Test #2 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Define varus

A

turned inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a likely cause of the development of hip dysplasia (DDH)?

A

Multiple gestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When the lumbar and cervical spine excessively concave (swayback)

A

Lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The maneuver to place the already dislocated hip back in to place or normal position.

A

Ortalani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The maneuver to determine if the femoral head can be dislocated from the acetabulum.

A

Barlow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The name to assess the femoral length. Knees are uneven

A

Galeazzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adduction of the forefoot, Vargus of the heel.

A

Clubfoot - Talipes Equinovarus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The congenital webbing of digits.

A

Syndactly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a NB has an ineffective suck, swallow, and persistent drooling, check facial symmetry, can’t make a good seal around bottle you should think…

A

Injury to the facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common birth fracture?

A

Clavicular fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What injury happens when the nerve root is completely pulled out of the vertebral body?

A

The nerve innervation is not coming back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What injury occurs at C 5-7 in the brachial plexus?

A

Erb’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When the grasp is intact but no moro on the affected side think…

A

Total brachial plexus injury C5-T1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for Brachial Plexus injuries?

A

Immobilization for 1-5 days
splints
passive range of motion
gradual increase in activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the % chance of having a major anomaly when 3 or more minor anomalies are present?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a common polygenic defect?

A

Cleft lip and cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are non-sex chromosomes called?

A

autosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What disorder is caused by monosomy 45?

A

Turners. 45 XO (missing the other X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What disorder has a flat nasal bridge, upward slant of the palpebral fissures, protruding tongue, brachycephaly?

A

Trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are two common congenital defects arise with Trisomy 21?

A

Congenital heart defects

GI malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What disorder has flexed overlapped fingers, hypoplastic nails, rocker-bottom feet

A

Trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disorder has cardiac defects and bilateral cleft lip/palate?

A

Trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The combination of defects occurring together but in a less fixed group?

A

Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An infant with brushfield spots and small low set and square ears should be evaluated for

A

Down’s syndrome

25
An x-linked recessive inheritance pattern is based on which of the following?
Females carry the gene
26
What spots can indicate neurofibromatosis is there are more than 3 and are >1.5 cm?
Café Au Lait spots
27
Port wine staines can sometimes indicate...
CNA abnormalities
28
If an infant can still have the MORO reflex at
3 months
29
What are the most common and significant sign of neurological dysfunction in the newborn?
Seizures
30
The probability of test negative when true disease is absent.
Specificity
31
What is to diagnosis shortly after birth infants with genetic diseases in which early treatment prevents or minimizes serious, irreversible complications or even death.
Neonatal screening
32
What is a criteria for selecting disease for screening?
When the disease is amenable to treat (no sure)
33
The list os screening criteria includes...
1. sensitive and specific test 2. Reliable means of reporting 3. resources fro tx 4. Cost of testing outweighed savings in human misery
34
What is the most accurate indicator of infection (<1500/mm3)?
Neutropenia
35
What is the normal value of C-Reactive Protein?
<1.0mg/dL thereafter
36
What is the desired inspiratory location?
R hemi-diaphragm at or below level of the 8th rib
37
When the baby is rotated the X-ray looks?
chest structures closest to the beam are magnified and appear enlarged and distorted
38
What affects the appearance of the ribs and you are unable to correctly assess line and tube location?
Angulation
39
When the xray is over exposed it will look...
Dark
40
What x-ray view is when the x-ray beam passes horizontally through patient in the supine position?
Lateral
41
What penetration (over/under) will make the disease look better than it really is?
Over Penetration
42
When the trachea is deviated?
Mediastinal shift
43
What percentage of cardiothoracic ratio suggests cardiomeglay?
>60%
44
When is transient cardiomegaly seen?
Asphyxia
45
When can a gasless abdomen seen?
Esophageal Atresia without fistula
46
Where is the level of the carina?
T4
47
What are the UAC line placements? Low? High?
Low - L3-L4 | High - T6-T9
48
What is the correct placement for UVC?
above the diaphragm in the IVC and outside the R atrium
49
What is the correct placement for a PICC?
Tip at the junction of SVC and R atrium. 1cm outside the cardiac sillhouette in preterm and 2cm outside in term.
50
What error happens with trisomy?
nondy junction?! not sure
51
What is the cardiac and GI problem associated with trisomy 21
AV canal and duodenal atresia
52
in the association of VATERS, what does the acronym mean?
``` V = vertebral or VSD A = anal TE = TE fistula R = renal or radial S = single umbilical artery ```
53
When there is resp distress with cyanosis and asymmetric chest movement but no lung disease?
Phrenic Nerve Palsy
54
When there is resp distress with cyanosis and asymmetric chest movement but no lung disease?
Phrenic Nerve Palsy
55
What type of birth injury is the most common and life threatening?
Hepatic injuries
56
Rooting reflex should disappear at what age?
4 months
57
Palmar grasp should disappear at what age?
2 months
58
When should the Tonic neck reflex ("fencing reflex") disappear?
7 months