Test 2 Flashcards by Riyanna Day

What is the primary advantage of using sonographic guidance during access procedures?
A) It reduces the need for anesthesia
B) It provides real-time imaging throughout the exam
C) It eliminates the need for imaging altogether
D) It speeds up the procedure significantly

B) It provides real-time imaging throughout the exam

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a common use of sonographic guidance?
A) Determining blood type
B) Localizing fluid collections
C) Measuring bone density
D) Conducting a stress test

B) Localizing fluid collections

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a critical aspect of sonographic guidance during needle or catheter placement?
A) It requires prior x-ray imaging
B) It ensures accurate localization of the target
C) It involves patient sedation
D) It is only used for large masses

B) It ensures accurate localization of the target

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During a sonographic-guided procedure, what is the typical role of the ultrasound technician?
A) To perform the surgery
B) To provide anesthesia
C) To assist in imaging and needle guidance
D) To analyze laboratory results

C) To assist in imaging and needle guidance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using sonographic guidance for access procedures?
A) Increased precision in placement
B) Decreased risk of complications
C) Higher cost compared to other imaging methods
D) Immediate feedback on needle position

C) Higher cost compared to other imaging methods

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are some indications for access procedures?

Diagnostic tool confirming and differentiating pathology
Non surgical intervention such as radiation or chemotherapy
Fluid aspiration (diagnostic or Therapeutic purposes)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are some contradictions for access procedures?

Uncorrectable coagulopathy
Unsafe route
Uncooperative patient

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the recommended fibrinogen level according to the Society of Interventional Radiology (SIR)?
A) 100-150 mg/dL
B) 150-200 mg/dL
C) 200-250 mg/dL
D) 250-300 mg/dL

B) 150-200 mg/dL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the minimum platelet count recommended by SIR?
A) 30,000-50,000 per microliter
B) 50,000-100,000 per microliter
C) 100,000-150,000 per microliter
D) 150,000-200,000 per microliter

B) 50,000-100,000 per microliter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to SIR, what is the target Prothrombin Time (PT) value?
A) 1.0-1.5 times baseline
B) 1.5-2 times baseline
C) 2.0-2.5 times baseline
D) 2.5-3.0 times baseline

B) 1.5-2 times baseline

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the target range for Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) according to SIR?
A) 1.0-1.5 times baseline
B) 1.5-2.5 times baseline
C) 2.5-3.5 times baseline
D) 3.5-4.5 times baseline

B) 1.5-2.5 times baseline

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the recommended International Normalized Ratio (INR) range for Prothrombin Time (PT) according to SIR? A) 1.0-1.5
B) 1.5-2.0
C) 2.0-2.5
D) 2.5-3.0

B) 1.5-2.0

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are three types of vascular access?

Peripheral IV
Central lines
Arterial access

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where should the tip of a central line be located for optimal placement?

A) Inferior vena cava, superior vena cava, or right atrium
B)Subclavian vein
C) Radial artery
D) Femoral artery

A) Inferior vena cava, superior vena cava, or right atrium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following sites is NOT commonly used for central line placement?
A) Subclavian vein
B) Internal jugular vein
C) External jugular vein
D) Dorsalis pedis artery

D) Dorsalis pedis artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary purpose of a central line?
A) To monitor blood pressure
B) To administer medication and fluids directly into the central venous system
C) To draw arterial blood gases
D) To perform imaging studies

B) To administer medication and fluids directly into the central venous system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which anatomical region is typically accessed for central line placement in the upper extremity?
A) Femoral region
B) Popliteal region
C) Axillary region
D) Abdominal region

C) Axillary region

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a potential complication of central line placement?
A) Headache
B) Infection
C) Skin rash
D) Nausea

B) Infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does the needle appear, in the plane or long access?

Needle appears an a hyperechoic line

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does the needle appear when out of plane or short access?

Needle appears as a Hyperechoic dot

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

T/F Needle should be in the same plane as the transducer

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Artery or Vein?
Tubular fluid filled structures?

Both

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Artery or Vein?
High velocity tri-phasic waveform

Artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which has the most Hypoechoic walls Artery or Vein?

Veins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is more compressible Artery or Vein?

Vein

Which has Anechoic lumen Artery or Vein?

Both

Static guidance, put steps in order: X marks the spot Ultrasound used to locate and evaluate target structure The procedure is then completed without additional sonographuc imaging The skin is marked according to its location

Ultrasound used to locate and evaluate the target structure The skin is marked according to it’s location The procedure is then completed without additional sonographic imaging “x marks the spot”

Static or dynamic? Real time guidance

Dynamic

Static or dynamic? X marks the spot

Static

Static or dynamic? Sonography used full time

Dynamic

What factors should be evaluated when considering a vessel for access? A) Color and temperature B) Size, accessibility, valve, and adjacent artery locations C) Length and diameter D) Skin elasticity and hydration

B) Size, accessibility, valve, and adjacent artery locations

How can imaging be optimized to improve access? A) By increasing the power of the ultrasound machine B) By using lower-frequency transducers C) By choosing an angle that allows safe access D) By adjusting the room temperature

C) By choosing an angle that allows safe access

What is a critical consideration to avoid complications during access? A) Puncturing only superficial veins B) Ensuring an approach that avoids hitting an artery if the posterior venous wall is punctured C) Using a larger gauge needle D) Performing the procedure without imaging

B) Ensuring an approach that avoids hitting an artery if the posterior venous wall is punctured

TF Sterile procedure only require one operator for sonography

F another person is needed for image adjustments

Name four drainage procedure

1. Percutaneous drainage of fluid collections 2. Percutaneous nephrostomy tube 3. Paracentesis 4. Thoracentesis

Does gel go inside or outside of the probe cover in a sterile procedure? Why?

What does an air bubble do to the image?

Hyperechoic artifact with posterior shadow

What is the purpose of Percutaneous drainage?

To remove infected fluid from the body

Does abscess drainage come before or after antibiotics?

After antibiotics have failed

Can drains be placed after percutaneous drainage?

Yes. Depending on the size and location. A drain might be placed or a syringe used. Fluid is usually sent for cultures in the lab.

What is the primary clinical indication for placing an indwelling catheter in the collecting system of the kidney? A) Routine urinary monitoring B) Urinary tract obstruction C) Treatment of urinary incontinence D) Diagnosis of kidney stones

B) Urinary tract obstruction

Which imaging modalities can be used for guidance during the placement of an indwelling catheter? A) X-ray and CT scan B) MRI and PET scan C) Ultrasound and fluoroscopy D) Plain radiography and nuclear medicine

C) Ultrasound and fluoroscopy

What position are patients typically placed in during the procedure for catheter placement? A) Supine B) Sitting C) Prone or lateral D) Trendelenburg

C) Prone or lateral

Why are coagulation studies required before placing an indwelling catheter? A) To assess kidney function B) To evaluate the need for antibiotics C) To ensure normal blood clotting D) To determine the type of catheter needed

C) To ensure normal blood clotting

How long before the procedure are patients often administered IV antibiotics? A) 12-24 hours B) 6-12 hours C) 1-4 hours D) 24-48 hours

C) 1-4 hours

What anesthetic is used for nephrostomy tube placement?

Lidocaine

What size is the initial puncture needle for nephrostomy tube placement?

18-22 gauge

What size is the guide wire for nephrostomy tube placement?

0.018 or .038 inch

What type of drain is used for nephrostomy tube placement?

Pigtail drain usually 8f

Is nephrostomy tube placement a sterile or no sterile procedure?

Sterile

When should images be taken during the procedure for catheter placement? A) After establishing a sterile field B) Before establishing a sterile field C) After the catheter is in place D) During the administration of numbing medication

B) before establishing a sterile field

What is the purpose of cleaning and draping the area before the procedure? A) To minimize discomfort B) To ensure proper imaging C) To establish a sterile field D) To prepare for anesthesia

C) to establish a sterile field

Which step is taken immediately after administering numbing medication? A) Cleaning the area again B) Inserting the guidewire C) Advancing the needle to the calyx D) Sending urine samples for labs

C) advancing the needle to the calyx

What is used to anchor the drain to the skin? A) A bandage B) A stitch and adhesive C) Sterile tape D) A skin glue

B) a stitch and adhesive

How often should indwelling catheters be changed? A) Every month B) Every 6 weeks C) Every 3 months D) Every 6 months

C) every 3 months

Complications and risks of Percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement?

Complications and risks: Bleeding Pneumothorax Bowel injury and peritonitis Urine leak Splenic or liver injury Catheter obstruction or displacement

Is static or dynamic guidance used more often for Paracentesis?

Static

Purpose of Paracentesis?

Remove ascitis from the abdomen

Paracentesis is diagnostic or therapeutic?

Both

Clinical indications for Paracentesis? A) cirrhosis B) malignancy C) heart failure D) TB

All of the above, dialysis and pancreatic disease are also indicators

What method is used to indicate the approach on the skin after localizing it with ultrasound? A) Ink tattoo B) Marker or indenting C) Surgical incision D) Digital palpation

B) marker or indenting

What is the first step taken after marking the location on the skin? A) Advancing the needle B) Cleaning and draping the area C) Administering local anesthetic D) Applying a bandage

B) cleaning and draping the area

What local anesthetic is typically used to numb the marked location? A) Bupivacaine B) Procaine C) Lidocaine D) Ropivacaine

C) lidocaine

What happens to the fluid collected during the procedure if it is deemed diagnostic? A) It is discarded immediately B) It is tested C) It is stored for future use D) It is injected back into the patient

B) it is tested

What is done at the end of the procedure after the catheter is removed? A) The site is sutured B) A dressing is applied C) Antibiotics are administered D) The patient is sent for imaging

B) a dressing is applied

How much fluid needs to be removed in Paracentesis to require albumin replacement?

Paracentesis complications

Complications Post-procedure leaking (z-track to minimize) Circulatory collapse/hepatorenal syndrome (minimized with albumin replacement) Bleeding Infection Bowel perforation

What are the steps of Paracentesis? (4)

1. Mark the skin 2. Pull the skin down 3. Insert the needle perpendicular to the skin and aspirate 4. Withdraw the needle and release the skin

List equipment for Paracentesis

60 mL syringe 10 mL syringe Lidocaine Needle with catheter specimen tubes 22 gauge needle 25 gauge needle Scalpel Large volume collection tubing

What procedure is similar to paracentesis but involves draining pleural fluid? A) Thoracentesis B) Pleurodesis C) Chest tube insertion D) Mediastinoscopy

A) thoracentesis

In what position should the patient ideally be during the drainage of pleural fluid? A) Supine B) Prone C) Upright D) Lateral

C) upright

What areas of the body are typically accessed to drain pleural fluid? A) Abdomen B) Intercostal spaces of the posterior chest C) Anterior chest D) Neck

B) intercostal spaces of the posterior chest

What are the two main purposes of performing a thoracentesis? A) Cosmetic improvement and monitoring B) Diagnostic and therapeutic C) Pain relief and patient comfort D) Surgical intervention and imaging

B) diagnostic and therapeutic

Which condition would contraindicate performing a thoracentesis? A) Mild respiratory disease B) Intractable coughing C) Chest pain D) Low-grade fever

B) interactable coughing

How is the fluid typically removed during the thoracentesis procedure? A) Using suction B) By drainage bag without suction when possible C) Manually with a syringe D) Through a catheter system

B) by drainage bag without suction when possible

Thoracentesis complications

Complications Pain Cough Vasovagal reaction Re-expansion pulmonary edema Pneumothorax Hemothorax Infection

What is the primary use of endovaginal procedures? A) To assess breast tissue B) To evaluate the uterine cavity and endometrium C) To examine the abdominal organs D) To diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease

B) to evaluate the uterine cavity and endometrium

Which of the following is a common indication for performing an endovaginal procedure? A) Chest pain B) Fertility concerns C) Liver dysfunction D) Skin lesions

B) fertility concerns

What condition might be assessed using endovaginal procedures in postmenopausal women? A) Ovarian cysts B) Uterine prolapse C) Postmenopausal bleeding D) Vaginal infections

C) post menopausal bleeding

Which of the following can be an indication for an endovaginal procedure? A) Cystitis B) Submucosal fibroids C) Hyperthyroidism D) Osteoporosis

B) submucosal fibroids

Which of the following can be an indication for an endovaginal procedure? A) Cystitis B) Submucosal fibroids C) Hyperthyroidism D) Osteoporosis

B) submucosal fibroids

Which of the following is a contraindication for performing an endovaginal procedure? A) Heavy menstrual bleeding B) Pregnancy C) Previous pelvic surgery D) Mild abdominal pain

B) pregnancy

Why is the presence of an IUD considered a contraindication for endovaginal procedures? A) It may cause excessive bleeding B) It can interfere with imaging C) It may increase the risk of infection D) It may displace during the procedure

D) it may displace during the procedure

What day of the menstrual cycle should sis be preformed?

4-7

Should endovaginal ultrasound be preformed before or after SIS?

Before

What position should patient be in for SIS?

Lithotomy

What instrument is used to locate the cervix?

Speculum

What is used to clean during SIS?

Iodine

When is the balloon inflated during SIS?

Not until your past the cervix

What is the next step after the speculum is removed during SIS?

The endovaginal probe is inserted

What is injected in the catheter during SIS?

Sterile saline

What is the last step of SIS?

Balloon is deflated and catheter is removed

Test 2 Flashcards

(93 cards)