53
handpieces
These need to be cleaned inside and out
54
Why do dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel?
the cutting surfaces retain a sharp edge longer
## Footnote
Example sentence: Dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel due to the longer retention of sharpness in cutting surfaces.
55
What percentage of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization?
64%
## Footnote
Example sentence: 64% of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization.
56
handpieces
These need to be cleaned inside and out because bacteria cannot be removed from the air and water lines
57
Glutaraldehyde
what is an alternative cleaning solutions for instruments that get damaged by heat such as shade guides, rulers, and x-ray collimating devices?
58
liquid sterilant/high-level disifectant
2-3% glutaraldehyde and 7% hydrogen peroxide
59
ethylene oxide gas
the use of this is recognized as a method of sterilization
60
vaporize hydrogen gas plasma
a more recently developed low temperature sterilizer involves _______________________________
61
Bead "sterilizers"
these perform a form of dry heat processing that heats glass beads to temps near 218°C and then drops the instruments into the hot beads
62
Why should we not use bead sterilizers?
BIs are not available and the temperatures can vary
## Footnote
Example sentence: Bead sterilizers should not be used due to the unavailability of BIs and the varying temperatures.
63
hot oil sterilizer
not commonly used today, but consist of a pan of mineral oil and a heater
64
why should we not use hot oil sterilizers?
uneven temperatures and effectiveness cannot be verified
## Footnote
Example sentence: Hot oil sterilizers should not be used due to the inability to verify effectiveness and the uneven temperatures.
65
How should one sterilize a plastic rubber dam frame?
liquid sterilant such as glutaraldehyde
66
A chemical indicator reveals that an item:
has been processed through a heat sterilizer
67
How should one load a sterilizer?
Place the packages on their edges
68
The rationale for packaging instruments before placing them into a sterilizer is to:
Maintain their sterility after sterilization
69
Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus are used to monitor what types of sterilizers?
Unsaturated, chemical vapor and steam
70
What type of sterilization causes carbon steel instruments to rust?
Steam
71
Spores of Bacillus atrophaeus are used to monitor what type of sterilizer?
Dry heat
72
The leading cause of sterilization failure is:
Overloading the sterilizer
73
The purpose of an aluminum foil test is to:
Determine whether an ultrasonic cleaner chamber has an even distribution of sonic energy
74
The main rationale for cleaning instruments before sterilization is to:
Give the sterilization procedure the best chance to work
75
Placing wet instruments into a dry heat, sterilizer or an unsaturated chemical vapor sterilize can:
Counteract the anti-rusting nature of the sterilizers
76
Instrument packages are wet after the sterilization portion of which of the following sterilizing cycles?
Steam
77
Wet packages should be allowed to dry inside the sterilizer because paper packaging material may tear on handling and because:
Of wicking
78
A high-speed handpiece that is destroyed at 149°C cannot be sterilized in:
A dry heat sterilizer
79
The active ingredient in the unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization process is:
Formaldehyde
80
The first thing to do after a sterilization failure is to:
Take the sterilizer out of service for processing patient care items
81
The sterilization process is described best as being:
Sporicidal
82
When analyzing sport test, Geobaccilus stearothermophilus is incubated at what temperature?
55°C
83
What sterility assurance procedure should be performed while setting up for the next patient?
The instrument packages should be observed for tears or punctures before being opened
84
Critical patient care items are to be cleaned and ______ for reuse
Sterilized
85
Clinical Contact Surfaces
Surfaces needing treatment before each patient interaction
86
Housekeeping Surfaces
Surfaces treated at the end of each day
87
Surface Barriers
Impervious covers to prevent microorganism contact
88
Precleaning
Reduces contaminating microorganisms before disinfection
89
Disinfectants
Chemicals killing microorganisms on surfaces
90
High-level Disinfectants
Kill all microorganisms on heat-sensitive objects
91
Intermediate-level Disinfectants
Kill bacteria, fungi, viruses, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis
92
Low-level Disinfectants
Kill most bacteria, some fungi, and viruses
93
Antiseptics
Kill microorganisms on the skin
94
Sterilants
Kill microorganisms on inanimate objects
95
Virucidal
Kills at least some viruses
96
Bactericidal
Kills at least some bacteria
97
Fungicidal
Kills at least some fungi
98
Tuberculocidal
Kills Mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis
99
Sporicidal
Kills bacterial spores, acting as a sterilant
100
Chlorine
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
101
Iodophors
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
102
Alcohols
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
103
Synthetic Phenolics
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
104
Hydrogen Peroxides
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
105
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
An ingredient in surface disinfectants
106
CDC Recommendations
Guidelines for surface asepsis including barrier protection and cleaning
107
Equipment Decontamination
Preventing contamination and using heat sterilization
108
Aseptic Distribution
Sterile retrieval and distribution of dental supplies
109
Droplet, direct, indirect
How do dental environment services become contaminated? (3 ways)
110
Weeks
How long do the hepatitis C and B viruses and mycobacterium tuberculosis survive on enviromental surfaces?
111
1-3 days
How long does SARS-COV-2 (covid-19) survive on environmental surfaces?
112
The nature of the microbe, self, humidity, temperature, presence of organic material, the nature of the environmental surface, and the amount of contaminant present
What factors affects how long a virus can survive on an environmental surface?
113
Months
How long does methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) survive on environmental surfaces?
114
Prevent the surface or item from becoming contaminated, using a surface barrier, pre-clean and disinfect the surface after contamination and before reuse
What are the two general approaches to surface asepsis?
115
Surface barriers
Should be impervious to fluids to keep the microorganisms in saliva, blood, and other liquids from soaking to contact the surface
116
Clear, plastic wrap, bags, or tubes, plastic backed paper
What are some examples of surface barriers?
117
Prevents contamination, protect surfaces that are difficult to pre-clean may be less time-consuming to perform
What are three advantages to surface barriers?
118
A variety of appropriate sizes and types may be needed, adds non-biodegradable plastic to the environment, may be aesthetically unattractive, may be more expensive than pre-cleaning and disinfection
What are four disadvantages to surface barriers?
119
True
True or false: sizes and shapes of surfaces to be covered vary from one office to the next, but general procedures for use of surface covers are the same.
120
Pre-cleaning and disinfection
These best lend themselves to non-electric services that are smooth and easily accessible for facilitating good contact with the decontaminating chemicals
121
Bioburden
Another name for blood, saliva or bodily fluids present
122
Pre-cleaning
Reduces the number of contaminating microorganisms and the bio burden and facilitates action of the disinfecting chemical
123
Spray wipe spray, wipe discard wipe
What are the two approaches to pre-cleaning and disinfection?
124
Spray wipe spray
Using a liquid cleaner/disinfectant
125
Wipe discard wipe
Using a disinfectant towelette
126
Antibiotics, antiseptic, disinfectants, sterilants
What are the four general types of antimicrobial chemicals?
127
Antibiotics
For killing microorganisms in or on the body
128
Antiseptics
For killing microorganisms on the skin or other body surfaces
129
Disinfectants
For killing microorganisms on environmental/inanimate surfaces or objects
130
Sterilants
For killing all microorganisms on inanimate objects
131
Sterilant/high-level disinfectant
For killing all microorganisms on submerged, inanimate, heat, sensitive objects
132
Intermediate level disinfectant
for killing vegetative bacteria, most fungi, viruses, and M. tuberculosis var. bovis
133
Low level disinfectant
For killing most vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and some viruses
134
Virucidal
Kills at least some viruses
135
Bactericidal
Kills at least some bacteria
136
Fungicidal
Kills at least some fungi
137
Tuberculocidal
Kills the M. tuberculosis var. bovis bacterium
138
Sporicidal
Kills bacterial spores, which means it is a sterilant
139
True
True or False: No perfect disinfectant exists that will kill all types of disease producing microorganisms rapidly have no toxic properties be unaffected by organic materials be odorless not cause any damage to any surface and be economical.
140
Heat sensitive, reusable items immersion only (gluteraldehyde)
What is the use for a sterilant and a high-level disinfectant?
141
Clinical contact surfaces: non-critical surfaces with visible blood
What is the use for an immediate level disinfectant
142
Housekeeping surfaces, non-critical surfaces without visible blood, clinical contact surfaces
What is the use for a low level disinfectant?
143
Chlorine compounds, Idophors, alcohols, synthetic phenolics, hydrogen peroxide, quarternary ammonium compounds
What are some active ingredients in surface disinfectants?
144
Barrier protectants, between ever patient
The CDC recommends using these to protect clinical contact services particularly those that are difficult to clean. How often should they be changed out?
145
Heat sterilization
One should try to prevent the equipment from becoming contaminated in the first place, but if this is not possible, what should be used first?
146
Follow manufacturer IFU
Some technologies, such as computers, cameras, and digital x-ray sensors can be hard to clean. What should you do?
147
Cotton pliers
What can you use for aseptic retrieval?
148
Unit dosing
Different supply items are distributed or packaged in small numbers sufficient for treatment of just one patient and are placed at chair side before treatment begins
149
Low-level disinfectant
What type of antimicrobial agent should be used on the floor?
150
Low-level disinfectant
What antimicrobial agent should not be used for service disinfection in dentistry
151
Quarternary ammonium compound
Which agent is not tuberculocidal?
152
Surfaces that are difficult to clean (light switches)
What types of surfaces should be covered rather than disinfected?
153
Because tuberculosis is one of the more resistant microbes to kill
Why should disinfectants used on clinical contact services and dentistry contaminated with blood or saliva have tuberculocidal activity?
154
Heat sensitive
Liquid sterilants such as gluteraldegyde should be used only on reusable items that can be submerged and are:
155
Paper
One should not use _____ as a surface cover
156
Start the microbial killing process and helps protect the person doing the cleaning
Use of a disinfectant type cleaner to pre-clean a contaminated operatory surface:
157
Sterilization will occur when the solution is used only for the longer exposure times
When can a liquid sterilant/high-level disinfectant achieve sterilization?
158
Infectious diseases The third leading cause of death in the US & second leading cause worldwide
159
Emerging disease New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before as well as known infectious diseases with changing patterns
160
Zoonotic diseases Ecological changes that result in disease emergent usually involve these which involve animals or insect borne diseases
161
Korean hemorrhagic fever This is an example of a zoonotic disease. It includes high fever and internal bleeding
which is caused by the hantaan virus from rodents.
162
Hepatitis G What is the newest form of hepatitis?
163
1995 When was the newest type of hepatitis
a.k.a. hepatitis G recognized?
164
Ecological changes Examples include Argentine hemorrhagic fever
Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
165
Changes in human demographics or behaviors Examples include hepatitis
BMC
166
International travel and commerce Examples include cholera
encephalitis
167
Technology Examples include escherichia coil hemolytic uremia syndrome
hepatitis
168
Microbial changes Examples include infections with antibiotic resistant strains
influenza
169
Breakdown in public health measures Examples include cryptoporidiosis
diptheria
170
Human population movements This is also called changes and how human beings associate with each other and can create new conditions that favor disease spread
171
Crowding This leads to transference
172
Microorganisms We carry these with us when we travel and can spread them easily to others and far away lands
173
Severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS stands for
174
International travel How are the three coronavirus diseases spread in China and the Middle East?
175
2003 What year was severe acute respiratory syndrome recognized?
176
Technology This creates new ways to bring microorganisms and human beings together
177
1993 What year was hamburger meat contaminated with raw material causing a spread of ecoli over 4 states in the northwest?
178
1994 What year was approximately 4000 cases of salmonella food poisoning occurring in 36 states spread by the contamination of a batch of ice cream mix processed by a large food company?
179
Eggs What is the leading source of salmonella in the United States?
180
Mutations Sometimes do not cause death and occasionally make the microorganism more difficult to kill
181
Super bugs What is another name for multidrug resistant organisms or MDROs?
182
Maintained Public health measures to protect against the spread of infectious diseases must be what to remain effective?
183
1994 The Soviet union formally known as the USSR relaxed its vaccine programs in what year? This caused 45
000 new cases of diphtheria.
184
1976 What year was Ebola hemorrhagic fever first recognized with two outbreaks one in the DRC and one in southern Sudan?
185
Ebola This is a rapidly progressing
viral disease that causes high fever with bleeding from multiple sites and the ultimate shutdown of major organs
186
Has not been recognized before An emerging disease is a disease that
187
1970 Hand foot and mouth disease caused by coxsackievirus was first recognized in what year?
188
Ecological changes What caused the hantavirus pulmonary syndrome to emerge?
189
Development of new technologies What caused legionnaires disease to emerge?
190
A coronavirus Severe acute respiratory syndrome is caused by
191
Infectious Disease
Occurs when organisms in the body multiply and cause damage to the tissues. It can be endogenous or exogenous.
192
Endogenous
Type of infectious disease caused by organisms already present in the body. (cavities and perio)
193
Exogenous
Type of infectious disease caused by organisms that enter from outside the body. (strep and hep b)
194
Direct Contact
Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through physical contact such as the patients mouth
195
Indirect Contact
Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with contaminated objects such as surfaces, hands, or contaminated sharps
196
Droplet Infection
Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with the larger droplets in sprays, splashes, or splatter containing microorganisms
197
Airborne Infection
Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with the smaller droplet nuclei (aerosol) containing microorganisms
198
Portals of Entry
Four basic routes for microorganisms to enter the body: inhalation, ingestion, mucous membranes, breaks in the skin.
199
Innate Defenders
Host defense mechanisms that are present at birth and include physical, mechanical, antimicrobial, and cellular barriers.
200
Acquired Defenders
Host defense mechanisms that are developed over time, including acquired immunity.
201
Acquired Immunity
The body's defense system against invading microorganisms, developed over time.
202
Long-Term Immunity
The body's ability to remember and destroy invading microorganisms to prevent the same disease from recurring.
203
Artificial Immunity
Immunity acquired through vaccination or immunization against specific diseases.
204
Damage by the Immune System
Immune system activation by certain antigens can lead to damage, usually at the site of allergen exposure.
205
endogenous and exogenous
what are the two types of infectious disease?
206
source of microorganism, escape from microorganism from the source, spread of microorganism to a new person, entry of a microorganism to a new person, entry of a microorganism into the person, infection, damage to the body
what are the 6 steps that exogenous infectious disease develop from?
207
incubation, prodromal, acute, and convalescent
what are the four stages of infectious disease?
208
μm
how microns are measured
209
50 μm
the width of a hair
210
inhalation, ingestion, mucous membrane, breaks in the skin
what are the four routes of entry of microorganisms into the body?
211
inhalation
breathing aerosol particles generated from use of prophylaxes angle
212
ingestion
swallowing droplets of saliva/blood spattered into the mouth
213
mucous membranes
droplets of saliva/blood splattered into the eyes, nose, and mouth
214
breaks in the skin
directly touching microorganisms or being spattered with saliva/blood onto skin with cuts or abrasions; punctures with contaminated sharps
215
incubation stage
period from the initial entrance of the infectious agent into the body to the time when the first symptoms of the disease appear
216
prodromal stage
stage of disease that involves the appearance of early symptoms
217
acute stage
When symptoms of the disease are maximal and the person is obviously ill.
218
convalescent stage
the recovery phase
219
droplet nuclei
aerosol particles that contain microorganisms and have dehydrated to a size of less than 5μm
220
harmful
microorganisms must multiply to this level for disease to occur
221
microorganisms
present on or in the body and multiple if the conditions are appropriate
222
health/disease
the body attempts to restrict microbial invasion and multiplication and to counteract harmful microbial products, the result of this is _________
223
dental caries
when bacterial attachment to host surfaces in the mouth it can cause _______
224
enhancement of infection
- Microorganisms present on or in the body multiply if the conditions are appropriate
225
- The body attempts to counteract harmful microbial products
226
- The result of these interactions is health or disease
227
bateria
kills cells or damage tissue
228
viruses
damage by killing or interfering with normal cell function
229
interferes with host defenses
many microorganisms are pathogenic and interfere with this, causing direct damage to body
230
innate and acquired defenders
host defenses consist of four groups and are grouped into what two catergories?
231
physical barriers, mechanical barriers, antimicrobial chemicals, and cellular barriers
what are the four groups of properties or activities of the body that guard against infection by contaminating microorganisms (innate host defenses)?
232
acquired immunity
the body's natural defense against infection and has a special host defense system directed against invading microorganisms
233
long term immunity
The body remembers and organism and can respond rapidly to destroy it before it can damage the body
234
artificial immunity
being immunized or vaccinated against a specific disease and can be tested using a titer
235
damage to the body
activation of the immune system by certain antigens can cause this, which usually occurs at the body site exposed to the allergen
